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Bio40a > Lecture midterm > Flashcards

Lecture midterm Flashcards

1
Q

A functional group is a specific arrangement of atoms that when attached to an organic molecule gives that molecule particular properties. What is a common functional group found in dietary fats (fats we eat), and fats found in the body?

A

b) Ester group

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2
Q

ATP is a compound used by the body to store chemical energy harvested from other metabolic processes, such as the breakdown of nutrients. This energy can be released to fuel other process, such as the synthesis of other molecules. The usual way in which energy is released from ATP is by the hydrolysis of the last phosphate group in a chain of three phosphates. T/F?

A

a) True

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3
Q

In what part of a cell would you find most of a cell’s genetic material?

A

c) Nucleus

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4
Q

Which of the following best describes the basic structure of the plasma membrane of a cell?

A

a) lipid bilayer

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5
Q

This type of triglyceride contains more than one double bond in the fatty acid carbon atoms.

A

c) polyunsaturated

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6
Q

Genetic information in DNA and RNA is stored as a sequence of three nucleotide bases. On DNA a group of three nucleotides is called a _____, while on the complementary strand of mRNA, this sequence is called a ______.

A

c) base triplet / codon

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7
Q

All amino acids would have the following two functional groups: a carboxyl group (COOH) and a carbonyl group (C = O). T/F?

A

b) False

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8
Q

The different types of RNA molecules are examples of nucleic acids that have a double helix shape. T/F?

A

b) False

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9
Q

Of the major types of organic compounds found in the body, which type is used to make enzymes, to make structural molecules such as collagen, and nearly always has complex, 3-dimensional structures?

A

d) Proteins

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10
Q

In a DNA molecule, adenine always pairs with ________, while in RNA molecules, adenine pairs with ________ .

A

c) thymine / uracil

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11
Q

The skin is also known as a (the)_________.

A

a) cutaneous membrane

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12
Q

Which type of epithelium makes up the epidermis?

A

d) keratinized stratified squamous

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13
Q

About 90% of the cells of the epidermis are of which type?

A

c) keratinocytes

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14
Q

Which layer consists on average of 25 to 30 layers of flattened dead keratinocytes.

A

e) stratum corneum

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15
Q

The pigment-producing cells of the epidermis are located in which layer?

A

e) stratum basale

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16
Q

Which of the following is not a correct statement about melanin?

a) granules of melanin are produced and exported by melanocytes
b) melanin granules are the source of skin pigmentation
c) melanin is necessary for the production of vitamin D by the skin
d) melanin pigment protects DNA from damaging UV light
e) melanin granules are taken up by keratinocytes

A

c) MELANIN IS NECESSARY FOR THE PRODUCTION OF VITAMIN D BY THE SKIN

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17
Q

Which layer has stem cells that undergo cell division to continually produce new keratinocytes?

A

a) stratum basale

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18
Q

Which epidermal layer marks the transition between metabolically active cells of lower layers and the dead layers of keratinocytes of the upper layers.

A

c) stratum granulosum

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19
Q

This skin layer is only present in places subjected to high levels of mechanical wear-and-tear, and provide an additional protective layer where it occurs, such as in the soles of the feet, palms, and fingertips.

A

b) stratum lucidum

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20
Q

Langerhans cells are part of the skin’s immune defenses and activate other immune cells when the skin is invaded by microbes. Which layer of the epidermis contains Langerhans cells?

A

d) stratum spinosum

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21
Q

Which statement is not correct about the dermis?

a) it is made up of dense, irregular connective tissue
b) it is thinner in men than in women
c) it contains collagen and elastin fibers
d) it provides the blood supply and many sensory receptors for the epidermis

A

b) IT IS THINNER IN MEN THAN IN WOMEN

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22
Q

Which of the following would be found in the papillary layer but not the reticular layer of the dermis?

A

a) capillary loops

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23
Q

Which of the below structures would convey a sense of touch or other skin sensations?

A

Nerve ending

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24
Q

Which of the below structures are sweat glands that do not become active until puberty and whose secretions can create body odor when it is metabolized by bacteria on the skin?

A

Apocrine sweat glands

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25
Q

Which of the below structures responds by sweating when the body is overheated (thermoregulation)?

A

Eccrine sweat glands

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26
Q

Which of the following structures receives secretions from two different types of glands?

A

Hair follicle

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27
Q

Which of the following plays a role in emotional sweating (sweating due to stress or strong emotion, not thermoregulation)?

A

c) eccrine glands

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28
Q

Thinner hair may be lacking what structural component of a typical hair?

A

a) medulla

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29
Q

The amount and kind of melanin present in the cortex and medulla of a hair shaft determines hair color. When melanin is replaced by air bubbles in the shaft, which is the resulting hair color?

