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paramedicine > Legal/Injury prevention/Pharmacology > Flashcards

Legal/Injury prevention/Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What is primary injury prevention?

A

Keeping an injury from occurring

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2
Q

What is a secondary injury prevention?

A

preventing further injury from an event that has already occurred.

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3
Q

What is the largest health problem currently facing the country?

A

Unintentional injury

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4
Q

What is an intentional or unintentional damage to a person that results from acute exposure to thermal, mechanical, electrical, or chemical energy or from the absence of essentials such as heat or oxygen.

A

Injury

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5
Q

Without intent to harm means what?

A

Unintentional injury

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6
Q

Injuries that are self-inflicted or perpetrated by another person, usually involving some type of violence is known as what?

A

Intentional injuries

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7
Q

Tracking of potential hazards and create prevention programs is called?

A

injury surveillance

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8
Q

The study of the causes causes, patterns, prevalence, and control of disease in groups of people is known as?

A

Epidemiology

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9
Q

True or False, Mortality rates is much easier to measure than morbidity (nonfatal injury)?

A

True

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10
Q

What three elements compose the epidemiological environment (also known as the epidemiologic triad)?

A

Host, Environment, and Agent

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11
Q

Haddon Matrix includes the triad and what three phases?

A

Pre-event, Event, Post event

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12
Q

The EP5 matrix includes what?

A

Education, Engineering, Enforcement, Environment, EMS

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13
Q

What is the teachable moment?

A

The time immediately after an injury has occurred when the patient and observers remain acutely aware of what has happened and may be more receptive to learning how the event or illness could have been prevented.

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14
Q

Chronology is what?

A

The arrangement of events in time

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15
Q

The five P’s of prevention application are what?

A

Problem, Program, Partnership, Preparation, Policy

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16
Q

The theory and philosophy of law is known as what?

A

Jurisprudence

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17
Q

Moral principles based on societal standards that identify desirable conduct refers to what?

A

Ethics

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18
Q

The legislative branch includes the congress and state legislatures which is the source of what law?

A

Statutory law

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19
Q

The judicial branch includes state and federal courts which is the source of what law?

A

Case law

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20
Q

The executive branch is the source of what law?

A

Administrative law

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21
Q

Recognition of minimal competency and the completion of prescribed education or training is what?

A

Licensure

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22
Q

The failure to act as a reasonably prudent and careful person would act under similar circumstances is called what?

A

Negligence

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23
Q

The plaintiff has a limit to the amount of time in which he or she can initiate a lawsuit seeking damages and injury is known as?

A

Statute of Limitaions

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24
Q

A negligent lawsuit alleging medical malpractice by a paramedic falls under the heading of what?

A

unintentional tort

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25
Q

Negligence on the part of the injured plaintiff is known as what?

A

Contributory negligence

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26
Q

The paramedic must be found to have violated the standard of care applicable to the circumstances is known as what?

A

Breach of duty

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27
Q

Performing a wrongful act is called?

A

Malfeasance

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28
Q

Performing a legal act in a wrongful manner is called what?

A

Misfeasance

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29
Q

Failure to perform a required act or duty is called what?

A

Nonfeasance

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30
Q

Violation of an applicable law or regulation by the paramedic can constitutes what?

A

Negligence per se

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31
Q

The defendants actions must have caused or created harm to the plaintiff also known as proximate cause is what?

A

Causation

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32
Q

Provisions that protect paramedics for acts of ordinary negligence or acts or omissions done in good faith is called what?

A

Immunity

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33
Q

Administrative agencies seeking to discipline a licensed or certified provider must do so by giving him or her, at a minimum, notice of the charges and/or proposed disciplinary action and a chance to be heard regarding those charges is known as what?

A

Due process

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34
Q

A type of law that deals with private complaints brought by a plaintiff against a defendant for wrong doing is what?

A

Civil Law

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35
Q

The legal word for wrong is what?

A

Tort

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36
Q

An area of law in which an individual is prosecuted on behalf of society for violating laws designed to safeguard society is known as?

A

Criminal Law

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37
Q

A predefined set of skills, interventions, or other activities that the paramedic is authorized to perform is known as?

A

Scope of practice

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38
Q

What relates to the conduct expected of a reasonably prudent paramedic under similar circumstances?

A

Standard of care

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39
Q

Prospective medical direction includes what?

