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paramedicine > DB Paramedic Cards > Flashcards

DB Paramedic Cards Flashcards

A&P review

1
Q

What is an Immunoglobulin?

A

It is also known as an antibody. It is a large Y-protein produced by B cells that is used by the immune system to identify and neutralize foreign objects such as bacteria and viruses

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2
Q

What is significant about IGG?

A

IGG is the most common immunoglobulin and accounts for 80-85% of the immunoglobulins in the body.

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3
Q

Where is IGA1 found?

A

IGA1 is found in the blood

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4
Q

Where is IGA2 found?

A

IGA2 is found in body secretions

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5
Q

Where is IGD found?

A

IGD is found on B lymphocytes

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6
Q

What immunoglobulin is responsible for allergic reactions?

A

IGE

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7
Q

What is the largest immunoglobulin?

A

IGM

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8
Q

What are the types of cells and their functions?

A 
Muscle Cells (movement)
Nervous cells (conductivity)
Kidney and Intestinal cells (Metabolic absorption)
Mucous Gland (secretion)
All cells (respiratory)
All cells (Secretion)
Most cells (reproduction)
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9
Q

What is the most rapid acting mechanism in the Renal buffering system?

A

Acid-Bicarbonate buffering system

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10
Q

What is H2CO3?

A

Carbonic acid

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11
Q

What is the Carbonic Anhydrase formula?

A

H+HCO3H2CO3H20+CO2

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12
Q

What happens in protein buffering?

A

Hydrogen and CO2 attaches to the hemoglobin of the red blood cell. The hemoglobin travels to the lung tissue where hydrogen binds together with a bicarbonate to create carbonic acid which quickly diffuses into CO2 and H2O. The lungs then eliminate the excess carbon dioxide through exhalation.

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13
Q

When does renal buffering happen and how does it work?

A

Renal buffering is the slowest method. If the body is too acidic it will increase the amount of hydrogen eliminated in the urine and recover bicarbonate. If not enough hydrogen is present it will retain hydrogen and eliminate bicarbonate.

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14
Q

What are some ways Metabolic acidosis can occur?

A

lactic acidosis, diabetic ketoacidosis, and renal failure. A loss of base can be caused by diarrhea or vomiting. loss of base occurs and acids stay normal shortly.

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15
Q

What is a way metabolic Alkalosis can occur?

A

Prolonged diarrhea and vomiting but is very uncommon.

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16
Q

What is HCO3?

A

Bicarbonate

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17
Q

What does PH stand for?

A

Power of Hydrogen

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18
Q

Anything that increases Hydrogen levels or decreases bicarbonate levels causes what?

A

Acidosis

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19
Q

Anything that decreases Hydrogen levels or increases bicarbonate levels causes what?

A

Alkalosis

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20
Q

What does 7 represent on the ph scale?

A

neutrality

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21
Q

What is the normal Ph in the human body?

A

7.35-7.45

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22
Q

Hemophilia is what?

A

the inability for blood to clot

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23
Q

What is an Ion?

A

an electrically charged molecule

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24
Q

What is a cation?

A

a positively charged molecule

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25
Q

What is an anion?

A

a negatively charged molecule

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26
Q

What is the chief extracellular cation?

A

Sodium

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27
Q

What is the major anion?

A

Chloride

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28
Q

Renin-angiotensin system does what?

A

In response to renal blood flow it produces angiotensin 1 in the blood which produces angiotensin 2 in the lungs which causes the release of aldosterone and vascular constriction. It also makes ADH which is an antidiuretic. ADH stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb sodium and water which returns normal blood flow to the kidneys.

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29
Q

What is Dehydration?

A

Dehydration is a state in which the body loses large amounts of fluid from the tissues.

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30
Q

What is GH or Growth hormone?

A

Somatropin

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31
Q

What is TSH or Thyroid stimulating hormone?

A

Thyrotropin

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32
Q

What is ACTH or Adrenocorticotropic hormone?

A

corticosteroids

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33
Q

What is LH or Luteinizing hormone?

A

reproductive hormones

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34
Q

What is FSH or follicle stimulating hormone?

A

reproductive hormones

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35
Q

What are T3 & T4 hormones?

