Legal/Injury prevention/Pharmacology Flashcards
1
Q
What is primary injury prevention?
A
Keeping an injury from occurring
2
Q
What is a secondary injury prevention?
A
preventing further injury from an event that has already occurred.
3
Q
What is the largest health problem currently facing the country?
A
Unintentional injury
4
Q
What is an intentional or unintentional damage to a person that results from acute exposure to thermal, mechanical, electrical, or chemical energy or from the absence of essentials such as heat or oxygen.
A
Injury
5
Q
Without intent to harm means what?
A
Unintentional injury
6
Q
Injuries that are self-inflicted or perpetrated by another person, usually involving some type of violence is known as what?
A
Intentional injuries
7
Q
Tracking of potential hazards and create prevention programs is called?
A
injury surveillance
8
Q
The study of the causes causes, patterns, prevalence, and control of disease in groups of people is known as?
A
Epidemiology
9
Q
True or False, Mortality rates is much easier to measure than morbidity (nonfatal injury)?
A
True
10
Q
What three elements compose the epidemiological environment (also known as the epidemiologic triad)?
A
Host, Environment, and Agent
11
Q
Haddon Matrix includes the triad and what three phases?
A
Pre-event, Event, Post event
12
Q
The EP5 matrix includes what?
A
Education, Engineering, Enforcement, Environment, EMS
13
Q
What is the teachable moment?
A
The time immediately after an injury has occurred when the patient and observers remain acutely aware of what has happened and may be more receptive to learning how the event or illness could have been prevented.
14
Q
Chronology is what?
A
The arrangement of events in time
15
Q
The five P’s of prevention application are what?
A
Problem, Program, Partnership, Preparation, Policy
16
Q
The theory and philosophy of law is known as what?
A
Jurisprudence
17
Q
Moral principles based on societal standards that identify desirable conduct refers to what?
A
Ethics
18
Q
The legislative branch includes the congress and state legislatures which is the source of what law?
A
Statutory law
19
Q
The judicial branch includes state and federal courts which is the source of what law?
A
Case law
20
Q
The executive branch is the source of what law?
A
Administrative law
21
Q
Recognition of minimal competency and the completion of prescribed education or training is what?
A
Licensure
22
Q
The failure to act as a reasonably prudent and careful person would act under similar circumstances is called what?
A
Negligence
23
Q
The plaintiff has a limit to the amount of time in which he or she can initiate a lawsuit seeking damages and injury is known as?
A
Statute of Limitaions
24
Q
A negligent lawsuit alleging medical malpractice by a paramedic falls under the heading of what?
A
unintentional tort
25
Negligence on the part of the injured plaintiff is known as what?
Contributory negligence
26
The paramedic must be found to have violated the standard of care applicable to the circumstances is known as what?
Breach of duty
27
Performing a wrongful act is called?
Malfeasance
28
Performing a legal act in a wrongful manner is called what?
Misfeasance
29
Failure to perform a required act or duty is called what?
Nonfeasance
30
Violation of an applicable law or regulation by the paramedic can constitutes what?
Negligence per se
31
The defendants actions must have caused or created harm to the plaintiff also known as proximate cause is what?
Causation
32
Provisions that protect paramedics for acts of ordinary negligence or acts or omissions done in good faith is called what?
Immunity
33
Administrative agencies seeking to discipline a licensed or certified provider must do so by giving him or her, at a minimum, notice of the charges and/or proposed disciplinary action and a chance to be heard regarding those charges is known as what?
Due process
34
A type of law that deals with private complaints brought by a plaintiff against a defendant for wrong doing is what?
Civil Law
35
The legal word for wrong is what?
Tort
36
An area of law in which an individual is prosecuted on behalf of society for violating laws designed to safeguard society is known as?
Criminal Law
37
A predefined set of skills, interventions, or other activities that the paramedic is authorized to perform is known as?
