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AUC Med > Leg and Head/Neck Anatomy > Flashcards

Leg and Head/Neck Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

The lumbar plexus (L2,3,4) gives what 3 major nerves of the lower extremity?

A

Obturator, femoral, and lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh

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2
Q

What is the continuation and branch of the sciatic nerve?

A

Tibial and common fibular

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3
Q

What nerve roots for the sciatic nerve?

A

Sacral plexus, L4, L5, S1, S2, S3

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4
Q

What muscle group does the femoral nerve supply?

A

Anterior thigh

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5
Q

What are ALL of the anterior muscles of the thigh?

A

Iliopsoas
Sartorius
Quadricepts

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6
Q

What are the quadricepts?

A

Vastus medialis, intermedius, and lateralis as well as rectus femoris

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7
Q

What is the function of the anterior thigh muscles?

A

Flexion of hip joint (thigh) and extension of the knee joint (leg)

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8
Q

What are the roots of the femoral nerve?

A

Lumbar plexus L 2, 3, 4

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9
Q

The femoral nerve runs into what cutaneous nerve?

A

Saphenous

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10
Q

What is the function of the medial thigh muscles?

A

Adduction

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11
Q

What are the muscles of the medial thigh compartment?

A

Pectineus, obturator externis, gracilis, adductor longus, adductor brevis, and 1/2 of adductor magnus magnus

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12
Q

What nerve supplies the medial thigh?

A

Obturator nerve

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13
Q

What group of muscles does the sciatic nerve supply?

A

Hamstrings (posterior thigh)

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14
Q

What muscles make up the hamstrings?

A

Bicepts femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, 1/2 of adductor magnus

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15
Q

What is the function of the hamstrings?

A

Extensor of hip (thigh) and flexor of knee (leg)

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16
Q

What muscles are supplied by superior gluteal nerve?

A

Gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae

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17
Q

What does the sciatic nerve bifurcate into?

A

Tibial and common fibular nerves

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18
Q

What nerve supplies obturator internus and superior gemellus?

A

Nerve to obturator internus

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19
Q

What does the nerve to quadratus femoris supply?

A

Quadratus femoris and inferior gemellus

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20
Q

What muscles does the superficial fibular nerve supply?

A

Fibularis longus

Fibularis brevis

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21
Q

What is the function of the lateral muscles of the leg?

A

Eversion

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22
Q

The anterior compartment of the leg is supplied by which nerve?

A

Posterior fibular nerve

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23
Q

What muscles are included in the anterior leg compartment?

A

Tibialis anterior
Extensor digitorum
Extensor halluces longus
Fibularis tertius

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24
Q

What is the function of the anterior leg compartment?

A

Dorsiflexion of the ankle and extension of the toes

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25
Q

What are the superficial muscles of the posterior leg?

A

Gastrocnemius
Soleus
Plantaris

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26
Q

What are the deep muscles of the posterior leg

A

Flexor hallucis longus
Flexor digitorum
Tibialis posterior

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27
Q

What is the main function of posterior leg muscles?

A

Plantar flexion of ankle (also inversion)

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28
Q

What nerve supplies the posterior leg muscles?

A

Tibial n.

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29
Q

What are the tarsal bones?

A 
Tallus
Calcaneous
Cuboid
Medial, intermediate, and lateral cuneiform
Navicular
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30
Q

What is the articulation point of the ankle?

A

Trochlea on the tallus

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31
Q

The tubercle of the 5th metatarsal is an attachment site for the tendon of which muscle?

A

Fibularis brevis

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32
Q

The attachment point for the fibularis longus is the:

A

Cuboid groove

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33
Q

The flexor hallucis longus tendon attaches on the:

A

Calcaneus sustentaculum tali

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34
Q

Chopart’s amputation cuts the foot:

A

between the tarsal bones at the transverse tarsal joint

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35
Q

Lisfranc’s amputation cuts the foot:

A

At the tarsometatarsal joint

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36
Q

What joint allows inversion/eversion of ankle?

A

Subtalar joint

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37
Q

What are two commonly injured ligaments in the ankle (usually an inversion injury)?

A

Anterior talofibular ligament, calcaneofibular ligament

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38
Q

What strong ligament helps to support the medial side of the ankle and can be injured in an eversion injury?