A

Thyroid hormones triiodothyronine T3 and Tetraidothyronine T4 pituitary lobe

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36
Q

What is testosterone?

A

Androgen produced by the testes

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37
Q

What is Estrogen?

A

Estrogen and progesterone and human gonadotropin is produced by the ovaries

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38
Q

Cortisol does what?

A

Adrenal cortex releases this during periods of stress which also stimulates the release of ACTH

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39
Q

Where is Epinephrine produced and what is it responsible for?

A

It is produced in the adrenal glands and responsible for flight or fight response from the sympathetic system. Also called adrenaline.

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40
Q

What does Aldosterone do?

A

This regulates water and sodium in the body.

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41
Q

What does ADH do?

A

it constricts blood vessels and raises blood pressure.

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42
Q

Where is insulin produced?

A

Insulin is produced by the pancreas which controls metabolism and sugar.

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43
Q

Where is Glucagon produced?

A

Glucagon is produced in the pancreas

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44
Q

Where is Oxytocin produced and what is it responsible for?

A

This is produced in the pituitary gland and is responsible for smooth muscle contraction in the uterus for pregnant women and milk to be released in the mammary glands.

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45
Q

What is Thyroxin responsible for and where is it produced?

A

It is responsible for metabolism primarily and is produced in the thyroid.

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46
Q

What is MODS

A

MODS is multi organ dysfunction syndrome which is a progressive impairment of two or more organ systems. This is usually a response to uncontrolled inflammation from severe illness or injury such as sepsis, trauma, or burns. The most common cause is sepsis and is estimated to be associated with 60-90% mortality rate.

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47
Q

What is Isotonic?

A

When the body maintains an equal solute concentration and therefore osmolality on each side of the membrane.

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48
Q

What is hypertonic?

A

When an imbalance of solutes exists from one side of the membrane to the other. The side with the higher concentration is hypertonic.

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49
Q

What is hypotonic?

A

When an imbalance of solutes exists from one side of the membrane to the other. The side with the lower concentration is hyportonic.

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50
Q

What is osmotic gradient?

A

The difference in concentration from one side to the other.

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51
Q

What 3 components are considered when talking about wellness?

A

Physical, Emotional, and Mental

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52
Q

What are primarily found in plant foods commonly referred to as starches and sugars?

A

Carbohydrates

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53
Q

Why are polyunsaturated fats good for the body?

A

They are said to reduce cholesterol

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54
Q

What kind of fats are healthy vegetable oils called?

A

Monosaturated fats

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55
Q

What unsaturated fats are unhealthy?

A

Trans Fats

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56
Q

What are often called the building blocks of life?

A

Protein

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57
Q

What percentage of water is the total body weight?

A

60%

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58
Q

How many servings of fruits and vegetables, protein, low fat dairy, and whole grains are needed to be considered a healthy diet?

A

5 servings of veggies, 5-6 ounces of protein, 3 cups of dairy, and 3 servings of whole grain.

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59
Q

Which type of exercise does not require joint movement?

A

Isometric

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60
Q

Which type of exercise involves joint movement with extension and flexion?

A

Isotonic

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61
Q

The amount of sleep considered to be a good amount of sleep is how many hours?

A

7-8 hours

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62
Q

What is a daily rhythmic activity cycle based on 24 hour intervals called?

A

The Circadian cycle

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63
Q

What health problems can obesity lead to?

A

cardiovascular disease, arthritis, certain cancers, hypertension, and diabetes.

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64
Q

Clothing or bunker gear appropriate when no respiratory or skin hazard is present but doesn’t protect from WMD is what class?

A

Class D PPE

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65
Q

What class of PPE uses a respirator and is chemical resistant?

A

Class C

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66
Q

PPE that is chemical resistant fully encapsulated and uses SCBA is what class?

A

Class A

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67
Q

PPE that is chemical resistant with a hood and uses SCBA is what class?

A

Class B

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68
Q

Cleaning with an agent that should kill many of, or most surface organisms is what?

A

Disinfect

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69
Q

Cleaning that kills all micro organisms is referred to as what?

A

Sterilize

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70
Q

What are the three stages of stress?