Scope of practice
38
What relates to the conduct expected of a reasonably prudent paramedic under similar circumstances?
Standard of care
39
Prospective medical direction includes what?
The development of clinical practice standards
40
When a paramedic consults a physician or other advanced healthcare professional by telephone, radio, or other means during the delivery of patient care or transport is known as what?
Concurrent medical direction.
41
Viewed as evidence of competency in certain skills or tasks is what?
Certification
42
What doctrine holds the "master" is liable for the acts of his "servant"?
Respondeat superior
43
Regulation of the practice of medicine by physicians is called?
medical practice acts
44
A type of tort case that addresses whether the paramedic was negligent is called what?
Malpractice
45
Under EMTALA can a hospital divert an ambulance to another hospital?
No, unless they are on "diversionary status" or more simply put, "diversion."
46
What means things speak for itself?
res ipsa loquitur
47
An element that says a plaintiff must prove in a malpractice case against a paramedic is called?
Damages
48
What four things must be proved to convict a paramedic of negligence?
Duty, Breach of duty, Damages, and Causation
49
Wrongs in which the defendant meant to cause the harmful action is called what?
Intentional Torts
50
Touching or making contact with another person without that person's consent is called what?
Battery
51
A threat of imminent bodily harm to another person by someone with the obvious ability to carry out the threat is called what?
Assault
52
Confinement or restraint of a person against his or her will or without appropriate legal justification is called what?
False imprisonment
53
Disclosing or publishing personal or private facts about a person to a person or persons not authorized to receive such information is called what?
Invasion of privacy
54
The publication of false information about a person that tends to blacken the person's character or injure his or her reputation is called what?
Defamation
55
What is the written form of defamation?
Libel
56
What is the spoken from of defamation?
Slander
57
Informed permission, for care and or transportation by EMS providers is called what?
Consent
58
There are two types of consent, what are they called?
Expressed and Implied
59
When a person does not consent to be treated but under specific legal authority are given treatment because he or she poses a threat to others or self is known as what?
Involuntary consent
60
What is an emancipated minor?
Typically a self supporting minor and either have two common factors which are married and active duty with the armed forces.
61
What rules must be used for patient restraints?
They must be used cautiously, They must be used consistently with any applicable protocols, and They must be used in a way that protects the patient and preserves his or her dignity to the maximal extent possible.
62
A minor in most states is under what age?
18
63
A principal can consent for a minor under what principle?
Parens patriae
64
The withdrawal by a paramedic or other EMS provider from the care of a person who requires emergency medical attention without making arrangements for care to be transferred to another qualified provider is called?
Abandonment
65
The protection of patient information in any form and disclosure of that information only as needed for patient care or as otherwise permitted by law is called what?
Confidentiality
66
A document in which a competent person gives instructions to be followed regarding his or her healthcare in the event the person later becomes incapacitated and unable to make or communicate those decisions to others is called what?
Advance directives
67
Do not resuscitate does not mean what?
Don't treat
68
Values that help a person define right versus wrong or (what a person ought not to do) is known as what?
Morals
69
A legal obligation and acted with due regard for the patient and upheld the standard of care is what?
Duty to act
70
Conduct that does not conform to approved standards of social or professional behavior is called what?
Unethical
71
A field of study that evaluates the decisions, conduct, policies, and social concerns of medical activities is called?
Medical ethics
72
Primum non nocere
first do no harm
73
Beneficence
doing good for others
74
Autonomy
patients right to choose or refuse care
75
Justice
The fair distribution of healthcare resources and decisions regarding who gets what treatment.
76
Truthfulness and honesty
patient deserves to know the truth about his or her illness or injury and medical treatment
77
A guide for interactions between members of a specific profession and the public is called?
Code of Ethics
78
What four actions do professionals do simply because they are professionals?
Staying certified, Staying educated, Reading, Looking and acting the part.
79
Basic virtues that are especially important to caregivers are what?
Courage, Honor, Humility, Kindness and Respect
80
What is health?
a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.