A

Deltoid ligament

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39
Q

A Pott’s ankle fracture involves what done?

A

Inferior fibula

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40
Q

What tendon travels lateral to medial under the long plantar ligament to attach to the cuboid?

A

Fibularis longus

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41
Q

The anterior tibial artery becomes what artery in the foot?

A

Dorsalis pedis

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42
Q

What nerve supplies the patch of skin between the first and second toes?

A

Deep fibular

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43
Q

What nerve supplies most cutaneous innervation to the dorsum of the foot?

A

Superficial fibular nerve

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44
Q

What nerve supplies the patch of skin on the lateral side of the foot?

A

Dorsal lateral cutaneous nerve of the foot

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45
Q

What two nerves supply the bottom of the foot except the heel?

A

Medial and lateral plantar nerve

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46
Q

What cutaneous nerve supplies the anterior and medial side of the leg?

A

Saphenous

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47
Q

What are the muscles in the first layer of the sole of the foot?

A

Flexor digitorum brevis
Abductor hallucis
Adbuctor digiti minimi

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48
Q

What are the muscles in the second layer of the sole of the foot?

A

Flexor digitorum longus
Lumbricals
Quadratus plantae

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49
Q

What are the muscles in the third layer of the sole of the foot?

A

Flexor digiti minimi
Flexor hallucis brevis
Adductor hallucis

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50
Q

What are the muscles in the fourth layer of the sole of the foot?

A 
Plantar interossei (PAD)
Dorsal interossei (DAB)
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51
Q

What ligaments make up the lateral ligament of the ankle?

A

Anterior and posterior tibiofibular,

calcaneofibular

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52
Q

What ligament provides passive support for the longitudinal arch of the foot?

A

Long plantar ligament

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53
Q

What is the “Spring” ligament and what does it support?

A

The plantar calcaneonavicular ligament, the head of the tallus

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54
Q

What are the intrinsic muscles of the dorsum of the foot?

A

Extensor digitorum/hallucis brevis, and the dorsal interosseus muscles

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55
Q

The digital bands of the plantar aponeurosis are connected by the:

A

Superficial transverse metatarsal ligament

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56
Q

What are the primary hip flexors?

A

Iliopsoas primarily, also pectineus and sartorius

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57
Q

What are the primary hip extensors?

A

Gluteus maximus and hamstrings

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58
Q

What vein runs from the lateral foot up the posterior leg to the popliteal fossa?

A

Small saphenous vein

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59
Q

What vein runs from the dorsum of the foot up the medial leg and thigh?

A

Great saphenous vein

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60
Q

Where does the iliopsoas attach on the thigh?

A

Lesser trochanter

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61
Q

Where is the adductor tubercle? What muscle inserts here?

A

Above the medial epicondyl, adductor magnus

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62
Q

What is the area of the femur leftover from the obturator branch feeding the head of the femur in children?

A

Fovea capitis

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63
Q

What is the tubercle just below the greater trochanter on the posterior femur?

A

Quadrate tubercle

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64
Q

If the angle of the femur is >135 degrees the knees tilt in and we call this:

A

Coxa valga (genu varum)

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65
Q

If the angle of the femur is <120 degrees the knees tilt out and we call this:

A

coxa vara (genu valgum)

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66
Q

Disease in which the head of the femur is not perfused resulting in bone loss

A

Perthes Disease

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67
Q

What are the three muscles that attach at the pes anserinus?

A

Sartorius
Gracilis
Semitendinosus

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68
Q

What are the borders of the femoral triangle?

A

Inguinal ligament, sartorius, adductor longus

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69
Q

What is the floor of the femoral triangle made of?

A

iliopsoas and pectineus

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70
Q

What are the contents of the femoral triangle?

A

Femoral nerve, artery vein, and canal

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71
Q

What are the boundaries of the popliteal fossa?

A

bicepts femoris, semimembranosus/tendinosus, gastrocenemius

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72
Q

What nerves form the sural nerve?

A

Tibial (medial sural cutaneous) and common fibular (Lateral sural cutaneous, then sural communicating)

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73
Q

What are the contents of the popliteal fossa?

A

Tibial/common fibular nerve,
Popliteal and short saphenous veins
Popliteal artery

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74
Q

What are the branches of the profunda femoris?