A

Alarm, Resistance, Exhaustion

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71
Q

What are the 5 stages of grief?

A

Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, and Acceptance

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72
Q

When did hospice originate and come to the USA?

A

It originated in England in 1960 and came the the USA in 1963

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73
Q

When was the first pre-hospital service started?

A

In 1797 in Napoleons army by Larrey

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74
Q

When did ambulance service start in the USA?

A

1865 in Cincinnati and 1869 in NY

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75
Q

When did transport of the sick and injured become an expected service in the USA?

A

1950-1960

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76
Q

What act was passed with the findings of the white paper study and when was the act passed?

A

The highway safety act of 1966

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77
Q

What 2 agencies were created because of the highway safety act?

A

The DOT and the National Highway and traffic safety administration.

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78
Q

Who is responsible for the EMS system and its curriculum?

A

NHTSA

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79
Q

What is NREMT?

A

A national organization that measures the readiness of graduated students to provide effective patient care in the pre-hospital setting.

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80
Q

What is the term that refers to the enablement of EMS professionals to move from one state to another and receive credit for their previous credentialing?

A

Reciprocity

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81
Q

A predefined set of skills, interventions, or other activities that the paramedic is legally authorized to do is?

A

Scope of practice

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82
Q

When was the first national standard curriculum developed for EMT’s?

A

1977

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83
Q

What is an external verification of competencies called?

A

Certification

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84
Q

Permission granted by the state to perform restricted activities is known as what?

A

Licensure

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85
Q

Permission by a specific EMS entity or medical director to practice in a certain setting is known as what?

A

Credentialing

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86
Q

What happens if your paramedic license expires?

A

Ability to practice is suspended

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87
Q

Following the standards of conduct and performance of a profession is known as what?

A

Professionalism

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88
Q

Expectations established by the community at large reflecting their views of the conduct of a profession are known as what?

A

Ethics

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89
Q

The single most important attribute a paramedic must possess is known as?

A

Integrity

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90
Q

Compassion without sharing the same feelings is what?

A

Empathy

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91
Q

As a paramedic we are the patients what?

A

Advocate

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92
Q

Written instructions that authorize EMS personnel to perform certain medical interventions before establishing communication with a physician is known as what?

A

Standing orders

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93
Q

Written guidelines that outline specific assessments and interventions is known as what?

A

Protocols

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94
Q

Guidelines for behavior and action are what?

A

Policies

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95
Q

What is myasthenia gravis?

A

An auto immune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction of the skeletal and cardiac muscle. MUSCLE WEAKNESS

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96
Q

Alpha 1 receptor does what?

A

primarily causes vasoconstriction and mild bronchoconsstriction

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97
Q

Alpha 2 receptor does what?

A

causes smooth muscle contraction, inhibition of insulin release, and promotes blood clotting.

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98
Q

Beta 1 receptors does what?

A

They are found in the heart and increases heart rate, cardiac contraction, and cardiac conduction

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99
Q

Beta 2 receptors does what?

A

These receptors are found in the lungs, where receptors cause bronchodilation.

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100
Q

What is the transverse plane of the body?

A

divides the body in top (superior) and bottom (inferior) halves.

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101
Q

What is the sagittal plane of the body?

A

divides the body in left and right halves

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102
Q

What is the frontal plane of the body?

A

divides the body into front (anterior or ventral) and back (posterior or dorsal)

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103
Q

What are the 12 cranial nerves and what do they do?

A

Olfactory (Smell)
Optic (Sight)
Occulomotor (Eye movement)
Trochlear (Eye movement)
Trigemminal (Chewing food, sensation in face, scalp cornea teeth
Abducen (Eye movement)
Facial (Facial expression, secretion of saliva and tears, taste, blinking
Vestibulocochlear (Sense of hearing and balance)
Glossopharyngeal (Swallowing, secretion of saliva and tears, taste, gag reflex)
Vagus (Visceral muscle movement, digestive system, regulation of blood pressure
Accessory (Head and shoulder movement)
HypoGlossal (Speech and swallowing)

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104
Q

What are mast cells and what is their function?

