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Lab Animal > Lecture Final > Flashcards

Lecture Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is genetics?

A

The science of heredity

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2
Q

Who determined that traits are passed on to descendants unchanged?

A

Gregor Mendel

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3
Q

What does basic genetics involve?

A

Cell division and the law of independent assortment

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4
Q

What is mitosis?

A

Cell division that results in 2 cells that each have the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell

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5
Q

What is meiosis?

A

Division of cell material that results in cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell

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6
Q

What is the Principle of Independent Assortment?

A

Different pairs of alleles are passed to offspring independently of each other

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7
Q

What affects phenotypes and genotypes?

A

Chromosomes that contain genes and alleles

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8
Q

Does a single gene affect just one trait?

A

Yes but it can also affect more than one trait

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9
Q

Do several alleles affect several traits?

A

Usually only affect one trait

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10
Q

What is a phenotype?

A

Physical characteristics of an animal, including appearance and physiological composition

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11
Q

What is a genotype?

A

The genetic makeup of an individual for a particular trait or group of traits

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12
Q

What is a dominant trait?

A

An allele or gene variation, that masks the presence of a recessive allele in the phenotype

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13
Q

What is a recessive trait?

A

An allele that is masked in the phenotype by the presence of a dominant allele

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14
Q

What is homozygous genotype?

A

A genotype consisting of 2 identical alleles of a gene for a particular trait or characteristic

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15
Q

What is an example of a homozygous individual?

A

Homozygous dominant (AA) or homozygous recessive (aa)

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16
Q

What is a heterozygous genotype?

A

A genotype that consists of 2 different alleles for a gene for a particular trait or characteristic (Aa)

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17
Q

How will the phenotype be with a heterozygous genotype?

A

It will still be the same

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18
Q

What is a mutation?

A

An alteration of genetic material such that a new variation is produced

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19
Q

What is the only mechanism of mutation that can produce new alleles of a gene?

A

Mutation

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20
Q

What are some ways a mutation can be caused?

A

Chemical, biological, environmental and viral means

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21
Q

What is ovulation?

A

The discharge of an unfertilized egg from the ovary

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22
Q

What is spontaneous ovulation?

A

Ovulation which occurs independently whether or not the animal has mated

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23
Q

What is induced ovulation?

A
  • Vulvovaginal stimulation is required for the hormones to be released that cause ovulation to take place
  • Rabbits, cats, ferrets
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24
Q

What is a zygote?

A

A cell that is formed when a sperm and egg combine their chromosomes at conception

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25
Q

What is the period in a female mammal from the beginning of one heat period to the next?

A

The estrous cycle

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26
Q

What is monestrous?

A
  • Animals that have only one breeding season per year

- Basenji, bears, dingos, foxes, wolves

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27
Q

What is polyestrous?

A
  • An animal that has repeated estrous cycles throughout the year
  • Dogs, cats, rabbits, mice
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28
Q

What is the gestation period?

A

The period of time between fertilization (aka creation of the zygote) and birth; or the length of pregnancy

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29
Q

What is parturition?

A

Giving birth at the end of the gestation period

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30
Q

What is post-partum estrus?

A

Estrus following parturition, some females can conceive within hours of parturition without having to cycle through their whole cycle again

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31
Q

What factors are determined by species in regards to reproduction?

A
  • Location where and the matter in which the gametes are fertilized (mammals=uterus, birds=eggs)
  • Development site of the zygote
  • Gestation period
  • Ovulation
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32
Q

What is a breeding scheme?

A

Several different methods that can be used to breed an animal

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33
Q

What does a breeding scheme typically depend on?

A
  • The animal involved
  • Genetic makeup required
  • Requirements of research protocol
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34
Q

What is outbreeding, aka random breeding?

A

Animals that are unrelated that are bred; popular for rodent colonies

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35
Q

What are some advantages to outbreeding?

A
  • Maximum genetic diversity
  • It produces the most vigorous offspring
  • Often results in larger litters
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36
Q

What is inbreeding?

A

Produces genetically similar animals by breeding 20 generations successively which results in a colony called a strain

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37
Q

What are some advantages to inbreeding?

A
  • Produces animals that are homozygous at approximately 99%
  • Eliminates hereditary differences for experimental purposes
  • Also eliminates the rejection of tissue shared between animals
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38
Q

What is hybrid breeding?