A

Medial and Lateral circumflex femoral and perforating branches

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75
Q

What are the roots of the femoral and obturator nerve?

A

L2,3,4

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76
Q

What are the names of the anastimoses around the head of the femur and the knee?

A

Cruciate, genicular

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77
Q

Patellar dislocation is almost always in a ___ direction

A

Lateral, due to vastus lateralis

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78
Q

Scar tissue creating a bump below the patella due to excertion during development is called:

A

Osgood-Schlatter Disease

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79
Q

Describe the Trandelenburg sign

A

Instability of the pelvis when walking due to paralized superior gluteal nerve

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80
Q

What is the name for the fibro-cartilagenous edge of the hip’s acetabulum?

A

Acetabular labrum

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81
Q

What is the inner, working part of the acetabulum? What is the other part, where there is a deficiency in cartilage?

A

Lunate surface

Synovial membrane

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82
Q

What are the three major ligaments (zona orbicularis) to the head of the femur?

A

Iliofemoral
Ischiofemoral
Pubofemoral

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83
Q

What ligament supports the medial rotators (G. medius and minimus) of the hip?

A

Iliofemoral ligament

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84
Q

If the femoral artery is injured, what vessel can supply collateral circulation to the hip?

A

Inferior gluteal from internal iliac

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85
Q

What is the name of the small arteries which travel inside the synovial folds?

A

Retinacular arteries

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86
Q

What is the at-risk structure in a posterior hip dislocation?

A

Sciatic nerve

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87
Q

What is the opening in the fascial late thru which the great saphenous vein travels to join the femoral?

A

Fossa ovalis

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88
Q

What is the major supportive structure of the knee?

A

Quadricept and patellar ligament anteriorly

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89
Q

Reduced joint space in the knee is a common presentation of:

A

Osteoarthritis

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90
Q

What is the “unhappy triad”?

A

ACT, medial meniscus, and medial collateral ligament

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91
Q

What ligament connects the medial and lateral menisci of the knee?

A

Transverse genicular ligament

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92
Q

What tendon connects to the lateral femoral condyl inside the joint capsule of the knee?

A

Popliteus

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93
Q

Anterior drawer tests____, while posterior drawer tests the ___

A

ACL, PCL

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94
Q

Lymph from the lateral foot drains to which lymph nodes?

A

Popliteal

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95
Q

The small saphenous vein runs on the ___ side of the leg, and the great saphenous runs on the ___ side

A

Lateral, medial

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96
Q

What legaments span the patella, before the MCL and LCL

A

Medial and lateral patella retinaculum

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97
Q

What is the major posterior extracapsular ligament of the knee?

A

Oblique popliteal ligament

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98
Q

What ligament connects the oblique popliteal with the fibula?

A

Arcuate ligament

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99
Q

What muscle runs from the tibia to the lateral femur?

A

Popliteus

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100
Q

What is the purpose of the popliteus muscle?

A

Locking mechanism

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101
Q

What are the two parts of the cranium?

A

Calvaria (cranial vault) and cranial base

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102
Q

What are the three cranial sutures on top of the cranium?

A

Coronal, sagittal, and lambdoid

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103
Q

What is the foramen on the parietal bone near the sagittal and labdoid sutures?

A

Parietal Emmisary foramen

104
Q

Which fontanel closes at three months?

A

Sphenoidal fontanel

105
Q

Which fontanel closes at two months?

A

Occipital fontanel

106
Q

Which fontanel closes at 2 years?

A

Frontal fontanel

107
Q

What are the three parts of the frontal bone?

A

Squamous, nasal, and orbital

108
Q

What is the arch of the frontal bone above the orbit

A

Supercilliary arch

109
Q

What is the attachment site for the dura mater in the frontal bone?

A

Frontal crest

110
Q

What three things does the frontal crest lead into?

A

The foramen cecum, then crista galli and cribiform plate

111
Q

“Raccoon eyes” is associated with skull fractures 85% of which are localized to the:

A

Anterior cranial fossa

112
Q

What do olfactory nerves pass through?

A

Cribiform plate

113
Q

What are the sites for muscle attachment on the occipital bone?