A

They are large sacs of granules and play a very important role in the inflammatory response. They drop their granules (degranulation) which include histamine, neutrophil chemotactic factor, and eosinophil chemotactic factor.

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105
Q

What are the 9 main coronary vessels?

A

Sinoatrial nodal branch of the right coronary artery
Right coronary artery
Marginal branch of the right coronary artery
Posterior interventricular branch of the right coronary artery
Left coronary artery
Circumflex branch of the left coronary artery
Left marginal branch of the circumflex branch
Anterior interventricular branch of the left coronary artery
Diagonal branch of the anterior interventricular branch

106
Q

What is kinin and what is its function?

A

It is a plasma protein and bradykinin is the primary kinin. Bradykinin causes vasodilation, extravascular smooth muscle contraction, and increased permeability. It is a slower response than that of histamine but plays a role in prolonged phase of inflammation.

107
Q

Iatrogenic is what?

A

It is an unintentional disease or drug effect produced by a physicians prescribed therapy; iatros means physician and genic means to produce

108
Q

Oncotic pressure

A

The net effect of two osmotic pressure gradients. The osmotic pressure from the interstitial space (outside the capillaries) and the osmotic pressure from the proteins in the blood plasma (in the capillaries

109
Q

What is the definition of anatomy?

A

Anatomy is the study of the body’s structure and organization.

110
Q

What is the definition of physiology?

A

The study of how the body functions

111
Q

What is the definition of the pathophysiology?

A

The study of the functional changes that occur with a particular syndrome or disease.

112
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

the general stability in the internal environment of the body regardless of the external environment.

113
Q

What is anatomic position?

A

the position of a person being examined who is standing erect with his or her feet and palms facing the examiner.

114
Q

What is supine?

A

A patient lying on his or her back face up.

115
Q

What is Prone?

A

A patient lying on his or her stomach face down.

116
Q

What composes the axial skeleton?

A

The head, neck, thorax, and abdomen.

117
Q

What composes the appendicular skeleton?

A

the extremities, including the arms, pelvic bones, and legs.

118
Q

A serous membrane encloses each of the body cavities composed of two layers, what are they?

A

The parietal (adheres to cavity wall) membrane and the visceral (adheres to the organ) membrane.

119
Q

What two main cavities is the body divided into?

A

The ventral cavity and the dorsal cavity

120
Q

Which cavity contains most of the body’s organs?

A

The Ventral

121
Q

What two parts does the ventral cavity make up?

A

Thoracic cavity and the abdominopelvic cavity

122
Q

What separates the pleural cavity?

A

The Mediastinum

123
Q

What is included in the mediastinum?

A

trachea, esophagus, thymus gland, heart and great vessels.

124
Q

What two layers is the pericardium made up of?

A

The visceral pericardium or epicardium, and the parietal pericardium or pericardial sac.

125
Q

What is the inferior border of the thoracic cavity and the superior border of the abdominopelvic cavity?

A

The diaphragm

126
Q

Many of the organs in the abdominopelvic cavity are covered by a membrane called?

A

The peritoneum

127
Q

Retroperitoneal refers to what?

A

Organs behind the peritoneum that are not suspended by the mesentery.

128
Q

The dorsal cavity contains what structures?

A

The Central nervous system

129
Q

What 3 membranes surround the brain?

A

The dura mater, the arachnoid layer, and the pia mater

130
Q

Characteristics shared by all living things are what?

A

Movement, growth, respiration, digestion, absorption, excretion, responsiveness, circulation, reproduction

131
Q

What is the smallest unit of structure and function in the human organism? Also the basic functional unit in the body.

A

The cell

132
Q

What is created when several cells with common functions join together?

A

Tissue

133
Q

What is created when several types of tissue join to perform a function?

A

Organ

134
Q

What is created when several organs combine to perform a common function?

A

Organ system

135
Q

What does eukaryotes mean?

A

true nucleus

136
Q

What does prokaryotes mean?

A

before nucleus

137
Q

What are all human body cells?

A

Eukaryotes

138
Q

What encloses the cytoplasm and its organelles?

A

Cytoplasmic membrane

139
Q

What refers to the two layers that make up the cytoplasmic membrane?

