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Clinical Bacteriology (Midterm) > (Lecture) Staphylococcus and Micrococcus > Flashcards

(Lecture) Staphylococcus and Micrococcus Flashcards

1
Q

Most cocci are Gram positive EXCEPT:

A

Neisseria
Moraxella
Veillonella

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2
Q

Most bacilli are Gram Negative EXCEPT:

A

Bacillus
Bifidobacterium
Actinomyces
Nocardia
Streptomyces
Clostridium
Corynebacterium
Erysipelothrix
Listeria
Lactobacillus

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3
Q

List down the Genus under the family Micrococcaceae:

A

Micrococcus
Staphylococcus
Stomatococcus
Planococcus

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4
Q

List down the Genus under the Family of Streptococcaceae:

A

Streptococcus
Enterococcus
Aerococcus
Leuconcoccus
Gemella
Pediococcus

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5
Q

A biological kingdom that is made up of prokaryotes, particularly bacteria.

A

Monera

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6
Q

The genus name Staphylococcus is derived from the Greek word _____, meaning branches of grapes.

A

Staphle

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7
Q

The genus name Staphylococcus is derived from the Greek word Staphle, meaning _____.

A

Branches of Grapes

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8
Q

Staphylococci are members of the newly formed family _____

A

Staphylococcaceae

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9
Q

Staphylococcus spp. contains _____ defined species, and _____ are found in man.

A

33
20

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10
Q

Species of staphylococci are initially differentiated by the coagulase test and are classified into two groups which are the:

A

Coagulase-positive Staphylococci
Coagulase-negative Staphylococci

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11
Q

Describe the colonies of S. aureus under Coagulase-positive Staphylococci

A

Golden-yellow colonies; Pathogenic

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12
Q

Describe the colonies of S. aureus under Coagulase-negative Staphylococci

A

Lemon yellow colonies; Chromogenic opportunistic pathogen

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13
Q

Describe the colonies of S. epidermidis under Coagulase-negative Staphylococci

A

Predominant normal flora on the skin; Leading cause of iatrogenic infection

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14
Q

Describe the colonies of S. citreus under Coagulase-negative Staphylococci

A

White pigment; Chromogenic opportunistic pathogen

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15
Q

Describe the colonies of S. saprophyticus under Coagulase-negative Staphylococci

A

Opportunistic pathogen; Normal flora of skin; Frequently cause UTI, abortion, miscarriages

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16
Q

Is Staphylococci gram-positive or gram-negative?

A

Gram-positive

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17
Q

Is Staphylococci catalase-positive or catalase-negative?

A

Catalase-positive

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18
Q

Staphylococci are aerobic or facultatively anaerobe except for _____ which is an obligate anaerobe

A

Staphylococcus saccharolyticus

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19
Q

Staphylococci are aerobic or facultatively anaerobe except for Staphylococcus saccharolyticus which is _____

A

Obligate anaerobe

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20
Q

Describe the colonies of Staphylococci:

A

Colonies are medium sized (4 to 8 mm) and appear cream-colored, white or rarely light gold, and “buttery-looking”

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21
Q

Hemolysis pattern of some Staphylococci species when grown under Blood Agar Plate

A

Beta-hemolytic

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22
Q

Rare strains of staphylococci are fastidious requiring _____, _____, _____ for growth

A

Carbon dioxide
Hemin
Menadione

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23
Q

So-called small colony variants of Staphylococci grow on media containing blood, forming colonies about _____ the size of wild-type strains after at least 48 hours of incubation.

A

1/10

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24
Q

So-called small colony variants of Staphylococci grow on media containing blood, forming colonies about 1/10 the size of wild-type strains after at least _____ of incubation.

A

48 hours

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25
Q

Is Staphylococcus aureus coagulase-positive or coagulase-negative?