A

Parents from too different inbred strain animals

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39
Q

What is hybrid breeding used for?

A

To maximize the characteristics of each of the parents, therefor making offspring genetically and phenotypically identical (similar to clones)

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40
Q

What type of breeding would be used to transfer a mutation to another strain?

A

Hybrid breeding

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41
Q

What is line breeding?

A

Mating of an offspring to a common ancestor

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42
Q

What is line breeding typically used for?

A

To isolate an accent a particular desirable trait

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43
Q

Which system do gerbils typically work best for?

A

Monogamous

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44
Q

What are some advantages of a monogamous breeding mating system?

A
  • Easiest at establishing an inbred system
  • Easiest for record keeping
  • Maximizes the use of post partum estrus
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45
Q

What are some other names for a polygamous system?

A

Harem or colony system

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46
Q

Which system do mice adapt best to?

A

Polygamous

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47
Q

What are some advantages to a polygamous system?

A
  • Largest number of offspring with the least number of breeder animals
  • Most economical method
  • Maximizes use of the post partum estrus
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48
Q

What are some disadvantages to a polygamous system?

A
  • Difficulty keeping accurate records

- Overcrowding

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49
Q

What animals are used for a separately housed system?

A

Hamsters and rabbits

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50
Q

What are some advantages of a separately housed system?

A
  • Reduces the number of animals needed- Promotes accurate records keeping
  • Maintains life of non-compatible animals
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51
Q

What are some disadvantages of a separately housed system?

A

High labor costs

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52
Q

What is intensive breeding?

A

Leaving the females with the male which results in the maximum number of animals

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53
Q

What are some cons to intensive breeding?

A
  • It exhausts the female’s metabolic reserves

- May contribute to breeding/parturition problems like dystocia

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54
Q

What is non-intensive breeding?

A

Allows the female to recover completely before her next pregnancy and parturition

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55
Q

What are some necessities for caging with expectant mothers?

A

The female must be able to build a nest, deliver and nurse the young, and allow for their growth

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56
Q

What are some things to consider for avian anesthesia?

A
  • Stress response to capture and restraint- Limited pre-anesthetic evaluation (ie blood work)
  • Limited knowledge base
  • Drug idiosyncrasies
  • Small to extreme body sizes
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57
Q

What are some anatomic differences with avian anesthesia?

A
  • Birds do not have a epiglottis which makes intubation difficult
  • No thyroid cartilage or vocal cords, they have a syrinx instead
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58
Q

What should you do with the ET tube cuff for a intubation of a bird?

A

Do not inflate the cuff because it may cause necrosis of the nerves, also consider that their trachea is inexpandable due to complete trachea rings

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59
Q

What part of the bird is involved in gas exchange, the lungs or the air sacs?

A

The lungs, the air sacs maintain unidirectional flow

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60
Q

What are some difficulties with avian anesthesia?

A
  • They lack superficial veins and arteries which venipuncture and catheter placement difficult
  • They have a high metabolic rate so will metabolize anesthesia quickly
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61
Q

What is the recommended time frame to allow for an avian patient to adjust to the hospital?

A

12-24 hours

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62
Q

Where can pre-anesthetic fluid therapy be administered for a bird?

A

Through an intraosteous catheter

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63
Q

Is fasting recommended for avian surgery?

A

Not usually due to a high metabolic rate, only if surgery is on the animal’s crop

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64
Q

Which anesthetic option is more recommended for avian anesthesia, injectable or inhalant?

A

Inhalant via mask or chamber, injectable is difficult to administer and most are irreversibly

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65
Q

How can a light patient under anesthesia be described?

A

Reflexes are present but there is a lack of voluntary movement

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66
Q

How can a medium patient under anesthesia be described?

A

Palpebral reflex is present, but pedal and corneal reflux is sluggish and respiration is slow regular and deep

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67
Q

How can a deep patient under anesthesia be described?

A

All reflexes are absent, respiration is slow, irregular and shallow and the patient may become apneic

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68
Q

What are some recommendations for monitoring with an avian patient?

A

Use doppler for heart rate and blood pressure, and for an ECG be mindful of alligator clamps because they may tare skin

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69
Q

What are some considerations for rabbit anesthesia?