A

The development of clinical practice standards

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40
Q

When a paramedic consults a physician or other advanced healthcare professional by telephone, radio, or other means during the delivery of patient care or transport is known as what?

A

Concurrent medical direction.

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41
Q

Viewed as evidence of competency in certain skills or tasks is what?

A

Certification

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42
Q

What doctrine holds the “master” is liable for the acts of his “servant”?

A

Respondeat superior

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43
Q

Regulation of the practice of medicine by physicians is called?

A

medical practice acts

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44
Q

A type of tort case that addresses whether the paramedic was negligent is called what?

A

Malpractice

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45
Q

Under EMTALA can a hospital divert an ambulance to another hospital?

A

No, unless they are on “diversionary status” or more simply put, “diversion.”

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46
Q

What means things speak for itself?

A

res ipsa loquitur

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47
Q

An element that says a plaintiff must prove in a malpractice case against a paramedic is called?

A

Damages

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48
Q

What four things must be proved to convict a paramedic of negligence?

A

Duty, Breach of duty, Damages, and Causation

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49
Q

Wrongs in which the defendant meant to cause the harmful action is called what?

A

Intentional Torts

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50
Q

Touching or making contact with another person without that person’s consent is called what?

A

Battery

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51
Q

A threat of imminent bodily harm to another person by someone with the obvious ability to carry out the threat is called what?

A

Assault

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52
Q

Confinement or restraint of a person against his or her will or without appropriate legal justification is called what?

A

False imprisonment

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53
Q

Disclosing or publishing personal or private facts about a person to a person or persons not authorized to receive such information is called what?

A

Invasion of privacy

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54
Q

The publication of false information about a person that tends to blacken the person’s character or injure his or her reputation is called what?

A

Defamation

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55
Q

What is the written form of defamation?

A

Libel

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56
Q

What is the spoken from of defamation?

A

Slander

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57
Q

Informed permission, for care and or transportation by EMS providers is called what?

A

Consent

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58
Q

There are two types of consent, what are they called?

A

Expressed and Implied

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59
Q

When a person does not consent to be treated but under specific legal authority are given treatment because he or she poses a threat to others or self is known as what?

A

Involuntary consent

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60
Q

What is an emancipated minor?

A

Typically a self supporting minor and either have two common factors which are married and active duty with the armed forces.

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61
Q

What rules must be used for patient restraints?

A

They must be used cautiously, They must be used consistently with any applicable protocols, and They must be used in a way that protects the patient and preserves his or her dignity to the maximal extent possible.

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62
Q

A minor in most states is under what age?

A

18

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63
Q

A principal can consent for a minor under what principle?

A

Parens patriae

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64
Q

The withdrawal by a paramedic or other EMS provider from the care of a person who requires emergency medical attention without making arrangements for care to be transferred to another qualified provider is called?

A

Abandonment

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65
Q

The protection of patient information in any form and disclosure of that information only as needed for patient care or as otherwise permitted by law is called what?

A

Confidentiality

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66
Q

A document in which a competent person gives instructions to be followed regarding his or her healthcare in the event the person later becomes incapacitated and unable to make or communicate those decisions to others is called what?

A

Advance directives

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67
Q

Do not resuscitate does not mean what?

A

Don’t treat

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68
Q

Values that help a person define right versus wrong or (what a person ought not to do) is known as what?

A

Morals

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69
Q

A legal obligation and acted with due regard for the patient and upheld the standard of care is what?

A

Duty to act

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70
Q

Conduct that does not conform to approved standards of social or professional behavior is called what?

A

Unethical

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71
Q

A field of study that evaluates the decisions, conduct, policies, and social concerns of medical activities is called?

A

Medical ethics

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72
Q

Primum non nocere

A

first do no harm

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73
Q

Beneficence

A

doing good for others

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74
Q

Autonomy

A

patients right to choose or refuse care

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75
Q

Justice

A

The fair distribution of healthcare resources and decisions regarding who gets what treatment.

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76
Q

Truthfulness and honesty

A

patient deserves to know the truth about his or her illness or injury and medical treatment

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77
Q

A guide for interactions between members of a specific profession and the public is called?

A

Code of Ethics

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78
Q

What four actions do professionals do simply because they are professionals?

A

Staying certified, Staying educated, Reading, Looking and acting the part.

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79
Q

Basic virtues that are especially important to caregivers are what?

A

Courage, Honor, Humility, Kindness and Respect

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80
Q

What is health?

A

a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.