A

Coagulase-positive

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26
Q

List down the CoNS that are Novobiocin Susceptible:

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis
Staphylococcus capitis
Staphylococcus haemolyticus
Staphylococcus hominis subsp. hominis
Staphylococcus lugdunensis
Staphylococcus saccharolyticus
Staphylococcus warneri

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27
Q

List down the CoNS that are Novobiocin Resistant:

A

Staphylococcus cohnii
Staphylococcus kloosii
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Staphylococcus xylosus

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28
Q

Staphylococci species that are mistaken as coagulase-positive staphylococci because of the presence of clumping factor

A

Staphylococcus lugdunensis
Staphylococcus schleiferi

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29
Q

These are the substances that destroy the red blood cell liberating hemoglobin.

A

Hemolysin

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30
Q

_____ in addition to lysine erythrocytes it can also damage that platelets and macrophages and can cause severe tissue damage.

A

Alpha Hemolysis

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31
Q

Alpha hemolysis in addition to _____ it can also damage that platelets and macrophages and can cause severe tissue damage.

A

Lysine erythrocytes

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32
Q

Beta hemolysin also known as the _____ acts on the sphingomyelin in plasma membrane of erythrocytes and is also called as the hot cold lysine

A

Sphingomyelinase C

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33
Q

_____ also known as the Sphingomyelinase C acts on the sphingomyelin in plasma membrane of erythrocytes and is also called as the hot cold lysine

A

Beta-hemolysin

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34
Q

Beta-hemolysin also known as the Sphingomyelinase C acts on the sphingomyelin in plasma membrane of erythrocytes and is also called as the _____

A

Hot cold lysine

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35
Q

What virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus ruptures the WBCs

A

Panton-Valentine Toxin/Leukocidin

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36
Q

Virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus that is responsible for the manifestations of staphylococcal food poisoning, 2-6 hours after consuming contaminated food containing pre-formed toxin.

A

Enterotoxins

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37
Q

Enterotoxins are heat stable at what time and temperature?

A

100 degree Celsius for 30 Minutes

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38
Q

Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin-1 is formerly known as _____ and _____

A

Enterotoxin F
Pyrogenic Exotoxin C

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39
Q

_____ is formerly known as Enterotoxin F and Pyrogenic Exotoxin C

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin-1

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40
Q

Cause of Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin-1:

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome

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41
Q

The enterotoxins and TSST-1 belong to a class of polypeptides known as _____ which are potent activators of T lymphocytes leading to the release of cytokines such as interleukins and tumor necrosis factor.

A

Superantigens

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42
Q

The enterotoxins and TSST-1 belong to a class of polypeptides known as superantigens which are potent activators of _____ leading to the release of cytokines such as interleukins and tumor necrosis factor.

A

T lymphocytes

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43
Q

The enterotoxins and TSST-1 belong to a class of polypeptides known as superantigens which are potent activators of T Lymphocytes leading to the release of cytokines such as _____ and _____.

A

Interleukins
Tumor Necrosis Factor

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44
Q

Epidermolytic Toxin is also known as _____ or _____

A

ET
Exfoliatin

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45
Q

Responsible for the staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)

A

Epidermolytic Toxin

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46
Q

Epidermolytic Toxin that is considered as heat-stable

A

Exfoliative Toxin A

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47
Q

Epidermolytic Toxin that is considered as heat-labile

A

Exfoliative Toxin B

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48
Q

A Virulence Factor of Staphylococcus aureus that is responsible for lysine clot

A

Fibrolysin/Staphylokinase

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49
Q

Fibrolysin/Staphylokinase activates _____ to form plasmin which digests the vibrant clots

A

Plasminogen

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50
Q

Fibrolysin/Staphylokinase activates plasminogen to form _____ which digests the vibrant clots

A

Plasmin

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51
Q

Virulence Factor of Staphylococcus aureus that is responsible for anti-phagocytosis

A

Protein A and Polysaccharide A

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52
Q

Protein A and Polysaccharide A has the ability to bind to the _____ of the immunoglobulin, binding it in this manner can block phagocytosis and negate the protective effect of the immunoglobulin.