A
  • Limited venous access
  • Small muscle mass
  • High metabolic rate
  • Difficult to intubate
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70
Q

Why is fasting not recommended for rabbits?

A

Due to their ileus

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71
Q

What injectable medications can be used for rabbit anesthesia?

A
  • Xylazine with Ketamine
  • Telazol
  • Medetomidine with Ketamine
  • Various opiods
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72
Q

Which vein is recommended for IV catheter in pet rabbits?

A

Auricular vein

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73
Q

Which vein is recommended for IV catheter is research rabbits?

A

Marginal ear vein

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74
Q

Can inhalent anesthesia be used in rabbits?

A

Yes, but keep in mind that they are sensitive to respiratory depression, collapsed lungs and are difficult to intubate

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75
Q

What are some difficulties you may face with ferrets and anesthesia?

A
  • Thick skin makes cautheterization difficult

- Small airways, use 2-3 mm ET tubes

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76
Q

What medications are recommended for ferrets under anesthesia?

A
  • Xylazine with Ketamine
  • Medetomidine
  • Butorphanol or buprenorphine
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77
Q

How do fish and amphibians received anesthesia?

A

Medications are put into water to be inhaled

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78
Q

What is the only anesthetic medication approved for use in fish food?

A

Tricaine methanesulfonate

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79
Q

What is a FADS?

A

Fish Anesthetic Delivery System which is a gas anesthetic system

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80
Q

How many stages of fish anesthesia are there?

A

0-6

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81
Q

How can the stages of fish anesthesia be described?

A 
0 - normal
1 - light sedation
2 - deep sedation
3 - partial loss of equilibrium
4 - total loss of equilibrium
5 - loss of reflex activity
6 - medullary collapse (stage of asphyxia)
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82
Q

What is the opercular?

A

The piece of skin that covers the gills

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83
Q

What medication is recommended for fish analgesia?

A

Butorphanol prior to recovery to help animal return to swimming and eating sooner

84
Q

What is the Optimum Temperature Range or OTC for reptiles?

A

85 F

85
Q

What is poikiotherm animal?

A

Aka cold blooded; changes body temperature within environment

86
Q

What makes the renal portal system of a reptile, amphibian, fish and bird different from other animals?

A

Blood moves from the caudal half of the body through the kidneys before returning to the heart

87
Q

What is a contraindicated anesthetic method?

A

Hypothermia

88
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate of a reptile?

A

10-20 breaths per minute

89
Q

What are some physiological differences of reptiles?

A

They lack a diaphragm and their lungs are very thin walled, however they have a huge capacity for anaerobic metabolism which means they can hold their breath for extended periods of time

90
Q

Is fasting recommended for reptile anesthesia?

A

Only if the condition of the reptile permits

91
Q

What is the best overall group of drugs for controlled restraint of reptiles?

A

Inhalents, but the animal must be intubated to ensure the animal isn’t holding their breath

92
Q

In what order does relaxation and recovery occur in reptiles?

A
  • Relaxation progresses from cranial ro caudal

- Recovery occurs caudal to cranial

93
Q

What are the 4 stages or anesthesia?

A

1 - Superficial sedation
2 - Moderate sedation
3 - Surgical plane
4 - Irreversible

94
Q

Who was the father of the antiseptic technique?

A

Joseph Lister, he used carbolic acid to clean surgical site

95
Q

Who was the first to use heat sterilization?

A

Ernst von Bergmann used boiling water to clean

96
Q

Who invented the first design for an autoclave?

A

Robert Koch invented steam sterilization

97
Q

Who was the first person to use surgical gloves for procedures?

A

William Stewart Halstead

98
Q

What is asepsis?

A

Freedom from infection

99
Q

What is antimicrobial?

A

A substance that is destructive to SOME microorganisms

100
Q

What are some things that an antimicrobial will not kill?

A

Tuberculosis and spore forming bacteria

101
Q

What is a cleaning agent?

A

A chemical that when used in conjunction with some form of agitation will aid the removal of soil

102
Q

What is bacteriostat?

A

It inhibits the growth of bacteria but does not necessarily kill them

103
Q

What is decontamination?

A

Total process of removing contaminants from surfaces in laboratory animal research areas

104
Q

What is a sanitizer?

A

It reduces vegetative (actual growing) bacteria by 99.9% to 99.999%

105
Q

What is a disinfectant?