A

e) white

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30
Q

The hyponychium is the __________ of the nail.

A

c) nail bed

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31
Q

Actual growth of the nail occurs in the __________

A

e) nail matrix

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32
Q

The majority of body hair of _________ is vellus rather than terminal hair.

A

b) adult females

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33
Q

Along with sweating, which other responses by skin assists with thermoregulation?

A

a) blood vessels near the skin can dilate, increasing blood flow and heat loss

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34
Q

Which feature(s) of the skin protect(s) us against microbes such as bacteria?

a) the many layers of keratinized cells form a barrier against microbes
b) sebum contains compounds which kill bacteria
c) sweat has an acidic pH which suppresses microbial growth
d) Langerhans cells can alert the immune system should microbes invade
e) all of these are correct

A

e) ALL OF THESE ARE CORRECT

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35
Q

Vitamin D, following activation in the skin, is converted to the hormone calcitriol by enzymes in the liver and kidneys. People in northern climates who may not get adequate sun exposure can become deficient in vitamin D. What mineral would be especially affected by this?

A

c) calcium

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36
Q

The skin perceives a variety of sensations from several types of sensory receptors. Which receptor would let a person know if there was a small insect walking across a hair on their arm?

A

d) root hair plexus

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37
Q

When an epidermal wound begins the healing process, basal cells migrate away from the basement membrane, enlarge, and migrate to fill in the wounded area) As these cells migrate from different sides of the wound, and reach each other, they stop migrating. This process is called__________.

A

b) contact inhibition

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38
Q

During development in the womb, the fetus by the fifth month is covered and protected by a fatty substance called__________ .

A

e) vernix caseosa

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39
Q

In the womb, which is the correct sequence of development for the dermis?

A

e) mesoderm →mesenchyme →dermis

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40
Q

Which of the following would not be a change to the skin that occurs with aging?

A

b) formation of lanugo

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41
Q

The skin is composed of both a superficial epidermis and a deeper dermis. The epidermis is highly vascularized, while the dermis is avascular. T/F?

A

b) False

42
Q

The cells of the stratum basale become more metabolically active and increase their rate of cell division when upper layers of the epidermis are stripped away due to abrasions or burns. T/F?

A

a) True

43
Q

It takes 4-6 weeks for a keratinocyte to form in the stratum basale, become keratinized in its journey through the upper layers of the epidermis, and to finally be sloughed off as a dead skin cell. T/F?

A

a) True

44
Q

Dermal papillae give rise to a person’s fingerprints and footprints. T/F?

A

b) False

45
Q

A skin graft would be needed if a person damaged the upper layers of the skin down to the stratum granulosum. T/F?

A

b) False

46
Q

In a few locations (tarsal glands of the eyelids, the head of the penis, the lips, etc)), sebaceous glands release sebum directly onto the surface of the skin.T/F?

A

a) True

47
Q

Differences in skin pigmentation are due to the number of melanocytes in the basal layer of the skin. People with darker skin have many more melanocytes than people with paler skin.T/F?

A

b) False

48
Q

The accumulation of melanin into freckles is a genetic trait. These patches of pigmentation tend to darken with sun exposure and fade during the winter when there is less exposure to the sun.T/F?

A

a) True

49
Q

Hair follicles go through a characteristic growth cycle: the growth stage, regression stage, and resting stage. At any given time, about 85% of a person’s hair is in the resting stage of the growth cycle. T/F?

A

b) False

50
Q

In addition to a thicker stratum corneum and the presence of a stratum lucidum, the thick skin of the palms and fingertips of the hands and of the soles of the feet have a denser array of sense receptors than thinner skin found elsewhere on the body, and also is hairless. T/F?

A

a) True

51
Q

Water soluble vitamins (B vitamins and vitamin C) can be easily absorbed through the skin, but absorption of the fat soluble vitamins (vitamin A, D, E and K) is minimal. T/F?

A

b) False

52
Q

In deep wound healing, an injury has penetrated through to the dermis or even the hypodermis (subcutaneous layer). In this type of wound, the healing process will leave a scar and could involve a loss of some functionality of the area of the wound. T/F?

A

a) True

53
Q

Wounds that only damage the epidermis won’t bleed because the epidermis is avascular. T/F?

A

a) True

54
Q

Formation of granulation tissue and a scab would only happen in deep wound healing where the dermis has been damaged. T/F?

A

a) True

55
Q

In the womb, nails develop before hair follicles, but both are present by about the 12th week.T/F?

A

a) True

56
Q

With advancing age, the dermis thickens and the formation of surface cells of the epidermis speeds up.T/F?

A

b) False

57
Q

Approximately 80% of males experience significant hair loss by age 60. T/F?