A

FC portion

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53
Q

Virulence Factor of Staphylococcus aureus that ocalizes abscess and acts as a virulence factor

A

Staphylocoagulase

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54
Q

Virulence Factor of Staphylococcus aureus that degrades DNA components of tissue and acts as a spreading factor

A

Hyaluronidase

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55
Q

This is the inflammation of hair follicle or oil gland; infected area is raised and red

A

Folliculitis

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56
Q

A relatively mild inflammation of hair follicle or oil gland in which the infected area is raised

A

Folliculitis

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57
Q

Extension of folliculitis; large, raised and superficial abscess

A

Furuncles (Boils)

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58
Q

Tagalog term for Furuncles (Boils):

A

“Pigsa”

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59
Q

These are cluster of boils and often present with fever and chills indicating that the infection is spread systemically or in the blood.

A

Carbuncles

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60
Q

A Staphylococcus aureus cutaneous infection that is larger than streptococcal nonbullous impetigo and is surrounded by a small zone of erythema

A

Bullous impetigo

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61
Q

Example of Deep Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus:

A

Osteomyelitis
Periostitis
Tonsillitis
Pharyngitis
Sinusitis
Bronchopneumonia
Empyema
Septicemia
Meningitis
Endocarditis
Breast abscess
Renal abscess
Abscesses in other organs

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62
Q

An intoxication that results from the consumption of foods containing sufficient amounts of one or more preformed enterotoxin.

A

Food Poisoning

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63
Q

Symptoms of food poisoning appear rapidly, approximately _____ after ingestion of the food and resolve within _____

A

2-8 hours
24-48 hours

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64
Q

Common symptoms of food poisoning

A

Nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain and severe cramping

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65
Q

Rare symptoms of food poisoning

A

Diarrhea and headaches

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66
Q

A toxin with gated acute life-threatening illness caused by the enterotoxin F

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome

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67
Q

Most cases of Toxic Shock Syndrome occur in _____

A

Menstruating women who use tampons

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68
Q

How many percent of the cases of Toxic Shock Syndrome may be fatal?

A

2%-5%

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69
Q

Epidermolytic toxin produced by the staphylococcus aureus is responsible for the disease _____

A

Scalded Skin Syndrome

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70
Q

This infection causes peeling skin over large parts of the body and it looks like the skin has been scalded or burned by the hot liquid.

A

Scalded Skin Syndrome

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71
Q

Scalded Skin Syndrome is more common during _____ and _____

A

Summer
Fall

72
Q

Scalded Skin Syndrome’s duration is brief, about _____

A

2-4 days

73
Q

Bullous exfoliative dermatitis that occurs primarily in newborns and previously healthy young children

A

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome

74
Q

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome’s severe form:

A

Ritter’s Disease

75
Q

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome’s milder form:

A

Pemphigus neonatorum and Bullous impetigo (localized form)

76
Q

Staphylococcus aureus grow easily on routine laboratory culture media which is _____

A

Sheep Blood Agar (SBA)

77
Q

Selective Medium for Staphylococcus aureus:

A

Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA)
Columbia Colistin–nalidixic Acid Agar (CNA)
Phenylethyl Alcohol Agar (PEA)

78
Q

_____ in _____ makes this medium selective for Staphylococcus,

A

High NaCl concentration (7.5%)
Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA)

79
Q

Incorporation of _____ and _____ distinguishes S. aureus from most CoNS.

A

Mannitol
Phenol red

80
Q

Describe the Staphylococci spp. on SBA after 18-24 hours of incubation at 35° C to 37° C

A

Round, smooth, white, creamy colonies

81
Q

Describe the Staphylococci spp. on BAP

A

Produce hemolytic zones around the colonies (beta-hemolytic)

82
Q

Describe the Staphylococcus aureus on Nutrient Agar

A
  • 1–3 mm in diameter and have a smooth glistening surface, an entire edge, a soft butyrous consistency and an opaque, pigmented appearance
  • Appears golden yellow
83
Q

An indicator medium and assists in the identification of S. aureus in mixed cultures

A

Phenolphthalein Phosphate Agar (PPA)

84
Q

Phenolphthalein Phosphate Agar (PPA) become _____ when the culture plate is inverted over ammonia for a minute or so. This is an indicator medium to identify staphylococcus aureus in mixed code.