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81
Q

The science and practice of protecting and improving the health of a community, with a mission to “fulfill society’s interest in assuring conditions in which people can be healthy is called?

A

Public Health

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82
Q

Key components of the agency include the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, National Institutes of Health, Health Resources and Services Administration, and the Office of Public Health and Science (including Public Health Service Corps programming and the Office of the Surgeon General)

A

Key Components of Federal Agencies

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83
Q

The two advances in the past century that have done the most to improve health in the USA have been the provision of what?

A

Immunizations and Clean water

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84
Q

The process of evaluating a population for the presence or absence of disease is called?

A

Screening

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85
Q

The time when you can penetrate an individuals usual facade and reach his or her core values is called?

A

Teachable moment

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86
Q

True or false; Public health services are not obligated to provide individual healthcare.

A

True

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87
Q

A cross-cutting approach in which all forms of emergencies, including manmade and natural disasters, epidemics, and physical and biologic terrorism, are managed from a common template that uses consistent language and structure is called?

A

All hazards referring to all-hazards emergency preparedness.

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88
Q

During a time of activation of the local emergency management system, EMS often functions in a subsidiary role to the public health within what?

A

Emergency Service Function

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89
Q

The study of the prevalence and spread of disease in a community is called?

A

Epidemiology

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90
Q

The seclusion of individuals with an illness to prevent the transmission to others is called?

A

Isolation

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91
Q

The seclusion of entire groups of exposed but asymptomatic individuals for monitoring is called?

A

Quarantine

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92
Q

Any substance intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, relief, treatment, or prevention of disease or to affect the structure or function of the human body or other animals is called?

A

Drug

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93
Q

The study of drugs, including their actions and effects on the host is called?

A

Pharmacology

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94
Q

A book that contains a list of medicinal substances with their formulas, uses and methods of preparation is called?

A

Formulary

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95
Q

A book describing drugs, chemicals, and medicinal preparations in a country or specific geographic area is called?

A

Pharmacopeia

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96
Q

A precise description of the drug’s chemical composition and molecular structure is?

A

Chemical Name

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97
Q

The name listed in the United States pharmacopoeia is?

A

Official name

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98
Q

The name proposed by the first manufacturer when the drug is submitted to the FDA for approval is?

A

Generic name

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99
Q

Who assigns the a drug its generic name?

A

USAN or US adopted names council

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100
Q

What is another name for the generic name of a drug?

A

Non-proprietary

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101
Q

The name given a compound by the company that makes it is called?

A

Trade name

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102
Q

A large group of plant-based substances that contain nitrogen and are found in nature is called?

A

Alkaloids

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103
Q

Many drugs ending in “ine” are derived from what?

A

Alkaloids

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104
Q

A compound that yields a sugar and one or more other products when its parts are separated is?

A

Glycoside

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105
Q

Plant residues used for medicinal or recreational purposes are?

A

Gums

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106
Q

Extracted from flowers, leaves, stems, roots, seeds, and bark is called?

A

Oils

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107
Q

Drugs that are chemically developed in a laboratory are called?

A

synthetic drugs

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108
Q

Drugs are naturally occurring substances that have been chemically changed are called?

A

Semisynthetic drugs

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109
Q

Drug classifications are grouped into three main areas, what are they?

A

Body system, mechanism of action, class of agent

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110
Q

Classes under the group of body system are?

A 
Alimentary tract and metabolism
Blood and blood-forming organs
Cardiovascular system
Skin
Genitourinary system and sex hormones
111
Q

Classes under the group of mechanism of action are?

A 
Cardiac therapy
Antihypertensives
Diuretics
Peripheral vasodilators
Vasoprotectives
Beta-blocking agents
Calcium channel blockers
Agents acting on the renin-angiotensin system
Serum lipid-reducing agent
112
Q

Classes under the class of agent are?

A

Selective calcium channel blockers with mainly vascular effects
Selective calcium channel blockers with direct cardiac effects
Nonselective calcium channel blockers

113
Q

When was the Federal food, Drug, and cosmetic Act passed and what did it do?

A

1938; established FDA responsible for supervising and regulating drug safety

114
Q

A test of substance to find out its components (amount and purity) is called?

A

assay

115
Q

A test that tests the effects of a substance on an organism and compares the result with some agreed standard is?

A

bioassay

116
Q

All the nerves outside the CNS composes what?