A

b) False

58
Q

In which region of a long bone, such as the humerus, would you find the epiphyseal plate (growth plate)?

A

c) metaphysis

59
Q

Which of the following tissues could be found on or within a bone, such as the humerus?

a) adipose tissue
b) nervous tissue
c) cartilage
d) osseous tissue
e) all of these

A

e) ALL OF THESE

60
Q

Which two minerals are stored in major quantities in bone tissue?

A

a) calcium and phosphorus

61
Q

Which represents the correct sequence of development of bone cells?

A

d) osteogenic cells → osteoblasts → osteocytes

62
Q

Which is formed from the fusion of as many as 50 monocytes (a type of white blood cell)?

A

d) osteoclast

63
Q

Once osteoblasts have surrounded themselves with the extracellular matrix of bone tissue, they remain inside little chambers called __________ where they carry on the metabolic functions that maintain bone tissue. At this point, the cells are called osteocytes.

A

c) lacunae

64
Q

Compact bone is composed of units called osteons. In contrast, spongy bone is composed of _____.

A

a) trabeculae

65
Q

What is secreted by osteoblasts during bone deposition?

A

b) collagen fibers

66
Q

What structure in the image below represents an osteon, the structural unit of compact bone?

A

Osteon

67
Q

What structure in the image below is one of a series of small channels that connect adjacent osteocytes with each other and with central canals. These canals allow nutrients, oxygen, and wastes to be properly routed even when a cell isn’t immediately next to a blood vessel?

A

canaliculi

68
Q

Which of the structures in the image below is a tissue that protects bone surfaces, assists in healing fractures, stabilizes the entry and exit points of blood vessels associated with bone tissue, and provides a firm attachment site for tendons and ligaments?

A

Periosteum

69
Q

Which of the structures in the image below represents concentric lamellae, the layers of mineralized extracellular matrix in bone tissue?

A

Concentric Lamillae

70
Q

The process of intramembranous ossification generates bone within a pre-existing template composed of mesenchymal tissue. In contrast, endochondral ossification generates bone within a pre-existing template composed of _____.

A

a) hyaline cartilage

71
Q

Most of the bones of the skull are formed by this process.

A

c) intramembranous ossification

72
Q

Long bones adds to its length at the epiphyseal plate. In this region which type of cells proliferate, become calcified, and are eventually replaced with mature bone cells, thereby adding to the bone’s length?

A

b) chondrocytes

73
Q

By which process, as an individual grows to adulthood, is the thickness (diameter) of bone increased?

A

a) appositional growth

74
Q

When bones increase in thickness (diameter) as an individual grows to adulthood, which tissue or cells of the bone begin this growth process?

A

a) cells of the periosteum differentiating into osteoblasts

75
Q

Which of the following best describes the process of bone resorption in bone remodeling?

A

a) acids and enzymes released by osteoclasts degrade collagen and dissolve away minerals, which diffuse through the interstitial fluid into nearby blood capillaries

76
Q

Which of the following regions of bone would not undergo bone remodeling as frequently as the other regions?

A

b) compact bone

77
Q

Bone tissue stores 99% of the body’s calcium. Calcium plays important roles beyond the mineralization of bones. The exchange of calcium between bone and body fluids (especially the blood) is regulated by several hormones. Which of the following is the most important hormone regulating calcium exchange?

A

e) parathyroid hormone (PTH)

78
Q

Which is NOT a part of the events that result in parathyroid hormone’s control of blood calcium levels?

a) In response to low Ca2+ levels, cells of the parathyroid gland speed up synthesis of PTH (parathyroid hormone)
b) PTH acts on the kidneys to decrease excretion of calcium in the urine
c) PTH stimulates the conversion of vitamin D into its active form (calcitriol)
d) PTH acts on the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland to increase the level of the hormone calcitonin
e) PTH increases the number and activity of osteoclasts which dissolve bone matrix and release Ca2+ to diffuse into the blood stream

A

d) PTH ACTS ON THE PARAFOLLICULAR CELLS OF THE THYROID GLAND TO INCREASE THE LEVEL OF THE HORMONE CALCITONIN

79
Q

Which of the following is a function of calcium in the body?

a) nerve cells require extracellular calcium ions (Ca2+) for proper functioning
b) Ca2+ is a cofactor needed for many enzymes to function properly
c) Ca2+ is required for the process of blood clotting
d) Ca2+ is needed by muscle cells for contraction
e) all of these are important roles of calcium in the body

A

e) ALL OF THESE ARE IMPORTANT ROLES OF CALCIUM IN THE BODY

80
Q

Which of the following hormones, in both adult males and females, ultimately ends growth of long bones at the epiphyseal plate? (This happens sooner in women than in men, and so men on average are taller than women).