A

Superior and inferior nuchal lines

114
Q

Anterior to the foramen magnum is an attachment point called the:

A

Pharyngeal tubercle

115
Q

A sign of basilar and temporal bone fractures due to rupture of the mastoid emissary vein is:

A

Mastoid ecchymosis or “Battle’s Sign”

116
Q

The “H” shaped joining of frontal, sphenoid, temporal, and parietal bones is called the:

A

Pterion

117
Q

What artery is deep to the pterion (weakest part of the skull)

A

Middle meningeal artery

118
Q

Fractures to the medial cranial fossal will cause:

A

Bleeding from the are or hemotympanum

119
Q

What are the three layers of flat bones?

A

Outer table, diploe, and inner table

120
Q

What are the layers of the scalp?

A 
Skin
Connective tissue (dense)
Aponeurosis
Loose areolar CT
Pericranium
121
Q

Why is it hard to stop bleeding from the scalp?

A

Fibrous septa in the CT prevent vessel contraction

122
Q

What is the connection of the occipitofrontalis muscle?

A

Galea aponeurosis

123
Q

What is cephalohematoma?

A

Blood in the subperiosteal space, benign, limited to one bone

124
Q

What are the three membranous layers over the brain

A

Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
Pia mater

125
Q

Which space contains CSF?

A

Subarachnoid space

126
Q

What are the two layers of the dura mater?

A

Periosteal layer

Meningeal layer

127
Q

What are the two dural septa?

What sections do they split the brain into?

A 
Falx cerebri (left and right)
Tentorium cerebelli (cerebellum and occipital lobe)
128
Q

What are the triangular joining spaces of the dural septa?

A

Dural sinuses

129
Q

What are the brains four main dural sinuses?

A

Superior and inferior sagittal, cavernosus, and transverse

130
Q

Are subdural hematomas usually acute or chronic?

A

Chronic

131
Q

On which side of the leg does the superficial fibulae nerve run?

A

Lateral

132
Q

What are the contents of the adductor canal?

A

Femoral artery and vein, saphenous nerve, nerve to vastus medialis

133
Q

What nerve passes behind the head and around the neck of the fibula?

A

Common fibular

134
Q

Which artery enters the anterior compartments of the leg by passing through the upper part of the interosseus membrane between the fibula and tibia?

A

Anterior tibial

135
Q

What muscle inverts the foot?

A

Tibialis posterior

136
Q

The integrity of which nerves is tested using the patellar reflex?

A

L2-L4

137
Q

What are the infrahyoid muscles?

A

Thyrohyoid
Sternohyoid
Omohyoid
Sternothyroid

138
Q

What are 3/4 infrahyoid muscles innervated by? Which one has different innervation?

A

Ansa cervicalis

Thyrohyoid

139
Q

What are the roots of ansa cervicalis?

A

C1-C3

140
Q

What is the thyrohyoid innervated by?

A

C1 traveling with hypoglossal

141
Q

Where do cranial nerves 9, 10, and 11 leave the skull?

A

Jugular foramen

142
Q

What are the three branches of the trigeminal nerve (CN V)

A

V1- opthalmic
V2- maxillary
V3- mandibular

143
Q

Where do the trigeminal nerve branches leave the skull?

A

V1- Superior orbital fissure
V2- Foramen rotundum
V3- Foramen ovale

144
Q

Where does cranial nerve 12 leave the skull?

A

Hypogossal foramen

145
Q

List the cranial nerves

A 
I- Olfactory
II- Opthalmic
III- Oculomotor
IV- Trochlear
V- Trigeminal
VI- Abducens
VII- Fascial
VIII- Vestibulocochlear
IX- Glossopharyngeal
X- Vagus
Xi- Accessory
XII- Hypoglossal
146
Q

What innervates the sternocleidomastoid muscle? What else does it innervate?

A

CN XI- accessory nerve

Trapezius

147
Q

CN VII innervates which neck muscles?

A

Stylohyoid and posterior belly of digastric

148
Q

The anterior belly of the digastric and the myelohyoid are innervated by which nerve?

A

Nerve to myelohyoid, a branch off Trigeminal (CN V)

149
Q

Where does the superior thyroid artery arise from?

A

External carotid a.

150
Q

Where does the inferior thyroid artery arise from?