A

Peripheral nervous system

117
Q

Cranial and spinal nerves that carry messages to skeletal muscles refers to what system?

A

Somatic Nervous system

118
Q

The part of the peripheral nervous system that is not under voluntary control is called?

A

Autonomic Nervous system

119
Q

The two main divisions of the autonomic nervous system are?

A

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic

120
Q

The muscle gland or organ on which the ANS exerts an effect is called?

A

Effector

121
Q

The parasympathetic is composed of what cranial and spinal nerves?

A

3, 7, 9, 10, S2, S4

122
Q

Where do the nerves of the Sympathetic originate?

A

The spinal nerves

123
Q

Parasympathetic activate SLUD from what acronym?

A

SLUDGEM

124
Q

A neurotransmitter is also known as what?

A

neuropeptide

125
Q

All autonomic pathways contain two nerves, what are they?

A

preganglionic neuron and postganglionic neuron

126
Q

What is the location where the CNS and peripheral systems connect?

A

Ganglion

127
Q

The space where ganglionic neurons meet is called?

A

synaptic junction

128
Q

A chemical molecule that travels to the other side of the synaptic junction is called?

A

Neurotransmitter

129
Q

What are the targets of pharmacologic intervention?

A

Neurotransmitters

130
Q

There are two major categories of neurotransmitters involved in transmission, what are they?

A

Adrenergic and Cholinergic

131
Q

Preganglionic neurons always release what chemical in both parasympathetic and sympathetic?

A

Acetylcholine

132
Q

Cranial and spinal nerves that carry messages to skeletal muscles refers to what system?

A

Somatic Nervous system

133
Q

The part of the peripheral nervous system that is not under voluntary control is called?

A

Autonomic Nervous system

134
Q

The two main divisions of the autonomic nervous system are?

A

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic

135
Q

The muscle gland or organ on which the ANS exerts an effect is called?

A

Effector

136
Q

The parasympathetic is composed of what cranial and spinal nerves?

A

3, 7, 9, 10, S2, S4

137
Q

Where do the nerves of the Sympathetic originate?

A

The spinal nerves

138
Q

Parasympathetic activate SLUD from what acronym?

A

SLUDGEM

139
Q

A neurotransmitter is also known as what?

A

neuropeptide

140
Q

All autonomic pathways contain two nerves, what are they?

A

preganglionic neuron and postganglionic neuron

141
Q

What is the location where the CNS and peripheral systems connect?

A

Ganglion

142
Q

The space where ganglionic neurons meet is called?

A

synaptic junction

143
Q

A chemical molecule that travels to the other side of the synaptic junction is called?

A

Neurotransmitter

144
Q

What are the targets of pharmacologic intervention?

A

Neurotransmitters

145
Q

There are two major categories of neurotransmitters involved in transmission, what are they?

A

Adrenergic and Cholinergic

146
Q

Postganglionic neurons release what chemical in the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems?

A

Acetylcholine for Para and Norepinephrine for Sympathetic

147
Q

The two exceptions for postganglionic neurons releasing norepinephrine from the sympathetic system is what?

A

sweat glands and and those ending on blood vessels in the skeletal muscle. These release a cholinergic or Acetylcholine

148
Q

Two main types of cholinergic receptors that are found in the parasympathetic system are?

A

nicotinic and muscarinic

149
Q

Increasing the number of cell receptors to enhance the sensitivity is?

A

Upregulation

150
Q

Drugs that block or inhibit cholinergic receptors are?

A

parasympatholytics (anticholinergics)

151
Q

What breaks down acetylcholine?

A

acetylcholinesterase

152
Q

What are the receptors of the sympathetic system called?

A

Adrenergic receptors

153
Q

Medications that stimulate the sympathetic receptors are?

A

sympathomimetics

154
Q

Medications that block or inhibit the sympathetic receptors are?

A

sympatholytics

155
Q

A drug goes through what four phases of activity after is is administered?

A

Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, and Elimination

156
Q

Where are dopamine receptors found?

A

Renal, mesenteric, and visceral blood vessels

157
Q

Peristalsis is defined as?

A

smooth muscle movement in the intestines

158
Q

Most drugs exert their effect by binding with what?

A

Protein molecules or receptors

159
Q

A selective pathway in which the membrane allows transfer of specific chemicals across its concentration gradient is called?

A

ion gated channel

160
Q

G-protein receptors or GPCR’s are composed of what?