81
The science and practice of protecting and improving the health of a community, with a mission to "fulfill society's interest in assuring conditions in which people can be healthy is called?
Public Health
82
Key components of the agency include the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, National Institutes of Health, Health Resources and Services Administration, and the Office of Public Health and Science (including Public Health Service Corps programming and the Office of the Surgeon General)
Key Components of Federal Agencies
83
The two advances in the past century that have done the most to improve health in the USA have been the provision of what?
Immunizations and Clean water
84
The process of evaluating a population for the presence or absence of disease is called?
Screening
85
The time when you can penetrate an individuals usual facade and reach his or her core values is called?
Teachable moment
86
True or false; Public health services are not obligated to provide individual healthcare.
True
87
A cross-cutting approach in which all forms of emergencies, including manmade and natural disasters, epidemics, and physical and biologic terrorism, are managed from a common template that uses consistent language and structure is called?
All hazards referring to all-hazards emergency preparedness.
88
During a time of activation of the local emergency management system, EMS often functions in a subsidiary role to the public health within what?
Emergency Service Function
89
The study of the prevalence and spread of disease in a community is called?
Epidemiology
90
The seclusion of individuals with an illness to prevent the transmission to others is called?
Isolation
91
The seclusion of entire groups of exposed but asymptomatic individuals for monitoring is called?
Quarantine
92
Any substance intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, relief, treatment, or prevention of disease or to affect the structure or function of the human body or other animals is called?
Drug
93
The study of drugs, including their actions and effects on the host is called?
Pharmacology
94
A book that contains a list of medicinal substances with their formulas, uses and methods of preparation is called?
Formulary
95
A book describing drugs, chemicals, and medicinal preparations in a country or specific geographic area is called?
Pharmacopeia
96
A precise description of the drug's chemical composition and molecular structure is?
Chemical Name
97
The name listed in the United States pharmacopoeia is?
Official name
98
The name proposed by the first manufacturer when the drug is submitted to the FDA for approval is?
Generic name
99
Who assigns the a drug its generic name?
USAN or US adopted names council
100
What is another name for the generic name of a drug?
Non-proprietary
101
The name given a compound by the company that makes it is called?
Trade name
102
A large group of plant-based substances that contain nitrogen and are found in nature is called?
Alkaloids
103
Many drugs ending in "ine" are derived from what?
Alkaloids
104
A compound that yields a sugar and one or more other products when its parts are separated is?
Glycoside
105
Plant residues used for medicinal or recreational purposes are?
Gums
106
Extracted from flowers, leaves, stems, roots, seeds, and bark is called?
Oils
107
Drugs that are chemically developed in a laboratory are called?
synthetic drugs
108
Drugs are naturally occurring substances that have been chemically changed are called?
Semisynthetic drugs
109
Drug classifications are grouped into three main areas, what are they?
Body system, mechanism of action, class of agent
110
Classes under the group of body system are?
```
Alimentary tract and metabolism
Blood and blood-forming organs
Cardiovascular system
Skin
Genitourinary system and sex hormones
```
111
Classes under the group of mechanism of action are?
```
Cardiac therapy
Antihypertensives
Diuretics
Peripheral vasodilators
Vasoprotectives
Beta-blocking agents
Calcium channel blockers
Agents acting on the renin-angiotensin system
Serum lipid-reducing agent
```
112
Classes under the class of agent are?
Selective calcium channel blockers with mainly vascular effects
Selective calcium channel blockers with direct cardiac effects
Nonselective calcium channel blockers
113
When was the Federal food, Drug, and cosmetic Act passed and what did it do?
1938; established FDA responsible for supervising and regulating drug safety
114
A test of substance to find out its components (amount and purity) is called?
assay
115
A test that tests the effects of a substance on an organism and compares the result with some agreed standard is?
bioassay
116
All the nerves outside the CNS composes what?