A

Subclavian a. (thyrocervical trunk)

151
Q

10% of people have an accessory thyroid artery called:

A

Thyroidea ima

152
Q

Superior and middle thyroid veins drain into the:

A

Internal jugular v.

153
Q

Inferior thyroid veins drain into the:

A

Left brachiocephalic v.

154
Q

What atructures are contained within the carotid sheath?

A

Common carotid artery
External jugular vein
Vagus nerve (CN X)

155
Q

The recurrent laryngeal nerves are branches of the:

A

Vagus nerve

156
Q

What are the branches of the subclavian artery?

A 
Vertebral
Internal Thoracic
Thyrocervical trunk
Costocervical trunk
Dorsal Scapular
157
Q

What are the branches of the thyrocervical trunk?

A

Inferior thyroid
Suprascapular
Ascending cervical
Transverse cervical

158
Q

A disorder in which the sublavian artery is blocked proximal to the vertebral artery, resulting in use of anastimoses through the opposite vertebral artery and basilar artery. Symptoms include vertigo, visual dysfunction, and ispilateral upper extremity symptoms.

A

Subclavian steal syndrome

159
Q

What is the continuation of prevertebral fascia over the top of the lung?

A

Sibson’s fascia (suprapleural membrane)

160
Q

What are the six branches of the external carotid artery?

A

Superior thyroid, Lingual, Facial
Occipital, Posterior auricular,
Ascending pharyngeal

161
Q

What does the external carotid artery turn into?

A

Maxillary and superficial temporal arteries

162
Q

What is the purpose f the carotid body?

A

Chemoreceptors (blood composition)

163
Q

What nerve supplies the carotid body?

A

Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) (Twins with vagus, CN X)

164
Q

What is the purpose of the carotid sinus?

A

Baroreceptors (blood pressure)

165
Q

What are the cervical branches of the vagus nerve?

A

Pharyngeal
Superior layngeal
Cervical cardiac

166
Q

What are the first four cranial nerves?

A

Olfactory
Optic
Oculomotor
Trochlear

167
Q

What are cranial nerves 5-8?

A

Trigeminal
Abducens
Vestibulocochlear
Glossopharyngeal

168
Q

What are cranial nerves 9-12?

A

Vagus
Spinal accessory
Hypoglossal

169
Q

What are the names of the four neonatal fontanels?

A

Frontal
Sphenoidal
Mastoid
Occipital

170
Q

Which fontanel closes earliest?

A

Occipital (2 months)

171
Q

Which fontanel closes latest?

A

Frontal (2 years)

172
Q

What condition is associated with fracture of the skull base, 85% in the anterior cranial fossa?

A

“Raccoon eyes”

Periorbital ecchymosis

173
Q

Leak of CSF through the nose is a result of traumatic detatchment of:

A

Dura mater from fronal crest

174
Q

What foramen lies at the bottom of the frontal crest?

A

Foramen cecum

175
Q

Where do the olfactory nerves enter the skull?

A

Cribiform plate

176
Q

___ is an indication of basilar and temporal bone fractures?

A

Mastoid ecchymosis or “Battle sign”

177
Q

The bruising seen in the battle sign is a result of rupture of which vein?

A

Mastoid emissary vein

178
Q

The cranium is made up of the:

A

Cranial vault (calvaria) and base

179
Q

What are the contents of the cranial cavity?

A

Brain, meninges, CSF

180
Q

What suture runs between the parietal bones?

A

Sagittal

181
Q

When do the sphenoidal fontanels close?

A

3 months

182
Q

What can be indicated by palpating the newborn fontanels?

A

Intracranial pressure

183
Q

Accumulation of excessive CSF is called:

A

Hydrocephalus

184
Q

What produces CSF?

A

The choroid plexuses in the pia mater

185
Q

Hydrocephalus may be caused by lack of CSF absorption back to the venous dural sinuses due to underdevelopment of the:

A

Arachnoid villi

186
Q

Hydrocephalus may be caused by CSF accumulation in the ventricles due to obstruction of CSF flow through the:

A

Cerebral aquaduct

187
Q

From which bone is the cribiform plate made?

A

Ethmoid

188
Q

What is the weakest part of the skull? What vein lies behind it?