A

Protein chains that wind back and forth through the cell membrane seven times.

161
Q

A molecule that relays signals from a receptor on the surface of a cell to target molecules in the cell’s nucleus or internal fluid where where a physiologic action is to take place is called?

A

Second messenger

162
Q

When a cell has longterm exposure to a substance the cell may decrease the number of receptors exposed to that substance to reduce its sensitivity is referred to as?

A

Downregulation

163
Q

The chemical modification of the original drug by the body is called?

A

Metabolism

164
Q

What organ is the site most often used for drug excretion?

A

The kidney

165
Q

Giving a patient a medication that does not pass through the digestive tract is?

A

Parenteral

166
Q

What route avoids the first pass effect?

A

Parenteral

167
Q

The science of preparing and dispensing drugs?

A

Pharmaceutics

168
Q

The process by which a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body is?

A

Pharmacokinetics

169
Q

A drug goes through what four phases of activity after is is administered?

A

Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, and Elimination

170
Q

The ease with which a drug can dissolve is called?

A

Solubility

171
Q

A mechanism in which a drug is processed by enzymes is called?

A

Acetylation

172
Q

A drug that passes through a part of the digestive system is?

A

Enteral

173
Q

Where are most drugs absorbed?

A

Duodenum

174
Q

What is the most abundant plasma protein and binds the widest range of drugs called?

A

Albumin

175
Q

Drugs that bind to plasma proteins are called what?

A

inactive, because the plasma proteins are too big to enter the organ

176
Q

In order to pass through the blood brain barrier the drug must have one of two things what are they?

A

lipid soluble (ie..oxygen, carbon dioxide, or ethanol) or have a transport system to leave the bloodstream and reach a site of action within the brain (ie..sugars or amino acids)

177
Q

The chemical modification of the original drug by the body is called?

A

Metabolism

178
Q

What organ is the site most often used for drug excretion?

A

The kidney

179
Q

The intensity or strength of the attraction between a drug and its receptor is called?

A

Affinity

180
Q

The ability of the drug to produce a physiologic response after attaching to the receptor is called?

A

Efficacy

181
Q

A drug that causes a physiologic response in the receptor to which it binds is called?

A

Agonist

182
Q

A ______ possesses affinity and efficacy?

A

Agonist

183
Q

An unintentional, undesirable, and often unpredictable effect of a drug used at therapeutic doses to prevent, diagnose, or treat a disease is?

A

Adverse reaction

184
Q

A drug that binds to a receptor and blocks or causes an opposite response in that receptor is called?

A

Antagonist

185
Q

A mechanism in which a drug is processed by enzymes is called?

A

Acetylation

186
Q

The dose required to produce a beneficial effect in 50% of the drug tested population is?

A

Therapeutic dose (Effective dose)

187
Q

The dose that kills 50% of the drug tested population is?

A

Median lethal dose

188
Q

The interaction of drugs such that the total effect is greater than the sum of the individual effects is?

A

Synergism

189
Q

A drug or agent that is harmful to the development of an embryo or fetus is?

A

Teratogen

190
Q

The time necessary for the concentration of the drug in the blood to be reduced by 50%

A

The Half Life

191
Q

The drug concentration level required to elicit a physiologic therapeutic response in most patients is?

A

Therapeutic threshold or (minimum effective concentration)

192
Q

The amount of medication that can be safely given for the average person for a specified condition is?

A

Dosage

193
Q

What is the Therapeutic index formula?

A

TI=LD/ED

194
Q

True or False, The closer the TI is to 1, the more dangerous it is.

A

True

195
Q

Factors that influence drug action are?

A

Age, Gender, Body weight, Environment, General health, Genetics, Culture, Emotional or psychological state, Time of administration, Route of administration, Medication history, and diet

196
Q

The study of inherited differences in drug metabolism and response is?

A

Pharmacogenetics

197
Q

An unintentional, undesirable, and often unpredictable effect of a drug used at therapeutic doses to prevent, diagnose, or treat a disease is?

A

Adverse reaction

198
Q

The combined effect of two drugs given at the same time that have similar effects is?

A

Additive effect

199
Q

Decreasing responsiveness to the effects of a drug in a drug classification and the likelihood of development of decreased responsiveness to another drug in that classification is?

A

Cross Tolerance

200
Q

An unexpected and usually individual (genetic) adverse response to a drug is?

A

idiosyncrasy

201
Q

A prolongation or increase in the effect of a drug by another drug is?