A

bilayer

140
Q

What is the main function of the cytoplasmic membrane?

A

Regulation of the transfer of substances in and out of the cell.

141
Q

What are the different types of membrane proteins?

A

Channel, Enzyme receptors, Receptor sites, Identifier proteins, carrier proteins

142
Q

What is the fluid like material within which the organelles of the cell are suspended?

A

Cytoplasm

143
Q

Organelles that synthesize new protein made of RNA and are found either free floating or on the ER are called?

A

Ribosomes

144
Q

ER or Endoplasmic Reticulum is responsible for what?

A

The system of canals works as a circulatory system within the cell moving proteins through the cell. The ER plays a part in the detoxification process.

145
Q

The organelle that concentrates and packages material for secretion out of the cell is called?

A

Golgi Appartus

146
Q

The shipping containers of the cell are known as what?

A

Vescicles

147
Q

The enzymes contained within this organelle help digest bacteria. What is this organelle called?

A

Lysosomes

148
Q

The power plant of the cell and the body where aerobic respiration resulting in the production of ATP takes place is known as what?

A

Mitochondria

149
Q

The paired rodlike structures that lie at right angles to each other and play a big part in cell division are known as what?

A

Centrioles

150
Q

These create a wavelike function that move fluid over the surface of the cell.

A

Cilia

151
Q

What are the singular organelle that project from the cell and are used for propulsion?

A

Flagella

152
Q

These project from the cell and increase surface area for absorption.

A

Microvilli

153
Q

What is considered the blueprint of the cell?

A

RNA and DNA

154
Q

The sum of all physical and chemical changes that occur in the body is known as what?

A

Metabolism

155
Q

Define Anabolism

A

the building of larger substances from smaller to larger.

156
Q

Define Catabolism

A

The breakdown of larger molecules into smaller ones that the body can use for its own needs

157
Q

What is the utilization of glucose called?

A

Oxidation

158
Q

What is the first step in cellular respiration?

A

Glycolysis

159
Q

What is the second step in cellular respiration?

A

The Krebs Cycle

160
Q

What is the final step in oxidation of glucose?

A

The electron transport chain

161
Q

How many ATP are produced in glycolysis

A

Four, however the net is two because two are used to actually perform the activity

162
Q

How many ATP are produced in the Krebs cycle?

A

2 however there are 34 in the electron transport system so 36 molecules of ATP

163
Q

How many ATP are produced in glycolysis and the Krebs cycle together?

A

36-38 ATP

164
Q

The process of particles moving from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration until an equilibrium is reached is known as what?

A

Diffusion

165
Q

A passive transport mechanism where the molecule entering the cell cannot enter without the assistance of a carrier protein is known as what?

A

Facilitated Diffusion

166
Q

A passive transport mechanism where the solutes do not move but water passes over them to dilute the substance until equilibrium is achieved is called what?

A

Osmosis

167
Q

Ions and molecules that are transported against their concentration gradient or from an area of low concentration to high concentration is known as what?

A

Active transport

168
Q

The process in which a cell becomes specialized for a specific purpose is called what?

A

Differentiation

169
Q

What are the four types of tissue found in the body?

A

epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous

170
Q

What is the most abundant tissue in the body?

A

Connective tissue

171
Q

There are 7 types of connective tissue in the body, what are they?

A

Areolar- loose tissue found in most organs
Adipose- stores lipids and stores nutrients
Fibrous- Tendons and ligaments
Cartilage
Bone
Blood- allows transport of nutrients
Hemopoietic- forms blood cells

172
Q

What are the three types of muscle tissue?

A

Skeletal, Smooth, and Cardiac

173
Q

What are the 4 basic properties of muscle?

A

Excitability, Contractility, Conductivity, and Elasticity

174
Q

What are the organ systems of the body?

A 
Integumentary
Skeletal
Muscular
Endocrine
Lymphatic
Circulatory
Respiratory
Nervous
Digestive
Urinary
Reproductive
175
Q

What is the largest system in the body?

A

The integumentary system

176
Q

What are the three layers of the skin?

A

Epidermis, Dermis, Subcutaneous

177
Q

How many bones are in the body?

