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AA ST2 > Leicester course notebook notes > Flashcards

Leicester course notebook notes Flashcards

1
Q

Iodine 131 is used. If seen in another organ of a patient post thyroidectomy which organ would make you suspect there is malignant spread? (Options: Lung, Liver, bladder, stomach, salivary gland)

A

Lung does uptake but only minimally.

Liver, gb, urinary tract,
stomach, breast.

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2
Q

High DWI signal and Low ADC in frontal parietal lobe. High DWI and high ADC signal in medial posterior temporal lobe

What are the locations of insult.
What are the timeframes of the insult

A

Fronto parietal - MCA
Medial posterior temporal- PCA

High DWI and Low ADC - acute infarct

High DWI and High ADC - old

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3
Q

Temporal lobe blood supply

A

anterior portion is MCA

posterior is PCA

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4
Q

Patient with a facial rash, seizures and splenic adenoma. What is the other associated finding?(options: bilateral scwhanomas, optic glioma, angioma, haemangioblastoma, SEGA

A

(Answer: ?Giant cell astrocytoma secondary to tuberous sclerosis) (tuberous scerlosis was not mentioned in the stem)

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5
Q

Tarlov Cyst?

A

also called perineural cysts

Extra dural, but contain neural tissue

common 5%, mostly women.

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6
Q

wyrinx ax to

A

myelomeningocele and ciahri I and II

Dandy walker syndrome

Klipper-Feil

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7
Q

do mucoceles enhance

A

in the peripherary only (variable if they do not)

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8
Q

Peripheral enhancement of mass in maxillary sinus with dumbbell protrusion from osteum.

A

peripheral enhacning mass in the sinus is a mucocele

dubell protrusion would be considered an atrochonal mass but these require no contrast, expand the ostium rather than be a dumbell

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9
Q

Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

A

asphenopalatine foramen

which is the medial border of the pterygoopalatine fossa

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10
Q

what are the MRI features of saggital sinus thrombosis

A

iso T1, hypo T2 (mimic a flow void)

subacute will be high T1.

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11
Q

carotid dissection best MR iaging

A

T1 - no contrast

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12
Q

CT haemorrhage, how does density change

A

blood is iso to brain at 2 weeks.

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13
Q

MRI findings of mesial temporal sclerosis

A

reduced hippocampal volume: hippocampal atrophy

increased T2 signal

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14
Q

what are the fisher scores for sub arachnoid haemorrhage

A

1 - no blood seen
2 - <1mm
3 - >1mm
4 - intraventricular

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15
Q

Carotid artery stenosis score

A

Normal - <125cm/s
50% - 130cm

> 230cm /s 70% stenosis .

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16
Q

skull fracture, likley nerves to damage

A

1 and 2

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17
Q

Thyroid US parameters for U5 badnessx

A

solid hypoechoic with a lobulated or irregular outline and microcalcification

papillary carcinoma

solid hypoechoic with a lobulated or irregular outline and globular calcification

medullary carcinoma

intranodular vascularity

taller than wide axially (AP>ML)

characteristic associated lymphadenopathy

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18
Q

normal pituitary on MRI

A

The posterior pituitary has
-intrinsic high T1 signal
- hypointense signal on T2 weighted images

Anterior is iso on both T1 and T2

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19
Q

craniopharyngioma in kids

A

Adamantinomatous craniopharyngiomas are WHO grade 1 tumors of the pituitary region typically presenting as cystic masses with peripheral calcifications in children.

wet keratin

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20
Q

papillary craniopharyngioma

A

adults

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21
Q

plagiocephaly

A

lamboid and/or coronal

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22
Q

chiari 1 is ax to

A

Klippel Feil

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23
Q

how does penumbra relate to DWI and PWI

A

Penumbra is PWI area that is bigger than the DWI

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24
Q

cn7 NORMAL ENHANCEMENT LOCATION for normal nerve

A

CANICULAR

and between tympanic and mastoid

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25
Q

MS plaques on T2

A

bright

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26
Q

rubella infction congenital

A

deaf and blind
VSD and Tet of Fallot

ventricular megaly with periventricular calc

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27
Q

CMV brain infeciton congential

A

basal calc

periventricular calc
cerebral atrophy

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28
Q

do meningiomas haemorrhage

A

nno

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29
Q

do meningiomas cause local oedema

A

60% of them do yes

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30
Q

describe anatomy of the basal ganglia

A

caudate nucleus, pallidus and putamen

Striatum - all three
Lentifrom nucleus is - pallidus and putamen
Neostriatum is caudate and pallidus.