Peripheral nervous system
117
Cranial and spinal nerves that carry messages to skeletal muscles refers to what system?
Somatic Nervous system
118
The part of the peripheral nervous system that is not under voluntary control is called?
Autonomic Nervous system
119
The two main divisions of the autonomic nervous system are?
Sympathetic and Parasympathetic
120
The muscle gland or organ on which the ANS exerts an effect is called?
Effector
121
The parasympathetic is composed of what cranial and spinal nerves?
3, 7, 9, 10, S2, S4
122
Where do the nerves of the Sympathetic originate?
The spinal nerves
123
Parasympathetic activate SLUD from what acronym?
SLUDGEM
124
A neurotransmitter is also known as what?
neuropeptide
125
All autonomic pathways contain two nerves, what are they?
preganglionic neuron and postganglionic neuron
126
What is the location where the CNS and peripheral systems connect?
Ganglion
127
The space where ganglionic neurons meet is called?
synaptic junction
128
A chemical molecule that travels to the other side of the synaptic junction is called?
Neurotransmitter
129
What are the targets of pharmacologic intervention?
Neurotransmitters
130
There are two major categories of neurotransmitters involved in transmission, what are they?
Adrenergic and Cholinergic
131
Preganglionic neurons always release what chemical in both parasympathetic and sympathetic?
Acetylcholine
132
Cranial and spinal nerves that carry messages to skeletal muscles refers to what system?
Somatic Nervous system
133
The part of the peripheral nervous system that is not under voluntary control is called?
Autonomic Nervous system
134
The two main divisions of the autonomic nervous system are?
Sympathetic and Parasympathetic
135
The muscle gland or organ on which the ANS exerts an effect is called?
Effector
136
The parasympathetic is composed of what cranial and spinal nerves?
3, 7, 9, 10, S2, S4
137
Where do the nerves of the Sympathetic originate?
The spinal nerves
138
Parasympathetic activate SLUD from what acronym?
SLUDGEM
139
A neurotransmitter is also known as what?
neuropeptide
140
All autonomic pathways contain two nerves, what are they?
preganglionic neuron and postganglionic neuron
141
What is the location where the CNS and peripheral systems connect?
Ganglion
142
The space where ganglionic neurons meet is called?
synaptic junction
143
A chemical molecule that travels to the other side of the synaptic junction is called?
Neurotransmitter
144
What are the targets of pharmacologic intervention?
Neurotransmitters
145
There are two major categories of neurotransmitters involved in transmission, what are they?
Adrenergic and Cholinergic
146
Postganglionic neurons release what chemical in the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems?
Acetylcholine for Para and Norepinephrine for Sympathetic
147
The two exceptions for postganglionic neurons releasing norepinephrine from the sympathetic system is what?
sweat glands and and those ending on blood vessels in the skeletal muscle. These release a cholinergic or Acetylcholine
148
Two main types of cholinergic receptors that are found in the parasympathetic system are?
nicotinic and muscarinic
149
Increasing the number of cell receptors to enhance the sensitivity is?
Upregulation
150
Drugs that block or inhibit cholinergic receptors are?
parasympatholytics (anticholinergics)
151
What breaks down acetylcholine?
acetylcholinesterase
152
What are the receptors of the sympathetic system called?
Adrenergic receptors
153
Medications that stimulate the sympathetic receptors are?
sympathomimetics
154
Medications that block or inhibit the sympathetic receptors are?
sympatholytics
155
A drug goes through what four phases of activity after is is administered?
Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, and Elimination
156
Where are dopamine receptors found?
Renal, mesenteric, and visceral blood vessels
157
Peristalsis is defined as?
smooth muscle movement in the intestines
158
Most drugs exert their effect by binding with what?
Protein molecules or receptors
159
A selective pathway in which the membrane allows transfer of specific chemicals across its concentration gradient is called?
ion gated channel
160
G-protein receptors or GPCR's are composed of what?
Protein chains that wind back and forth through the cell membrane seven times.