A

Bright pink

85
Q

Phenolphthalein Phosphate Agar (PPA) become bright pink when the culture plate is inverted over _____ for a minute or so. This is an indicator medium to identify staphylococcus aureus in mixed code.

A

Ammonia

86
Q

List down the Selective Salt Medias:

A
  1. 7–10% of sodium chloride may be added to Nutrient Agar (Salt Agar) or Milk Agar (Salt Milk Agar)
  2. Mannitol Salt Agar with 1% mannitol 3. 7.5% NaCl
  3. Nutrient Agar with Phenol Red
  4. Ludlam’s Medium containing lithium chloride and tellurite
  5. Salt Cooked Meat Broth (10% NaCl)
87
Q

Identify the specie depending on its characteristics given:

Small- to medium-sized, nonhemolytic, gray-to-white colonies; some weakly hemolytic

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

88
Q

Identify the specie depending on its characteristics given:

Slightly larger colonies, with about 50% of the strains producing a yellow pigment

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

89
Q

Identify the specie depending on its characteristics given:

Medium sized colonies, with moderate or weak hemolysis and variable pigment production

A

Staphylococcus haemolyticus

90
Q

Identify the specie depending on its characteristics given:

Small to medium size colonies, often hemolytic

A

Staphylococcus lugdunensis

91
Q

A test used to demonstrate the presence of catalase - an enzyme that catalyzes the release of oxygen from hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)

A

Catalase Test

92
Q

Reagent used for the routine culture of Catalase Test:

A

3% H2O2

93
Q

Reagent used for the detection of catalase in anaerobe:

A

15% hydrogen peroxide

94
Q

Positive result of Catalase Test:

A

Bubble formation or effervescence

95
Q

A biochemical test that is used to differentiate staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococci species like staphylococcus epidermidis and staphylococcus on the basis of the ability to produce the coagulase

A

Coagulase Test (Slide or Tube Method)

96
Q

An enzyme-like protein and causes plasma to clot by converting fibrinogen to fibrin

A

Coagulase

97
Q

Best single pathogenicity test for Staphylococcus aureus

A

Coagulase Test (Slide or Tube Method)

98
Q

An enzyme that catalyzes the release of oxygen from hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)

A

Catalase

99
Q

Specimen used in Slide Method

A

Plasma

100
Q

This method detects bound coagulase or clumping factor

A

Slide Method

101
Q

A screening test

A

Slide Method

102
Q

Positive result of Slide Method

A

Agglutination

103
Q

A Confirmatory Test

A

Tube Method

104
Q

Specimen used in Tube Method

A

0.5 mL of Rabbit’s Plasma

105
Q

Detects unbound coagulase or staphylocoagulase

A

Tube Method

106
Q

Positive result for Tube Method

A

Coagulum/Clot

107
Q

Medium used for Oxidation-Fermentation Reactions

A

O/F Glucose Medium or Hugh and Leifson’s Medium

108
Q

Two methods under Oxidation-Fermentation (O/F) Reactions

A

Open Method
Closed Method

109
Q

What is added on the closed tube in Oxidation-Fermentation (O/F) Reactions Test?

A

Mineral Oil or Paraffin Wax

110
Q

If the closed tube or closed method yields a positive result, what does it indicates?

A

Yellow Color
Fermentative

111
Q

If the open tube or open method yields a positive result, what does it indicates?

A

Yellow Color
Oxidative

112
Q

If both the closed tube and open tube yields a positive result, what does it indicates?

A

Staphylococci

113
Q

If the closed tube yields a negative result and the open tube produces a positive result, what does it indicates?

A

Micrococcaceae

114
Q

What is the pH Indicator for Oxidation-Fermentation (O/F) Reactions?