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31
Q

Toxo post contrast enhacnement

A

nodular and ring pattern

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32
Q

what are the liver fatty lesions

A

HCC
Adenoma
AML

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33
Q

types of hepatic adenoma

A

inflammatory - common and bleedy
HNF1alpha - second commonest, ax with the pill
b catenin - ax with FAP and anabolic steroids

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34
Q

Adenoma contrast enhancenemt

A

arterial enhance, hold onto the contrast until delayed when they go iso

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35
Q

Is AFP alwasys high in HCC

A

no
only 60%

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36
Q

Liver differentials for a hypervascular lesion

A

HCC
FNH
Adenoma
NET

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37
Q

cholangiocarcinoma enhancement pattern

A

gradual
irregular peripheral enhancement at beginning

capsular retraction and intra hepatic duct dilatation

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38
Q

why does a cirrhotic liver not get mets

A

portal hypertension

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39
Q

autoimmune pancreatitis - symptoms

A

no pain
weight loss
jaundice
new dm

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40
Q

bowel accordiion sign

A

pseudomembranous colitits

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41
Q

oesophagus stricture in upper oesophagus

A

plummer vinson - risk of cancer
iron deficient anaemia

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42
Q

HNPPC is ax with what syndrome

A

Lynch

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43
Q

Paeds UTI - what is counted as repeat UTI

A

3 lower
2 upper
1 upper and 1 lower

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44
Q

what constitutes paeds UTI atypical

A

non ecoli
not responded to abx
high Cr

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45
Q

brachicephaly

A

loss of coronol sutures

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46
Q

oxycephaly

A

coronol and saggital is lost

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47
Q

turricephaly

A

all of them

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48
Q

when to do a 1hr paeds CT head

A

?NAI
seizure
GCS low
?fracture
neuro deficit

or multiple of
- mechanism
- >3 vomitting
- LOC

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49
Q

paeds trauma - CT abdo if

A

bruising
tenderness
tachy unexplained

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50
Q

cystic bones lesions

FOGMACHINES

A

FD
Osteblastoma
GCT
Mets
ABC
Chondroblastoma
Hyperparathyroidism browns tumour
Infection
NOF
EG / Enchondroma
Simple bone cyst

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51
Q

Sequestrations difference in arterial feeding

A

INtra - one large systemic feeding

Extra - systemic but multiple small ones

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52
Q

CPM
intra seq
extra seq

which will appear as an echogenic mass

A

CPM
Extra

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53
Q

cut offs for secondary sexual charachteristics for boys and girls by age

A

boys < 8
girls <9

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54
Q

where is a cannatal cyst found

A

at the level of the frontal horns
anterior to foramen of munro

need to differentiate from periventricular leukomalacia and pseudocysts of the germinal matrix

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55
Q

what are pseudocysts of the germinal matrix

A

next to the foramen munro
pre term or term

caviating cysts of the germinal matrix, often due to haemorrhage.