A

Pterior

Middle meningeal vein

189
Q

Fracture of the pyramid of the temporal bone, parts of the sphenoid bone, and the medial cranial fossa may lead to:

A

Hemotympanum or bleeding from the ear

190
Q

What is the name of the aponeurosis in the scalp?

A

Galea aponeurotica

191
Q

What type of cyst can be found in the first layer of the scalp?

A

Sebaceous (pilar)

192
Q

Which layer is the “danger zone of the scalp”? Why?

A

LCT, because pus/blood from subarachnoid space can enter eyelids and root of nose, or into the cranial cavity via emissary veins (through parietal foremena)

193
Q

Bleeding in which scalp space is limited to one bone by sutural ligaments?

A

Pericranium/ subperiosteal potential space (cephalohematoma)

194
Q

What are the meninges? What are the layers?

A

Three membranous CT layers which surround the brain.

Dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater

195
Q

What is the only pain sensitive intracranial structure?

A

Dura mater

196
Q

What are the two layers of the dura mater?

A

Periosteal and meningeal

197
Q

What are the two partitioning reflections of dura mater?

A

Falx cerebri and tentorium cerebelli

198
Q

The sinuses which drain almost all of the blood from the brain are:

A

Sagittal
Straight
Transverse (X2)
Sigmoid (X2)

199
Q

What vein collects the blood drained by the dural sinuses?

A

Internal jugular

200
Q

Which veins connect the venous sinuses with the superficial veins of the scalp?

A

Emissary veins

201
Q

What veins cause a subdural hematoma?

A

Superficial cerebral veins

202
Q

Which hematoma can surround part of the brain, unbound?

A

Subdural hematoma

203
Q

Swelling of the ventricles of the brain is a hallmark for:

A

Hydrocephalus

204
Q

Shifting of brain tissue as seen in a subdural hematoma is called:

A

Herniation

205
Q

What vessels supply the bones of the calvaria?

A

Meningeal arteries

206
Q

The middle meningeal artery enters the middle cranial fossa through which foramen?

A

Spinosum

207
Q

Which hematoma appears biconvex on CT/ MRI?

A

Epidural hematoma

208
Q

Which time of hematoma is chronic?

A

Subdural

209
Q

Epidural hematoma is caused by rupture of what vessels?

A

Meningeal arteries

210
Q

Preganglionic fibers from the Edinger Westphal nucleus in the midbrain travel on CN __ to the ___ ganglion

A

CN III, Ciliary ganglion

211
Q

Preganglionic fibers from the superior salivatory nucleus in the pons travel on CN __ to the ___ ganglion AND the ____

A

CN VII, pterygopalatine, submandibular

212
Q

Preganglionic fibers from the inferior salivatory nucleus travel on CN __ to the ___ ganglion

A

CN IX, otic ganglion

213
Q

Preganglionic fibers from the dorsal nucleus of vagus in the midbrain travel on CN __ to the ___ ganglion

A

X, intramural ganglia of target organs

214
Q

Postganglionic fibers from the ciliary ganglion are called ___, and they enter the eyeball and supply the____

A

Short ciliary nerves, intraocular muscles

215
Q

The nerve that runs from the superior salivatory nucleus via CN VII to the pterygopalatine ganglion is called the:

A

Greater petrosal

216
Q

Postganglionic fibers from the pterygopalatine ganglion supply the mucosa glands of the: (4)

A

Nasal cavities
Oral cavities
Paranasal sinuses
Lacrimal gland

217
Q

The nerve that runs from the superior salivatory nucleus via CN VII to the submandibular ganglion is called the:

A

Chorda tympani

218
Q

The postganglionic fibers from the submandibular ganglion supply the:

A

Submandibular and sublingual glands

219
Q

The nerve connecting the inferior salivatory nucleus and the otic ganglion using CN IX is called the:

A

Lesser petrosal nerve

220
Q

The postganglionic fibers of the lesser petrosal nerve supply the:

A

Parotid gland

221
Q

In a lesion of the ___ nerve, there will be lack of pupillary reflex, ptosis due to lack of innervation of lev. palpebrae superioris, and one eye will move down and out, since only the superior oblique and lateral rectus muscles remain innervated

A

Oculomotor

222
Q

Which is the smallest cranial nerve which arrises from the posterior surface of the brainstem?