A

Bromthymol Blue

115
Q

Active chemical component of microdase disc used in Modified Oxidase Test:

A

Tetramethyl-para-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride

116
Q

What is the positive result of Modified Oxidase Test?

A

Blue to purple to black complex
Micrococci

117
Q

What is the negative result of Modified Oxidase Test?

A

No color change
Staphylococcus

118
Q

What is the medium used in Mannitol Fermentation?

A

Mannitol Salt Agar

119
Q

Positive result in Mannitol Fermentation indicates:

A

Yellow Color
Staphylococcus aureus

120
Q

Negative result in Mannitol Fermentation indicates:

A

Pink Color
Coagulase-negative Staphylococci

121
Q

Indicator used in Mannitol Fermentation Test:

A

Phenol Red

122
Q

Medium used in DNAse test?

A

DNAse Medium

123
Q

Indicator used in DNAse Test:

A

Methyl Green

124
Q

Positive result of DNAse Test indicates:

A

Clearing of the area around the organism/Colorless zone around the organism
Staphylococcus aureus

125
Q

Negative result of DNAse Test indicates:

A

No color change
Staphylococcus epidermidis

126
Q

This is a test used to determine the ability of an organism to hydrolyze DNA and utilize it as a source of carbon and energy for growth.

A

DNAse Test

127
Q

What is added to the DNAse medium if the medium doesn’t have a methyl green indicator?

A

1 N HCl or 1 normal hydrochloric acid

128
Q

Positive test result on Gelatin Liquefaction/Hydrolysis Test:

A

Liquefaction of the medium after incubation and refrigiration
Staphylococcus aureus

129
Q

Negative test result on Gelatin Liquefaction/Hydrolysis Test:

A

No changes on the medium (The medium is still semi-solid in form)
Staphylococcus epidermidis

130
Q

This is a protein derived from the connective tissues of vertebrates that is collagen

A

Gelatin

131
Q

Gelatin is a protein derived from the connective tissues of vertebrates that is _____

A

Collagen

132
Q

_____ are proteases secreted extracellularly by some bacteria which hydrolyze or digest gelatine.

A

Gelatinases

133
Q

Coagulase test result of Staphylococcus aureus:

A

Coagulase-positive

134
Q

Coagulase test result of Staphylococcus epidermidis:

A

Coagulase-negative

135
Q

Coagulase test result of Staphylococcus saprophyticus:

A

Coagulase-negative

136
Q

Novobiocin test result of Staphylococcus aureus:

A

Susceptible

137
Q

Novobiocin test result of Staphylococcus epidermidis:

A

Susceptible

138
Q

Novobiocin test result of Staphylococcus saprophyticus:

A

Resistant

139
Q

Polymixin test result of Staphylococcus aureus:

A

Resistant

140
Q

Novobiocin test result of Staphylococcus epidermidis:

A

Susceptible

141
Q

Novobiocin test result of Staphylococcus saprophyticus:

A

Susceptible

142
Q

Sugar fermentation is of no diagnostic value except for _____, which is usually fermented anaerobically by S. aureus but not by other species

A

Mannitol

143
Q

A Staphylococcus specie that is invariably present on normal man skin, infections are predominantly hospital acquired, and the most common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

144
Q

Predisposing factors of Staphylococcus epidermidis:

A
  • Catheterization
  • Medical Implantation
  • Immunosuppressive theraphy
145
Q

A Staphylococcus specie that causes UTIs in young women. This specie adheres more effectively to the epithelial cells lining the urogenital tract than other coagulase negative staphylococci. It is rarely found on other mucous membranes or skin surfaces.

A

Staphylococcus saphrophyticus

146
Q

A Staphylococcus specie that cause both community-associated and hospital-acquired infections, can be more virulent and can clinically mimic S. aureus infections, and causes infective endocarditis, septicemia, meningitis, skin and soft tissue infections, UTIs, septic shock.