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56
Q

where are subependymal cysts found

A

under/by the germinal matrix (under the ventricles)

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57
Q

PVL nenoate has to be under how many weeks

A

34

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58
Q

who looks after LCH patients

A

oncology

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59
Q

differential for infundibulum thickneing

A

Germinoma
LCH

in adults
neurosarcoid
mets
lymphoma
hypophysitis

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60
Q

causes of vertebra plana

A

infection
mets/myeloma
EG
Lymphoma
Trauma

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61
Q

atrial appendages - which is tubular

A

LEFT

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62
Q

hyparterial bronchus is found

A

polysplenia
ie in L heterotaxy

Hyparterial means bronchus under the artery.

higher left hilum as pulmonary vessel rides over the top

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63
Q

baby

group b strep cxr appearance

A

patchy bilateral

?effusion

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64
Q

posterior vertebrla scalloping and middle beaking

A

achondroplasia

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65
Q

small SI joints with notches

A

achondroplasia

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66
Q

hypoplasia of C1 arch

A

downs

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67
Q

rectosigmoid junction ratio should be

A

> 1

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68
Q

what is a rhabdoid tumour?

A

in kidneys affects kids age 1-2
big mass, v aggressive.

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69
Q

how to differnetiate rhabdoid from WIlms

A

when differentiating from Wilms
subcapsular fluid collections
tumour lobules separated by hypoattenuating areas of necrosis or haemorrhage
calcifications

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70
Q

liver
mesenchymal hamartoma has what appearance

A

cystic

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71
Q

mesenchymal hamartoma lesions are found in what age group

A

infant

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72
Q

doulbe aortic arch impression is higher on the

A

right

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73
Q

features of decreased success rate in intusseption

A

trapped fluid
low vascularity
pathological leadpoint
sbo
old child
rectal bleeding
long duratin of symptoms

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74
Q

what is the imaging pattern for skeletal survey

A

do within 72hours and follow up in 11-14 days.

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75
Q

is CT head a part of the skeletal survey dfor NAI

A

only if under 1

(otherwise only if head trauma exists)

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76
Q

Berry aneurysms are ax with

A

Marfans
PCKD
Ehlos Danlos
NF1

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77
Q

does toxoplasmosis have an irregular nodular ring

A

yes

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78
Q

autoimmune limbic encephalitis ax to

A

Non small cell lung cancer

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79
Q

Cord ependymoma vs astrocytoma

A

astrocytoma is ECCENTRIC (ependymoma is middle)

Ependymoma has a haemosiderin cap. also adults.

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80
Q

Progressive supranuclear palsy get what in midbrin

A

atrophy - hummingbird

Mickey mouse sign

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81
Q

Flattening of the hippocampal digitations

A

Medial temporal sclerosis

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82
Q

leriche syndrome

A

abdominal aorta constriction

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83
Q

investigate May Thurners

A

do MR

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84
Q

Intermittent claudication treatment

A

conservative exercise programme

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85
Q

CIA occlusion

A

stent

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86
Q

CFA stenosis or occlusion

A

surgery CFA endarterectomy

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87
Q

INfrainguinal occlusion / stenosis tx

A

ANGIOPLASTY

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88
Q

FRESH OCCLUSION WHAT TO DO ?

A

bypass and thrombectomy

can’t go IR as risk of showering

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89
Q

global endocardial

cardiac mri

A

AMyloid
systemic sclerosis
post transplant

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90
Q

MRI

IRON OVERLOAD HAEMOCHROMATOSIS/
SSC/THAL

A

VARIABLE T2 STAR – DECAY TIME
TE <10ms severe
>20 ms normal

T2 hypointesity of
liver

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91
Q

Cardiac MRI tehcniques

Shimming
Parallel imaging
Phase swap
Prospective triggering

A

Shimming - reduce susceptibility artefact
Parallel imaging - reduce acquisition time
Phase swap - to reduce wrap
Prospective triggering = address heart rate variability

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92
Q

black blood sequence is what type

A

TSE

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93
Q

White blood seqwuences are what type

A

SSFP

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94
Q

what is given for stress MRI

A

Adenosine

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95
Q

myxoma preferred location

A

interatrial septum

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96
Q

cardiac sarcoma preferred location

A

right atrium

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97
Q
  • Thymoma vs thymic/lymphoid hyperplasia
A

– MR in characterizing
lesion – please note thymic hyperplasia may be demonstrate increased uptake on FDG PET

thymic hperplasia has fat

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98
Q

bronchogenic vs oesophageal duplication cyst

A

ODC - thicker wall, contain gastric mucosa. closer to oesophagus

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99
Q

the dilated chamber is the chamber that receives the most blood in

A

diastole

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100
Q

does LAM have ax to smoking

A

NO

101
Q

LAM can be ax with

A

TS and AML

102
Q

Birt dog dubbe get what?