A

Trochlear nerve

223
Q

Paralysis of which CN will result in diplopia when looking down? When looking outwards and far away?

A

Trochlear, Abducens

224
Q

What are the three divisions of the trigeminal nerve?

A

Opthalmic
Maxillary
Mandibular

225
Q

What are the three nerve branches of the V1

A

Nasociliary, frontal, lacrimal

226
Q

Where does V1 exit the skull?

A

Superior orbital fissure

227
Q

Many branches of V2 carry fibers from the ___ ganglion to the mucous glands of nasal/oral cavities and lacrimal gland

A

Pterygopalatine

228
Q

V2 carries taste fibers from palate via ____ nerves to the nerve of the pterygoid canal and the greater petrosal nerve to the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve

A

Palatine

229
Q

V3, unlike V1 nd V2, carries ___ fibers

A

Motor

230
Q

Two parasympathetic ganglia associated with V3 are the:

A

Otic and submandibular ganglia, both concerned with innervation of salivary glands

231
Q

What disorder causing sharp facial pain is associated with V2 and V3

A

Tic Douloureux or trigeminal neuralgia

232
Q

CN V can be evaluated by:

A

Corneal reflex

233
Q

Where is the nucleus of CN abducens?

A

In pons near median plane

234
Q

When this nerve is paralyzed, the eye will be drawn medially due to unopposed action of CN III and medial rectus, resulting in diplopia.

A

Abducens

235
Q

What does the facial nerve innervate?

A

Muscles of facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid, and posterior belly digastric

236
Q

What nerve carries sensory fibers from the palate and anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

Facial

237
Q

What is the sensory ganglion of the facial nerve?

A

Geniculate ganglion

238
Q

Through which foramen does the facial nerve leave the skull?

A

Stylohyoid

239
Q

What gland does the facial nerve enter before branching into it’s terminal branches?

A

Parotid gland

240
Q

What are the five terminal branches of the facial nerve?

A 
Temporal
Zygomatic
Buccal
Mandibular (marginal)
Cervical
241
Q

Lesion of which nerve may result in tinnitis?

A

Vestibulocochlear

242
Q

Lesion of which nerve may result in Bell’s palsy?

A

Facial

243
Q

The glossopharyngeal nerve (CN ___) provides ___ fibers for one pharyngeal muscle

A

IX, somatic motor fibers

244
Q

The glossopharyngeal nerve provides ____ fibers for the parotid gland, taste and generl sensory for the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, tonsil, auditory tube, middle ear, and oropharynx

A

Presynaptic parasympathetic fibers

245
Q

The glossopharyngeal nerve provides ____ fibers for the carotid body and sinus

A

Special sensory fibers

246
Q

Just below the base of the skull, the glossopharyngeal nerve bears two ganglia, the:

A

SUperior (jugular) and inferior (petrosal)

247
Q

The five branches of the glossopharyngeal nerve are:

A 
Tympanic
Carotid sinus
Pharyngeal
Nerve to stylopharyngeus
Lingual
248
Q

The six branches of the vagus nerve are:

A 
Auricular
Pharyngeal
Superior laryngeal
Superior/Inferior cervical cardiac
Recurrent laryngeal
249
Q

The cranial rootlets o the accessory nerve arise from which nucleus?

A

Nucleus ambiguus

250
Q

The accessory nerve has two rootlets, what are they?

A

Cranial and spinal

251
Q

If accessory nerve is damaged by skull fracture or severe lymph node enlargement, a twisting of the neck called ____ may occur

A

Torticollis

252
Q

Which CN innervates all tongue muscles except for styloglossus?

A

Hypoglossal nerve

253
Q

Deviation of the uvula is a sign of lesion to which cranial nerve?

A

Vagus

254
Q

Shoulder drooping (sternocleidomastoid and trapezius) is a sign of damage to which CN?

A

Accessory spinal (CN XI)

255
Q

What veins merge to form the external jugular?

A

Retromandibular and posterior auricular

256
Q

What nerve runs with the external jugular vein?

A

Great auricular

257
Q

What are the roots of ansa cervicalis? What does it supply?

A

C1-C3

Infrahyoid muscles

AUC Med (12 decks)

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