161
A molecule that relays signals from a receptor on the surface of a cell to target molecules in the cell's nucleus or internal fluid where where a physiologic action is to take place is called?
Second messenger
162
When a cell has longterm exposure to a substance the cell may decrease the number of receptors exposed to that substance to reduce its sensitivity is referred to as?
Downregulation
163
The chemical modification of the original drug by the body is called?
Metabolism
164
What organ is the site most often used for drug excretion?
The kidney
165
Giving a patient a medication that does not pass through the digestive tract is?
Parenteral
166
What route avoids the first pass effect?
Parenteral
167
The science of preparing and dispensing drugs?
Pharmaceutics
168
The process by which a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body is?
Pharmacokinetics
169
A drug goes through what four phases of activity after is is administered?
Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, and Elimination
170
The ease with which a drug can dissolve is called?
Solubility
171
A mechanism in which a drug is processed by enzymes is called?
Acetylation
172
A drug that passes through a part of the digestive system is?
Enteral
173
Where are most drugs absorbed?
Duodenum
174
What is the most abundant plasma protein and binds the widest range of drugs called?
Albumin
175
Drugs that bind to plasma proteins are called what?
inactive, because the plasma proteins are too big to enter the organ
176
In order to pass through the blood brain barrier the drug must have one of two things what are they?
lipid soluble (ie..oxygen, carbon dioxide, or ethanol) or have a transport system to leave the bloodstream and reach a site of action within the brain (ie..sugars or amino acids)
177
The chemical modification of the original drug by the body is called?
Metabolism
178
What organ is the site most often used for drug excretion?
The kidney
179
The intensity or strength of the attraction between a drug and its receptor is called?
Affinity
180
The ability of the drug to produce a physiologic response after attaching to the receptor is called?
Efficacy
181
A drug that causes a physiologic response in the receptor to which it binds is called?
Agonist
182
A ______ possesses affinity and efficacy?
Agonist
183
An unintentional, undesirable, and often unpredictable effect of a drug used at therapeutic doses to prevent, diagnose, or treat a disease is?
Adverse reaction
184
A drug that binds to a receptor and blocks or causes an opposite response in that receptor is called?
Antagonist
185
A mechanism in which a drug is processed by enzymes is called?
Acetylation
186
The dose required to produce a beneficial effect in 50% of the drug tested population is?
Therapeutic dose (Effective dose)
187
The dose that kills 50% of the drug tested population is?
Median lethal dose
188
The interaction of drugs such that the total effect is greater than the sum of the individual effects is?
Synergism
189
A drug or agent that is harmful to the development of an embryo or fetus is?
Teratogen
190
The time necessary for the concentration of the drug in the blood to be reduced by 50%
The Half Life
191
The drug concentration level required to elicit a physiologic therapeutic response in most patients is?
Therapeutic threshold or (minimum effective concentration)
192
The amount of medication that can be safely given for the average person for a specified condition is?
Dosage
193
What is the Therapeutic index formula?
TI=LD/ED
194
True or False, The closer the TI is to 1, the more dangerous it is.
True
195
Factors that influence drug action are?
Age, Gender, Body weight, Environment, General health, Genetics, Culture, Emotional or psychological state, Time of administration, Route of administration, Medication history, and diet
196
The study of inherited differences in drug metabolism and response is?
Pharmacogenetics
197
An unintentional, undesirable, and often unpredictable effect of a drug used at therapeutic doses to prevent, diagnose, or treat a disease is?
Adverse reaction
198
The combined effect of two drugs given at the same time that have similar effects is?
Additive effect
199
Decreasing responsiveness to the effects of a drug in a drug classification and the likelihood of development of decreased responsiveness to another drug in that classification is?
Cross Tolerance
200
An unexpected and usually individual (genetic) adverse response to a drug is?
idiosyncrasy
201
A prolongation or increase in the effect of a drug by another drug is?