A

d) estrogen

81
Q

Stan is a 35 year old man who is a dedicated long distance runner. He spends hours every week running along neighborhood streets. Recently Stan has had to go to the doctor due to pain in his lower legs that intensifies when he tries to run. There is no swelling or obvious damage, so he is surprised to hear the doctor say he has a fracture of his tibia. Stan is most likely to have which type of fracture?

A

e) stress fracture

82
Q

An elderly woman trips and falls. She puts out her hand to try to stop her fall, and ends up with a fracture of the lower arm. An x-ray shows that at the break, many pieces of bone have a splintered and fragmented appearance. Which type of fracture does this woman have?

A

c) comminuted fracture

83
Q

Which is the proper sequence of steps in the healing of a fracture (the steps are listed below but are not in the correct sequence of events):

  1. osteoblasts form trabeclular bone that joins together the fractured ends of the bone and bony callus replaces fibrocartilage callus
  2. bone remodeling occurs and compact bone replaces the spongy bone around the periphery of the fracture site
  3. fibroblasts and chondrocytes from the periosteum form the fibrocartilage callus
  4. a fracture hematoma forms and bone cells in the region of the fracture die 5.phagocytes and osteoclasts begin to remove the dead cells and damaged tissue around the hematoma
A

e) 4, 5, 3, 1, 2

84
Q

In terms of bone health, why would a physician advise an older patient to do more weight-bearing activity such as walking, jogging, or use of moderate weights?

a) it promotes normal bone remodeling
b) osteoblasts deposit more minerals salts and collagen fibers as a response to mechanical stress
c) being sedentary (not physically active) promotes bone loss through resorption by osteoclasts
d) bone formation in stressed bones is stimulated by the tug of muscles (when exercising)
e) all of these explain why a physician would give such advice to a patient

A

e) ALL OF THESE EXPLAIN WHY A PHYSICIAN WOULD GIVE SUCH ADVICE TO A PATIENT

85
Q

Gravity and the pull of muscles against bone are the main mechanical stresses experienced by bone. Stress promotes deposition of mineral salts, collagen, and the strengthening of bone in stressed areas. Which of the following individuals would have a lower rate of bone deposition and would therefore be at greater risk for bone loss through bone resorption?

A

a) a secretary who works at a desk job and does not do any regular weight-bearing exercise

86
Q

With aging, bones can become more brittle. This brittleness is due to which factor?

A

b) with aging, there is a reduction in collagen synthesis by osteoblasts, which means a loss of tensile strength

87
Q

Bones can only assist in providing movement when they tugged on by the appropriate skeletal muscles. T/F?

A

a) True

88
Q

In a newborn, all bone marrow is red, which means all of the infant’s marrow can make blood cells. T/F?

A

a) True

89
Q

Bone can be classified as a connective tissue because it contains an extracellular matrix that surrounds widely spaced cells. T/F?

A

a) True

90
Q

Osteocytes within lacunae are only found in compact bone and not within the trabeculae of spongy bone.T/F?

A

b) False

91
Q

The trabeculae of spongy bone rearrange themselves as an infant learns to walk so as to be oriented along the lines of stress the bones are subjected to. T/F?

A

a) True

92
Q

During a needle biopsy of a person’s bone marrow, maybe to test for the presence of cancer , pain is felt when the needle passes through the periosteum because it is richly supplied with nerves. T/F?

A

a) True

93
Q

During a needle biopsy of a person’s bone marrow, maybe to test for the presence of cancer , pain is felt when the needle passes through the periosteum because it is richly supplied with nerves. T/F?

A

a) True

94
Q

Near the diaphysis of a long bone, such as the femur , a large nutrient artery enters the bone through a perforating canal. T/F?

A

b) False

95
Q

During the process of bone formation in a fetus, a primary ossification center develops in the epiphysis of a cartilage model of a long bone. T/F?

A

b) False

96
Q

As long bones form in the fetus, the formation of the medullary cavity occurs because of the actions of osteoblast cells. T/F?

A

b) False

97
Q

Bone remodeling, especially bone resorption, plays a role in the maintenance of proper levels of calcium in the blood. T/F?

A

a) True

98
Q

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is able to regulate calcium levels in the blood through a series of steps that provide control through a negative feedback system. T/F?

A

a) True

99
Q

A greenstick fracture would only be seen in an elderly person with more fragile bones. T/F?

A

b) False

100
Q

Males generally have lower rates of developing osteoporosis because, on average, they enter adulthood with a heavier bone mass than women and they don’t experience the same dramatic decline in sex hormones as women do with aging. T/F?

A

a) True

Bio40a (11 decks)

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