A

Birt Hogg Dube - Very rare, recurrent pneumothoraces, cysts in the lower zones, clear cell RCC,
fibrofolliculomas

103
Q

eligibility of Nintedanib

A

vital capacity (FVC) decline ≥10%,
death, lung transplantation, or any 2 of: relative FVC decline ≥5 and
<10%, worsening respiratory symptoms, or worsening fibrosis on
computed tomography of the chest, all within 24 months of diagnosis.

104
Q

Talcosis can cause emphysema where

A

lower lobes

105
Q

names of pancreatitis collections

A

non infected
Acute pancreatic collection
Pseudocyst at 4 weeks

infected
Acute necrotic collection
wall off necrotic colleciton

105
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobulinuria can predispose to what

A

Budd Chiari

106
Q

Uniclocular pnacreatic cyst with amylase

A

pseudocystn

107
Q

Corkscrew oesophagus /rosary beadss

A

Diffuse oesophageal spasm

108
Q

hot drinks improve what oesophagus condition

A

achalsia

109
Q

carcinoid causes what in the mesentry

A

reaction
sharp edges to the bowel

110
Q

Ventral pancreas is the

A

uncinate and major papilla santorini

111
Q

Dorsal pancreas form

A

the body and the wirsrung small pappila

112
Q

Cronkite canda

A

polyps and diarrhead

113
Q

Amyloid causes liver to what

A

decrease in density

114
Q

actinomycosis love what in the bowle

A

the appendix

115
Q

Tylosis causes

A

hand and feet

scc oesophagus

116
Q

Histoplasmosis have what kind of calcification

A

central calcification

117
Q

Commonest ype of FMD

A

medial fibroplasia

118
Q

malignany in trachea

A

scc

then adenoid cystic

119
Q

factors increasing risk of contrast reaction

A

atopy
asthma
Beta blockers
HF
Age over 50
shelffish allergy

120
Q

Pancoast tumour is most commonly

A

SCC

121
Q

If PA over 2.9cm then

A

pulmonary hypertension is very likely

122
Q

appearance of chronic DVT

A

low size of blood vessel
less echongenic than acute thrombus

123
Q

RECIST criteria

A

Complete - gone
Partial - decrease by 30%
progresison - increase by 20%

if multiple lesion can do by sum of the long axis

124
Q

common posterior spine lesions

A

Osteblastoma
mets
abc

125
Q

which arthritis goes for the feet

A

reactive

126
Q

causes of erlenmeyer flask

A

low phosphate
RA
leukaemia
achondroplasia
sickle
thalassaemia
rickets

127
Q

Synovial osteochondromatosis

vs

Osteochondra Dissecians

A

OCD is end result of osteochondral defect

synovial osteochondromatosis
- characterised by loose cartilaginous bodies which may, or may not be calcified or ossified. Primary small and non calcified. Secondary they are calcified.

128
Q

elastofibroma affect who

A

midlde aged women

129
Q

what is POEMS

A

Polyneuropathy
Monoclonal gammopathy
skin
endocrine

130
Q

Nail Patella

A

posterior iliac horns
atrophy patella
renal dysfuctino

hypoplasia of the radial head

131
Q

causes of lucent ribs

A

scurvy
cushings
acromegaly

132
Q

pectus excavatum is ax with

A

prem babies
downs
marfans
haemocystinuria

133
Q

type of ulnar variance in Kienbock

A

ax with negative ulnar variance

134
Q

what are the sclerotic mets

A

prostate
carcinoid
breast

TCC
medulloblastoma
colon

135
Q

age for Ewings

A

under 10

136
Q

disc bulge vs herniation

A

90 degrees plus is big old bulge

less is herniation

137
Q

what is pachydermoperiostosis?