Potentiation
202
The interaction of drugs such that the total effect is greater than the sum of the individual effects is?
Synergism
203
A drug or agent that is harmful to the development of an embryo or fetus is?
Teratogen
204
An appropriate use of a drug when treating disease or condition is?
Indication
205
When using a drug for a condition is not advisable because of potential adverse effects is?
Contraindication
206
The amount of medication that can be safely given for the average person for a specified condition is?
Dosage
207
A tube placed into the stomach, saline is circulated through the tube into the stomach and suctioned back out is known as?
Gastric lavage
208
A state in which pain is controlled or not perceived is?
Analgesia
209
What class is Acetaminophen in?
Nonnarcotic analgesic, Antipyretic
210
What class is Activated charcoal in?
Adsorbent, antidote
211
What class is Acetylsalicylic Acid in?
Nonnarcotic analgesic, Antipyretic, Antiplatelet, Salicylate
212
What are NSAIDS?
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory Drugs
213
Most Opioid Agonists are classed as?
Analgesics
214
What class is Ibuprofen in?
Nonnarcotic analgesic, antipyretic, NSAID
215
Naproxen sodium is in what class?
Nonnarcotic analgesic, antipyretic, NSAID
216
Morphine Sulfate are in what class?
Narcotic (opioid) analgesic, Schedule II controlled substance
217
Partial agonists are also called?
agonist-antagonist
218
Meperidine hydrochloride/Demerol is in what class?
Narcotic (Opioid) analgesic, Schedule II controlled substance
219
Fentanyl Citrate is in what class?
Narcotic analgesic, general anesthetic, schedule II
220
What are anesthetics?
CNS depressants
221
What are the types of anesthetics?
General, Regional, and local
222
Butorphanol tartate is in what class?
Narcotic agonist-antagonist analgesic, Schedule IV controlled substance
223
Nalbuphine hydrochloride is in what class?
Synthetic narcotic agonist-antagonist analgesic
224
Naloxone hydrochloride is in what class?
Opioid narcotic antagonist
225
Levels of Sedation/Analgesia is what class?
Minimal
Moderate (minimally depressed LOC)
Deep (Drug-induced state of depressed consciousness)
General Anasthesia (Drug induced uncionsciousness)
226
What are the routes of administration for anesthetics?
Inhalation, Intravenous, Local
227
Etomidate is in what class?
Sedative/hypnotic agent, anesthetic
228
Diazepam is in what class?
Benzodaizepine, anticonvulsant, sedative, anxiolytic, Schedule IV controlled substance
229
Lorazepam is in what class?
Benzodaizepine, anticonvulsant, anxiolytic, Schedule IV controlled substance
230
Benzodiazepines treat four main things, what are they?
treat anxiety, muscle spasm, convulsions, and provided sedation
231
These drugs are used to treat both depression and bipolar disorders?
Antidepressants
232
What class of drugs are under antidepressants?
Selective Serotonin Reuptake inhibitors, Tricyclic Antidepressants, Monamine Oxidase Inhibitors
233
What are the drug types under anticonvulsants?
Hydantoins, Barbiturates, Succinimides, and Benzodiazepines
234
What do most anticonvulsants do?
Depress the excitability of neurons and terminate abnormal neuronal discharges.
235
What are two common types of CNS Stimulants?
Anorexiants and Amphetamines
236
Drug classes/action that can be used to treat a dopamine deficiency are what?
Anticholinergics, Monoamine oxidase inhibitors, Dopamine agonists, Dopamine substitute, Stimulate dopamine release, Inhibit dopamine breakdown
237
Drugs that affect the autonomic nervous system (Parasympathetic) are?
Cholinergic blocking drugs, Ganglionic stimulants, Ganglionic blocking drugs
238
Drugs that affect the autonomic nervous system (Sympathetic) are?
Adrenergic drugs, Adrenergic Blocking drugs
239
What is the classification of Atropine sulfate?