A

Staphylococcus lugdunensis

147
Q

Staphylococcus has been known to contain what gene that encodes oxacillin resistance.

A

mecA Gene

148
Q

Staphylococcus has been known to contain mecA that encodes _____

A

Oxacillin resistance

149
Q

The most effective antibiotic if the strain is sensitive

A

Benzyl penicillin

150
Q

Bacteria are sometimes able to produce penicillinase, an enzyme that degrades penicillin. This ability can spread throughout the bacterial population by a small ring of dna in a process called _____

A

Conjugation

151
Q

This is an enzyme that degrades penicillin.

A

Penicillinase

152
Q

This is the bacterial equivalent of sexual reproduction where individual organisms share new genetic information between them.

A

Conjugation

153
Q

Antibiotics that are are used as penicillinase resistant penicillin.

A

Cloxacillin
Oxacillin
Flucloxacillin

154
Q

These are the agents of choice in the treatment of systemic infection, but these agents are expensive and may be toxic.

A

Glycopeptides (Vancomycin or Teicoplanin)

155
Q

For mild superficial lesions, topical applications of drugs such as _____, _____, _____ may be sufficient

A

Bacitracin
Chlorhexidine
Mupirocin

156
Q

The treatment of carriers is by local application of antibiotics such as _____ and _____

A

Bacitracin
Chlorhexidine (Antispetics)

157
Q

In resistant cases, _____ along with another oral antibiotic may be effective

A

Rifampicin

158
Q

Refers to a group of gram-positive bacteria that are genetically distinct from other strains of Staphylococcus aureus

A

Methylene-resistant Staphylococcus aureus or MRSA

159
Q

Methylene-resistant Staphylococcus aureus or MRSA is sometimes called _____

A

The Superbug

160
Q

Any staphylococcus isolated is identified as being resistant to _____, this implies that it is also resistant to _____ and _____ and to antibiotics, including the _____.

A

Methicillin
Nafcillin
Oxacillin
Cephalosporins

161
Q

_____ is generally used for detection of methicillin resistance.

A

Oxacillin

162
Q

The use of an _____, such as the oxacillin resistance screening agar can be used as a screening test for MRSA in clinical samples

A

Oxacillin-salt agar plate

163
Q

The use of an oxacillin-salt agar plat, such as the _____ can be used as a screening test for MRSA in clinical samples

A

Oxacillin resistance screening agar

164
Q

Latest CLSI M100 document recommends _____ be used to detect oxacillin (methicillin) resistance

A

Cefoxitin

165
Q

A _____ and _____ make the medium selective for staphylococci.

A

High salt concentration (5.5% NACl)
Polymyxin B

166
Q

Gold standard for MRSA detection is the detection of the mecA gene by using _____ or _____.

A

Nucleic acid probes
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) amplification

167
Q

_____ is a better inducer of mecA mediated resistance

A

Cefoxitin

168
Q

What was the year when the first vancomycin-intermediate Staphylococcus aureus (VISA) strains were recovered in Japan.

A

1996

169
Q

It was year 1996 when the first _____ strains were recovered in Japan.

A

Vancomycin-intermediate Staphylococcus aureus (VISA)

170
Q

It was year 1996 when the first vancomycin-intermediate Staphylococcus aureus (VISA) strains were recovered in _____.

A

Japan

171
Q

This is a a macrolide which is frequently used in staphylococcal skin infections.

A

Clindamycin

172
Q

What additonal test might be useful when the discrepant macrolide test results are obtained?

A

Modified double disk diffusion test (D-zone test)

173
Q

A specie that catalase-positive, gram-positive, coagulase-negative and usually oxidase-positive. They may occasionally colonize the skin or mucous membrane of humans, but they are rarely associated with infections.

A

Micrococci

174
Q

What are the two species under Micrococci:

A

Micrococcus luteus
Micrococcus lylae

175
Q

These are specie that appears as gram-positive cocci in tetrads, rather than large clusters.

A

Micrococci

Clinical Bacteriology (Midterm) (11 decks)

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