A

Potentiation

202
Q

The interaction of drugs such that the total effect is greater than the sum of the individual effects is?

A

Synergism

203
Q

A drug or agent that is harmful to the development of an embryo or fetus is?

A

Teratogen

204
Q

An appropriate use of a drug when treating disease or condition is?

A

Indication

205
Q

When using a drug for a condition is not advisable because of potential adverse effects is?

A

Contraindication

206
Q

The amount of medication that can be safely given for the average person for a specified condition is?

A

Dosage

207
Q

A tube placed into the stomach, saline is circulated through the tube into the stomach and suctioned back out is known as?

A

Gastric lavage

208
Q

A state in which pain is controlled or not perceived is?

A

Analgesia

209
Q

What class is Acetaminophen in?

A

Nonnarcotic analgesic, Antipyretic

210
Q

What class is Activated charcoal in?

A

Adsorbent, antidote

211
Q

What class is Acetylsalicylic Acid in?

A

Nonnarcotic analgesic, Antipyretic, Antiplatelet, Salicylate

212
Q

What are NSAIDS?

A

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory Drugs

213
Q

Most Opioid Agonists are classed as?

A

Analgesics

214
Q

What class is Ibuprofen in?

A

Nonnarcotic analgesic, antipyretic, NSAID

215
Q

Naproxen sodium is in what class?

A

Nonnarcotic analgesic, antipyretic, NSAID

216
Q

Morphine Sulfate are in what class?

A

Narcotic (opioid) analgesic, Schedule II controlled substance

217
Q

Partial agonists are also called?

A

agonist-antagonist

218
Q

Meperidine hydrochloride/Demerol is in what class?

A

Narcotic (Opioid) analgesic, Schedule II controlled substance

219
Q

Fentanyl Citrate is in what class?

A

Narcotic analgesic, general anesthetic, schedule II

220
Q

What are anesthetics?

A

CNS depressants

221
Q

What are the types of anesthetics?

A

General, Regional, and local

222
Q

Butorphanol tartate is in what class?

A

Narcotic agonist-antagonist analgesic, Schedule IV controlled substance

223
Q

Nalbuphine hydrochloride is in what class?

A

Synthetic narcotic agonist-antagonist analgesic

224
Q

Naloxone hydrochloride is in what class?

A

Opioid narcotic antagonist

225
Q

Levels of Sedation/Analgesia is what class?

A

Minimal
Moderate (minimally depressed LOC)
Deep (Drug-induced state of depressed consciousness)
General Anasthesia (Drug induced uncionsciousness)

226
Q

What are the routes of administration for anesthetics?

A

Inhalation, Intravenous, Local

227
Q

Etomidate is in what class?

A

Sedative/hypnotic agent, anesthetic

228
Q

Diazepam is in what class?

A

Benzodaizepine, anticonvulsant, sedative, anxiolytic, Schedule IV controlled substance

229
Q

Lorazepam is in what class?

A

Benzodaizepine, anticonvulsant, anxiolytic, Schedule IV controlled substance

230
Q

Benzodiazepines treat four main things, what are they?

A

treat anxiety, muscle spasm, convulsions, and provided sedation

231
Q

These drugs are used to treat both depression and bipolar disorders?

A

Antidepressants

232
Q

What class of drugs are under antidepressants?

A

Selective Serotonin Reuptake inhibitors, Tricyclic Antidepressants, Monamine Oxidase Inhibitors

233
Q

What are the drug types under anticonvulsants?

A

Hydantoins, Barbiturates, Succinimides, and Benzodiazepines

234
Q

What do most anticonvulsants do?

A

Depress the excitability of neurons and terminate abnormal neuronal discharges.

235
Q

What are two common types of CNS Stimulants?

A

Anorexiants and Amphetamines

236
Q

Drug classes/action that can be used to treat a dopamine deficiency are what?

A

Anticholinergics, Monoamine oxidase inhibitors, Dopamine agonists, Dopamine substitute, Stimulate dopamine release, Inhibit dopamine breakdown

237
Q

Drugs that affect the autonomic nervous system (Parasympathetic) are?

A

Cholinergic blocking drugs, Ganglionic stimulants, Ganglionic blocking drugs

238
Q

Drugs that affect the autonomic nervous system (Sympathetic) are?

A

Adrenergic drugs, Adrenergic Blocking drugs

239
Q

What is the classification of Atropine sulfate?