Parasympatholytic, antimuscarinic, anticholinergic, parasympathetic antagonist, parasympathetic blocker
240
What is the classification of Norepinephrine?
Direct-acting adrenergic agent, Inotrope, Vasopressor
241
What is the classification of Epinephrine?
Natural catecholamine, sympathomimetic, adrenergic agent, Inotrope
242
What is the classification of Dopamine?
Direct- and indirect-acting sympathomimetic, Cardiac stimulant and vasopressor, Natural catecholamine, Adrenergic agonist, Inotrope
243
There are four groups of antiarrhythmics what are they?
1A Block fast sodium channels in the cardiac muscle, for decreased excitability and prolong repolarization
1B Same as 1A
1C Profoundly slows conduction
2 Beta-blockers, suppress automaticity and rate of impulse conduction
3 Markedly prolong repoloarization time, usually by interfering with the outflow of potassium through potassium channels
4 Calcium channel blockers, block inward movement of calcium to slow impulse conduction and vascular smooth muscle contraction
244
What class is Lidocaine in?
Class 1B antiarrhythmic
245
What class is Metoprolol in?
Beta-adrenergic blocker, class 2 antiarrhythmic
246
What class is procainamide in?
Class 1A antiarrhythmic
247
What class is propranolol in?
Beta-adrenergic blocker, class 2 antiarrhythmic
248
What class is amiodrone hydrochloride in?
Class 3 antiarrhythmic, but contains all 4 classes of antiarrhythmics
249
What class is diltiazem in?
Calcium channel blocker, Class 4 antiarrhythmic
250
What class is Verapamil in?
Calcium channel blocker, Class 4 antiarrhythmic
251
What class is Adenosine in?
Endogenous nucleoside, Antiarrhythmic
252
What class is Digoxin in?
Cardiac glycoside
253
Drugs that are based on the premise of volume reduction in the intravascular circulation are called?
Diuretics
254
What are the four diuretics described in the book?
Loop diuretics, Thiazide diuretics, Potassium-sparing diuretics, and Osmotic diuretics
255
What 3 Adrenergic Blocking Medications are described in the book?
Beta Blockers, Centrally Acting Adrenergic Inhibitors, Peripheral Adrenergic Inhibitors
256
What class is Nitroglycerin in?
Vasodilator, organic nitrate, anti-anginal
257
What drug does the suffix statin usually used in regards to?
Anti-hyperlipidemics
258
What class is diphenhydramine hydrochloride in?
Anti-histamine, anti-cholinergic, H1, receptor antagonist
259
What do Expectorants do?
decrease the adhesiveness, and surface tension of respiratory secretions.
260
What class is Albuterol Sulfate in?
Synthetic sympathomimetic, beta2 agonist, beta-adrenergic stimulator, bronchodilator
261
What class is Ipratropium bromide in?
Bronchodilator, anticholinergic, parasympathetic blocker, parasympatholytic
262
What do antiemetics do?
They control vomiting
263
What do cannabinoids do?
Increase appetite and pain control in glaucoma
264
What do cytoprotective agents do?
They are used to protect the linings of the gastrointestinal tract
265
What class is Dextrose 50% in?
Carbohydrate, hyperglycemic, antihypoglycemic
266
What class is glucagon in?
Pancreatic hormone, antihypoglycemic
267
What are the four types of Insecticides?
Chlorinated hydrocarbons, Organophosphates, carbamate, Botanicals
268
Atopic
A patient that has a genetic disposition to to an allergic reaction as opposed to a person who develops an allergy after one or more exposures.
269
Phlebitis
Inflammation of the vein
270
Antisepsis
The process used to cleanse local skin areas before needle puncture
271
Sterilization
The process that makes an object free of all forms of life by using extreme heat or certain chemicals
272
What are the three parts of a needle?
Hub, shaft, bevel
273
The opening of the needle is what?
Lumen
274
What are the range of needles?
13-30