A

206

178
Q

What are the functions of the skeletal system?

A

Support, Leverage, Protection, Storage, Maintenance of calcium levels, blood cell production

179
Q

Blood cell production is referred to as what?

A

Hemopoiesis or hematopoiesis

180
Q

What are the four types of bones in the body?

A

Long, flat, short, and irregular

181
Q

The axial skeleton is composed of what?

A

skull, hyoid, vertebral column, and thoracic cage

182
Q

How many bones are in the skull?

A

22

183
Q

How many vertebrae are there in each region of the spine

A

7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and 4 coccygeal

184
Q

The first cervical vertebrae is called what?

A

The atlas

185
Q

The second cervical vertebrae is called what?

A

The axis

186
Q

The foramen is what?

A

the passage way for the vertebrae

187
Q

How many ribs doe the human body have?

A

12 pairs of ribs

188
Q

How many true ribs are there?

A

7

189
Q

How many false ribs are there?

A

5

190
Q

What are the last two ribs called?

A

Floating ribs

191
Q

What 3 parts is the sternum divided into?

A

manubrium, body, and xiphoid process

192
Q

There are three types of joints in the body, what are they?

A

Fibrous (non-moveable), Cartilaginous (partially moving), Synovial (freely moving)

193
Q

What are the four primary areas of the brain?

A

Cerebrum, Cerebellum, Diencephalon, and Brain Stem

194
Q

The brain stem is made up of three parts, what are they?

A

Medulla, Pons, MidBrain

195
Q

The Diencephalon is made up of two parts what are they?

A

Thalamus and hypothalamus

196
Q

What is the medulla responsible for?

A

Many of the autonomic functions

197
Q

What is the pons responsible for?

A

afferent and efferent impulses which transmit to the medulla and the cerebrum

198
Q

What is the midbrain responsible for?

A

hearing and visual reflexes that allow tracking of the eyes

199
Q

What is the hypothalamus role?

A

Sexuality, temperature, pituitary gland, and integrates the nervous system with the endocrine system

200
Q

What is the largest part of the brain?

A

The cerebrum

201
Q

What is responsible for language, judgement, memory, socialization, aggression, motivation and mood?

A

Frontal lobes

202
Q

Somatic nervous system is what type of system, voluntary or involuntary?

A

Voluntary

203
Q

Where are hormones manufactured?

A

Endocrine glands

204
Q

What is the primary function of the thyroid?

A

Controlling metabolism

205
Q

The rapid entry of NA or sodium into the cell is largely responsible for phase 0 of the cardiac action potential is called what and is what phase of Depolarization and repolarization?

A

Depolarization; Phase 0

206
Q

When Sodium channels partially close, slowing the flow of NA into the cell is part of what phase of repolarization and depolarization?

A

Phase 1; Early Repolarization

207
Q

The plateau phase of the action potential when CA slowly enters the cell is called what and is what part of the depolarization and repolarization?

A

Phase 2; Plateau phase

208
Q

The downslope of the action potential where the cell rapidly completes repolarization as K quickly flows out of the cell is known as what and is what phase of repolarization and depolarization?

A

Final Rapid Repolarization; Phase 3

209
Q

The resting membrane potential an excess of Sodium is inside the cell and an excess of Potassium is outside the cell is and a pump is activated to reverse the two is known as what phase and of the repolarization and depolarization?

A

Phase 4; Resting Membrane Potential

210
Q

What is the alveoli covered with that allows them to keep from collapsing?

A

Surfactant

211
Q

Outside air is made up of what?

A

21% O2, 78%Nitrogen, .04% CO2

212
Q

Hyperplasia is what?

A

Cells growing in number

213
Q

Dysplasia is what?

A

Cells growing in number but adapting and taking on an abnormal size, shape, and organization.

214
Q

Metaplasia is what?

A

One type of mature differentiated cell transforming into another type of mature cell

215
Q

The part of the CNS that connects the brain to the periphery of the body is called what?

A

Spinal cord

216
Q

The nerve roots that extend beyond the terminal point of the spinal cord, yet are still within the spinal column, are called?

A

Cauda Equina

217
Q

Tracts that conduct impulses up the spinal cord to the brain are called?