A

Primary hypertrophic osteopaty

stops spontaneously.
bilaterally lower limb periosteal reaciton

138
Q

Does PVNS erode

A

not really

139
Q

do chordoma mets

A

no

140
Q

pelvic fractures

malaigne

A

two fractures same side. vertical fracture.

141
Q

Chondroblastoma affect who and where

A

under 30

in the physis.

142
Q

size of osteoid osteoma

A

less than 1.5cm

143
Q

Tranient osteoporosis more common in

A

men

ax with pregnant women though

144
Q

Trident hand

A

achondroplasia

145
Q

PET SUV values for being partial repsons

A

15% if 1 cycle chemo

25% if 2 cycles

inverse for progression

146
Q

oesophageal diverticulum by location

A

superior - structural like

Midle - traction from mediastinal lung pathology

Inferior - pulsion

147
Q

liver transplant is considered with what HCC lesion criteria

A

upto 3 if <3cm

1 if <5cm

148
Q

CMV favours the c

A

colon

149
Q

Slow transit and multiple bowel thin bowel lines

A

Systemic sclerosis

150
Q

Caroli ax with

A

medullary sponge kidney
hepatic fibrosis (caroli syndrome)
ADPCKD
ARPCKD

151
Q

“central dot” sign: enhancing dots within the dilated intrahepatic bile ducts, representing portal radicles 1

A

Caroli disease

152
Q

certain cancers spread by plugging the lymphaTICS

A

Cervix, Colon, Stomach, Breast, Pancreas, Thyroid, Larynx

153
Q

Takayasus arteritis

A

young women

prepulesless phase
pulseless phase

Aorta
The pulmonary arteries are also commonly involved, with the most common appearance being peripheral pruning.

154
Q

which lung malignancy causes SVCO

A

bronchogenic

155
Q

GCA affects who and how

A

Old patients
Medium to large vessels
lng and smooth

circumferential wall thickening

156
Q

Hodkins lymphoma typically what Cell

A

T

157
Q

NHL typically

A

B cell

158
Q

ANti basement membrane
pulmonary haemorrhage
glomerulonephritis

A

Good pastures

159
Q

H shaped sacrum uptake

A

insufficiency fracture

160
Q

PET signal during a seizure

A

avid areas

cold when not seizing

161
Q

Flattening of the hippocampal digitations

A

Mesial temporal sclerosis

162
Q

Optic Neuritis unilateral or bilateral

compare it to NMO and anti-MOG encephalitis

A

Unilateral optic neuritis (and MS if that is the cause)

other ytwo are bilateral

163
Q

acquaporin 4 is ax with which disese

A

NMO

autoantibody to it

164
Q

contraindications for thrombin pseudo aneurysm tx

A

3mm neck
5cm size

active bleeding
av fistula

165
Q

Splenic truama scale and treatment

A

1 - 1cm 10% haematoma
2 - 2cm, 10-50% haematoma.

Above two treat conservatively

3 - laceration of 3cm, haematoma over 50%. ruptured subcapsule.

intervention if patient stable

4 - devascularised
5- shattered

last two need surgery

166
Q

signs of haemodynamic instability

A

cool, calmmy, decreased cap refill,
altered conscious
SOB

bp above >90 but needing trasnfusions support.
Transient response

above mean dodoy for intervention

167
Q

May thurners is what combo

A

right artery over left vein

168
Q

IVC filter insertion location

A

distal to renal arteries

169
Q

IVC indications

A

pregnant near delivery

pre operative with prox dvt to stop anticoagulation

170
Q

stomach fundus is supplied by what arteries

A

short gastric arteries given off by the splenic artery

171
Q

what is salpingitis isthmic nodosa

A

nodularity of the isthmic fallopian tube.

ax with inflammaiton and tubual pregnancy

diverticula along the tube

172
Q

how do you stage cervical cancer - what imaging

A

MRI with contrast

2b can’t operate on. has gone north

173
Q

normal endometrial thickness

A

up to 15mm

174
Q

post menopausal endometrium should be less than

A

5mm

unles son tomoxifen - get a pass up to 8mm

175
Q

ovarian germ cell tumours typically in

A

kids

176
Q

Breast screening age range

A

47 - 73

every 3 years

177
Q

what is Li Fraumeni syndrome

what imaging do they get

A

TP53 gene mutated

super sensitive to radiation.

get annual MRI from 20 to 70.