A

It destroys 100% of the vegatative bacteria (of certain species) under specified test conditions, and should not be used on skin

106
Q

What are some things that disinfectants do not include efficacy against?

A
  • Fungi- Viruses
  • Tuberculosis
  • Bacterial spores
107
Q

What is an antiseptic

A

A substance that destroys most microorganisms and can be used on the skin

108
Q

What are some things to consider when choosing a disinfectant?

A
  • Non-staining, non-toxic, non-irritating to people and animals
  • Readily mixes with water and rinses off surfaces easily
  • Rapid and broad spectrum kill of the organisms
109
Q

How does chlorine and chlorine compound halogens work?

A

By forming hydrochloric acid and is very effective and relatively inexpensive

110
Q

What are some cons of chlorine and chlorine compound halogens like bleach?

A
  • It has a corrosive effect on certain metals, concrete and clothing
  • Can pose problems for animals and personnel
111
Q

Which antiseptic is one of the oldest and most effective?

A

Iodine and it can kill many kinds of microorganisms

112
Q

What is an iodophor?

A

A combination of iodine and carrier molecules with prolonged antimicrobial material

113
Q

What is iodophors most effective against?

A

Bacterial spores but the solution must remain moist and in contact with the sire for more than 15 minutes

114
Q

What are iodophors mainly used for?

A

Surgical skin scrub

115
Q

Does alcohol kill bacterial spores?

A

No, it is a bactericidal for vegetative cells and is active against enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

116
Q

What are phenol and phenolic compounds used for?

A

They are good broad spectrum disinfectants that can kill both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses

117
Q

What are some things to be cautious of with phenol and phenolic compounds?

A
  • Extremely corrosive and require exceptional precautions in handling
  • Hazardous to cats
  • Can depigment skin and pose problems to health
118
Q

What are some advantages of formaldehyde?

A
  • Broad spectrum of activity
  • Rapid action
  • Sporicidal at high concentrations
119
Q

What are some disadvantages of formaldehyde?

A
  • Temperature and humidity and dependent

- Toxic- Carcinogenic

120
Q

Which cleaner is most effective against gram +/- bacteria?

A

Quaternary ammonium compounds

121
Q

What is sterilization?

A

Complete destruction of living organisms

122
Q

What is physical sterilization?

A
  • Filtration
  • Radiation
  • Thermal energy
123
Q

What is chemical sterilization?

A

Ethylene oxide

124
Q

What is autoclave sterilization?

A

Thermal sterilization saturated steam under pressure

125
Q

What are the recommended time and temperature for autoclave sterilization?

A

-121 C, or 250 F for 13 minutes

126
Q

What is the recommended time and temperature for flash sterilization?

A

131 C or 270 F for 3 minutes

127
Q

What does the USDA refer to to adopt standards of sanitation?

A

The Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals

128
Q

What issues does the Animal Welfare Act address?

A
  • Removal of excreta
  • Minimizing spread of disease
  • Maintaining odors at a low level
129
Q

What are the primary concerns of the Animal Welfare Act?

A

To keep animals clean and to prevent cross contamination between animals in the facility

130
Q

How often should primary enclosures of dogs and cats be cleaned?

A

Excreta and food waste must be removed daily and underneath primary enclosures should be cleaned as often as necessary

131
Q

Do dogs and cats have to be removed for cleaning?

A

Yes, unless the enclose is large enough to ensure the animals would not be harmed, wetted, or distressed in the process

132
Q

How often must primary enclosures of dogs, cats, guinea pigs, hamsters, warm blooded animals, and non-human primates be sanitized?

A

At least once every 2 weeks using either live steam under pressure or a mechanical cage washer

133
Q

How frequently does the primary enclosures of hamsters and guinea pigs need to be cleaned?

A

As often as necessary to prevent accumulation of excreta and debris

134
Q

How often to rabbit enclosures have to be sanitized?

A

At least once over 30 days

135
Q

How often should rabbit’s solid litter be removed and replaced?

A

At least once a week

136
Q

How often must a non-human primate enclosure be cleaned?

A

Daily the excreta and food waste must be removed from both inside each primary enclosure and underneath them as often as possible

137
Q

How often should debris in the pools of marine mammals be cleaned?

A

At least daily

138
Q

How often should wall and bottom surfaces of primary enclosure pools of water for marine mammals be cleaned?