A

afferent

218
Q

Tracts that conduct impulses from the brain to the rest of the body are called?

A

efferent

219
Q

Spinal nerves that combine in three areas of the body to form what?

A

Plexuses

220
Q

Areas of convergence and divergence where spinal nerves come together and are organized to transmit their impulses to areas of the body through a common nerve is called?

A

Plexus

221
Q

What are erythrocytes?

A

Red blood cells

222
Q

What are leukocytes?

A

White blood cells

223
Q

What is the average lifespan of red blood cells?

A

120 days

224
Q

Neutrophils are circulating leukocytes and the first to respond to what?

A

Infection

225
Q

The primary job of neutrophils is what?

A

phagocytosis

226
Q

Basophils are involved in what type of reaction?

A

allergic

227
Q

What cells directly attack invading organisms?

A

T cells

228
Q

The lymphatic system is primarily responsible for three functions what are they?

A
  1. Removal of excess fluid from tissues of the body and recovery of fluid needed to maintain balance of water required.
  2. The production and circulation of lymphocytes
  3. Distribution of various products unable to enter the bloodstream directly, such as nutrients and some hormones
229
Q

What is the first part of the small intestine called?

A

Duodenum

230
Q

Where is bile produced?

A

The liver

231
Q

The sense of taste is called?

A

gustation

232
Q

a firm, opaque white outer layer of the eye is called?

A

sclera

233
Q

the colored part of the eye is called?

A

Iris

234
Q

Where are sodium levels regulated?

A

Kidneys

235
Q

Normal Co2 levels are what?

A

35-45 mm Hg

236
Q

Bacteria that release endotoxins are called?

A

Pyrogenic (an inflammatory response that produces fever)

237
Q

When a large amount of bacteria and toxins reach the bloodstream the condition is called what?

A

Septicemia (also known as sepsis)

238
Q

What is the most common cause of infection in the human body?

A

viruses

239
Q

Small particles of viruses are called?

A

virions

240
Q

Viruses contain strands of RNA or DNA that are surrounded by a protein coat called?

A

capsid

241
Q

Diseases caused by fugi are called?

A

mycoses

242
Q

Single celled organisms that possess a complex cell structure, including a nucleus and organelles are called?

A

protozoa

243
Q

a plant or animal that grows, feeds, and is sheltered on or in another plant or animal is called?

A

parasite

244
Q

An infectious agent composed of only protein is called?

A

prion

245
Q

The process where fatty acids combine with certain electrolytes to form soaps is called?

A

saponification

246
Q

The pressure exerted by a fluid because of its weight is called?

A

hydrostatic pressure

247
Q

The pressure exerted by the concentration of a particular solute is called?

A

Osmotic pressure

248
Q

The collection of water in the interstitial space is called?

A

Edema

249
Q

What is the most common cause of hyperkalemia (failure to eliminate potassium at the proper rate)?

A

Chronic renal failure

250
Q

Hypokalemia has some common causes what are they?

A

insulin administration, prolonged episodes of vomiting, renal disease, diuretics, and alkalosis

251
Q

Alkalosis is usually related to what?

A

hypokalemia or hypocalcemia

252
Q

What is the most common cause of MOD’s

A

Septic shock

253
Q

Type O blood is what?

A

The universal donor

254
Q

Type AB blood is the what?

A

Universal receiver

255
Q

Humoral response vs cell mediated

A

Humoral is b cells

Cell mediated is T cells

256
Q

Proteins that alter the function of cells by binding to a receptor site and releasing a second messenger inside the cell are called?

A

Cytokines

257
Q

Hypersensitivity to an environmental antigen such as venoms and pollens is called?

A

Allergy

258
Q

The failure of the body to recognize its own tissues as self, resulting in attack by the immune system.

A

Autoimmunity

259
Q

A condition in which the host acquires immunity against itself from the tissue of a member of the same species is called?

A

Alloimmunity

260
Q

WHat are the phases of inflammation?

A
  1. Attack and destroy injurious agents
  2. confine these agents by walling them off to prevent effects on the host
  3. stimulate the immune system
  4. promote healing

paramedicine (9 decks)

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