178
Q

phyllodes on US

A

posterior acoustic enhancenemtn

179
Q

age for fibroadenoma

A

20-40

180
Q

breast in a breast

A

hamartoma

181
Q

periductal mastitis is ax with

A

smoking and diabetes

182
Q

silicone that has travelled into the lymph node will appear as

A

snowstorm

doesn’t mean the implant is ruptured

183
Q

smooth C shaped tracheal thickening

A

relapsing polychondritis

184
Q

trachea

strictures and webbs

A

GPA

185
Q

speckled slat and pepper appearance of a mass think

A

paraganglioma

186
Q

thyomoma vs thymic hyperplasia

A

in and out

hyperplasia is normal fatty tissue and so will dorp out

187
Q

enhancement of neurofibromas and schwannomas

A

neuro - homongenous

schwannomas - hetero

188
Q

which is more symtpomatic

osephageal or beronchogenic duplication cyst

A

bronchogneic

189
Q

size of vessels in chronic PE

A

small !

190
Q

PE

poorest predictor on CT

A

RV LV ratio

191
Q

pulmonary veno occlusive disease

what is it

PCWP -

A

extensive occlusion of pulmonary veins by fbrious tissue

heart failure depsite normal LV. Veins get mashed.

Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) is usually normal

192
Q

what is pulmonary capillary haemangiomatosis

A

occlusive disesae causing pul HTN

proliferating capilleries. enlarged central arteries

193
Q

if a nodule is perifissural otr subpleural what size can you not follow up

A

10mm

194
Q

asbestos

hairy plaques and pleural effusion

A

EXPOSURE

195
Q

mesothelioma sign

A

invasion of the fissueres

mediastinum thickening

196
Q

spares the lung bases

A

LCH
hypersensitivity

197
Q

young women
cysts
pneumthoroax

A

LAM

also spares costophrenic receess

198
Q

birt dog dubbe get cysts where

A

LLZ
Chromophobe RCC

repeated pneumothorax

fibrofolliculomas on skin.

199
Q

Solitary fibrous tumour of lung ax with

A

hypoglycaemia

hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy - periosteal reaction of long bones

200
Q

immunotherapy induced pneumonitis pattern

A

OP

201
Q

immunotherapy - pseudo progression

A

cna get bigger. or new lesions.

need clincial status.

need serial imaging to count on progression for immunothrapy.

202
Q

black pleura sign is seen in

A

Pulmonary alceolar microlithiasis

subpleuiral sparing of the microlithiaissois

203
Q

what is keratosis obturans

A

expansino and occluisino of EAC by a keratin plug.

younger patients under 40
severe pain and conductive hearing loss

NO bony erosion. compared to EAC cholesteatoma which is soft tissue density

Otitis externa will have surrounding inflammatory fat stranding

204
Q

why is incus most at risk during choleateatoma

A

has worxst blood supply

205
Q

apperance of aberrant internal carotid artery

A

large vessel in the middle ear

206
Q

enhancement of cholestrol granuloma

A

it doesn’t

207
Q

what is tolosa hunt

A

idopathic infalmmatory
cavernous sinus and orbital apex.

painful eye movements

208
Q

scirrus breast mets in the eye

A

will pull in

209
Q

lymphangio malformaiton what sign

A

fluid fluid levels

210
Q

orbital cavernous haemagnioma what compartment

A

intraconal

211
Q

defect in nasal septum thnik

A

GPA

212
Q

orbital sarcoid - what sign

A

anterior uveitis

can get enhacning lacrimal gland with contrast, hypo T1 adn T2.