A

Parasympatholytic, antimuscarinic, anticholinergic, parasympathetic antagonist, parasympathetic blocker

240
Q

What is the classification of Norepinephrine?

A

Direct-acting adrenergic agent, Inotrope, Vasopressor

241
Q

What is the classification of Epinephrine?

A

Natural catecholamine, sympathomimetic, adrenergic agent, Inotrope

242
Q

What is the classification of Dopamine?

A

Direct- and indirect-acting sympathomimetic, Cardiac stimulant and vasopressor, Natural catecholamine, Adrenergic agonist, Inotrope

243
Q

There are four groups of antiarrhythmics what are they?

A

1A Block fast sodium channels in the cardiac muscle, for decreased excitability and prolong repolarization
1B Same as 1A
1C Profoundly slows conduction
2 Beta-blockers, suppress automaticity and rate of impulse conduction
3 Markedly prolong repoloarization time, usually by interfering with the outflow of potassium through potassium channels
4 Calcium channel blockers, block inward movement of calcium to slow impulse conduction and vascular smooth muscle contraction

244
Q

What class is Lidocaine in?

A

Class 1B antiarrhythmic

245
Q

What class is Metoprolol in?

A

Beta-adrenergic blocker, class 2 antiarrhythmic

246
Q

What class is procainamide in?

A

Class 1A antiarrhythmic

247
Q

What class is propranolol in?

A

Beta-adrenergic blocker, class 2 antiarrhythmic

248
Q

What class is amiodrone hydrochloride in?

A

Class 3 antiarrhythmic, but contains all 4 classes of antiarrhythmics

249
Q

What class is diltiazem in?

A

Calcium channel blocker, Class 4 antiarrhythmic

250
Q

What class is Verapamil in?

A

Calcium channel blocker, Class 4 antiarrhythmic

251
Q

What class is Adenosine in?

A

Endogenous nucleoside, Antiarrhythmic

252
Q

What class is Digoxin in?

A

Cardiac glycoside

253
Q

Drugs that are based on the premise of volume reduction in the intravascular circulation are called?

A

Diuretics

254
Q

What are the four diuretics described in the book?

A

Loop diuretics, Thiazide diuretics, Potassium-sparing diuretics, and Osmotic diuretics

255
Q

What 3 Adrenergic Blocking Medications are described in the book?

A

Beta Blockers, Centrally Acting Adrenergic Inhibitors, Peripheral Adrenergic Inhibitors

256
Q

What class is Nitroglycerin in?

A

Vasodilator, organic nitrate, anti-anginal

257
Q

What drug does the suffix statin usually used in regards to?

A

Anti-hyperlipidemics

258
Q

What class is diphenhydramine hydrochloride in?

A

Anti-histamine, anti-cholinergic, H1, receptor antagonist

259
Q

What do Expectorants do?

A

decrease the adhesiveness, and surface tension of respiratory secretions.

260
Q

What class is Albuterol Sulfate in?

A

Synthetic sympathomimetic, beta2 agonist, beta-adrenergic stimulator, bronchodilator

261
Q

What class is Ipratropium bromide in?

A

Bronchodilator, anticholinergic, parasympathetic blocker, parasympatholytic

262
Q

What do antiemetics do?

A

They control vomiting

263
Q

What do cannabinoids do?

A

Increase appetite and pain control in glaucoma

264
Q

What do cytoprotective agents do?

A

They are used to protect the linings of the gastrointestinal tract

265
Q

What class is Dextrose 50% in?

A

Carbohydrate, hyperglycemic, antihypoglycemic

266
Q

What class is glucagon in?

A

Pancreatic hormone, antihypoglycemic

267
Q

What are the four types of Insecticides?

A

Chlorinated hydrocarbons, Organophosphates, carbamate, Botanicals

268
Q

Atopic

A

A patient that has a genetic disposition to to an allergic reaction as opposed to a person who develops an allergy after one or more exposures.

269
Q

Phlebitis

A

Inflammation of the vein

270
Q

Antisepsis

A

The process used to cleanse local skin areas before needle puncture

271
Q

Sterilization

A

The process that makes an object free of all forms of life by using extreme heat or certain chemicals

272
Q

What are the three parts of a needle?

A

Hub, shaft, bevel

273
Q

The opening of the needle is what?

A

Lumen

274
Q

What are the range of needles?

A

13-30

paramedicine (9 decks)

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