213
Q

signs of inverted papilloma

A

cerebreform enhacnement (brian like)
bone reaction

214
Q

perineural dsease think

A

adenoid cystic loves the nerves

215
Q

pleomorphic mass has what imaging appearance

parotid

A

lobulated and homogenous enhancement

216
Q

complete ptosis requires involvement of

A

sympathetic AND third nerve

217
Q

myelofibrosis in bones appearance

A

diffusesly sclerotic

low signal on imaging

218
Q

Haemachromatosis bones findings

A

Chondrocalcinosis - TFCC and knees
symmetrical joint loss.

hooks to the m radial ends of 2nd and 3rd metacarpals

219
Q

what is dermatomyostitis

A

sheets of calc around muslce plane s

220
Q

what to do with a lipoma over 6cm

A

refer to tertiary centre and do an MRI scna

221
Q

Giant cell tumour (PVNS)
vs
Glomangioma

A

Glomangioma - vascular, painful. bright on T2 and high enhacnement.

Giant Cell tumour - low T1 and T2, low enhancement, blooming

222
Q

Cardiac myxoma

more common is sessile or pedunculated

A

peddunculated

223
Q

When to use a treadmill test for a patient?

A

used for risk stratisfication

if angina

can also do calcium scoring

224
Q

cardiac functional testing can do what

A

dobutamine stress echo

rhobydicin nuclear medicine study

225
Q

Contraindications to BB in cardiac studuies

A

HB 2 and 3
Sick sinus
severe asthma
phaeo

226
Q

MR heart circle view - territories

A

A L I S clockwise for anterior, lateral, inferior, Superior

227
Q

post TAVI hyperattneutating leaflet thickening

A

Pannus

a vegetation would be mobile

228
Q

Gorlin syndrome

A

BCC
medullobasltoma
calcified falx?
odonteogenic keratosis

229
Q

Cowdens

A

dysplastic cerebellum gangliocytoma when in association with lermitte duclos

230
Q

Walls of abscess vs met

A

thick met

thin avscess

231
Q

NAA
Cholin
Cr

A

NAA - stability
Cholin - turnover
Cr - metabolism?

232
Q

MS high spec peaks are

A

high Beta glutamic

look this up

233
Q

GBM

Multifocal

Multicentric

A

Multifocal - from one source

Multicentrice - number of different sources

234
Q

cord lesions

myxopapillary ependymoma is found where

A

in the cord conus
more bleedy

235
Q

go over the leucodsystrophires

A
236
Q

leucodystrophy

X linked

A

enhancing peri trigonal white matter

237
Q

leucodystrophy

thalamic calcification
optic nerve

A

Krabbe

238
Q

Japanese encephalitis

A

bilateral thalamic oedema is classic

239
Q

Cavernous haemagnioma MRI appearance

A

T2 btight but haemosiderin rim

popcorn calc in it

240
Q

PML - after MRI what to do

A

can biopsy

241
Q

what can toxoplasma do after treatment

A

bleed”

242
Q

atypical teratoid / rhaboid tumour

A

very agressive quick growing.
kids under 2
haemorrhage

can look similar to medulloblastoma but seen in older kids

243
Q

subependymoma

age group
enhancement

distinguish from subependymal giant cell astrocytoma.

A

older patients
doesnt enhacne

Size is the most important distinguishing feature compared to SEGA

244
Q

how does a pilocystic astrocystoma enhacne

A

nodule and the wall of the cystic component enhances

in comparison to haemangioblastoma which will have only the nodule enhacnign

245
Q

tx of haemangioblastoma

A

can embolise and then resect

246
Q

how to categorise uterine abnormalities

which imaging modality

A

MR

247
Q

hydatiform mole

complete

partial

invasive

A

complete mole
- no foetal parts. complete absence of baby.
- 46XX. super high bcg

partial mole
- foetal parts
- triploid karyotype
counseling and genetic tests looking for triploidy should be offered (chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis).

248
Q
A

AA ST2 (14 decks)

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