A

As often as necessary to maintain proper water quality

139
Q

Which agent is generally not recommended for cleaning marine mammal enclosures?

A

Insecticides or other such chemical agents except when it is deemed essential by the attending veterinarian

140
Q

What is the Sanitation Standard Operating Procedures?

A
  • Store all sanitation materials and chemicals in a cool, centralized area
  • Follow all instructions on the label of the product
  • Never use an unlabeled container
  • Never mix two chemicals together unless its authorized by the manufacturer
141
Q

What is considered a pest?

A

Any living organism that threatens the well-being of humans or animals and compromises the integrity of a research project; insects and vertebrates

142
Q

How far away from the way should feed, bedding and caging be kept to ensure pest control?

A

At least 6 inches

143
Q

What are the most common diseases/conditions of mice?

A
  • Sendai virus
  • Mouse hepatitis virus
  • Bite wounds
  • Hair loss from friction or barbering
144
Q

What causes the sendai virus of the mouse?

A

Parainfluenza type 1

145
Q

What is the most common respiratory disease of the mouse?

A

Sendai virus

146
Q

What are the clinical signs of sendai virus of the mouse?

A
  • Hunched posture
  • Ruffled fur
  • Dyspnea
  • Teeth chattering
147
Q

What causes the mouse hepatitis virus?

A

Coronovirus

148
Q

What is the most common viral disease of the mouse?

A

Hepatitis virus because it is highly contagious and it is both a enteric disease and a respiratory disease

149
Q

How do you treat hepatitis virus of the mouse?

A

Cease breeding for 4 weeks to allow time for the mice to eliminate the virus

150
Q

What bacteria may be found in infected mice bite wounds?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

151
Q

What are the most common diseases of the rat?

A
  • Mycoplasm pulmonis
  • Sialodacryoadentitis virus
  • Neoplasia
152
Q

What are the most common conditions of the rat?

A
  • Chromodacryorrhea
  • Chronic progressive glommerulonephropathy
  • Malocclusion
  • Ringtail
153
Q

What is the most common respiratory pathogen of the rat?

A

Mycoplasm pulmonis

154
Q

How is mycoplasm pulmonis transmitted between rats?

A
  • Direct contact
  • Intrauterine
  • Sexual transmission
  • Aerosol
155
Q

What are the clinical signs of mycoplasm pulmonis of the rat?

A
  • Labored breathing
  • Weight loss
  • Lethargy
  • Hunched posture
  • Rough hair coat
  • Otits interna
156
Q

Will antibiotics help treat mycoplasm pulmonis of the rat?

A

Antibiotics will suppress infection, but not eliminate it

157
Q

What is sialodacryoadentitis virus of the rat?

A

A gram positive bacteria infection that is highly contagious and causes inflammation of he salivary and lacrimal glands

158
Q

What are the clinical signs of sialodacryoadentitis virus of the rat?

A
  • Eye squinting
  • Swelling of the ventral cervical region and jaw
  • Protrusion of the eye
159
Q

How is sialodacryoadentits virus of the rat treated?

A

It does not need to be treated as it will resolve itself on its own within 10-14 days; reinfected animals may be subclinical but still shed virus

160
Q

What kind of neoplasias can rat get?

A
  • Mammary tumors
  • Keratoancanthomas
  • Large granular lymphocytic leukemia
  • Pituitary adenomas
  • Zymbal’s gland tumors
161
Q

What is chromodacryorrhea in the rat?

A

Excessive red tears due to the porphyrin in their system

162
Q

What is the most common disease of gerbil?

A

Tyzzer’s disease

163
Q

What is tyzzer’s disease caused by?

A

Clostridium piliforme

164
Q

How is tyzzer’s disease transmitted?

A

Through fecal and oral transmission

165
Q

At what age are gerbils most susceptible to tyzzer’s disease?

A

Weanlings, and the mortality rate is very high in gerbils 3-7 weeks of age

166
Q

What are the contributing factors to tyzzer’s disease?

A

Poor sanitation and stress

167
Q

What are the clinical signs of tyzzer’s disease?

A
  • Ruff hair coat
  • Lethargy
  • Diarrhea
  • Anorexia
  • Death within 1-3 days
168
Q

Can tyzzer’s disease be treated?

A

Treatment may help suppress infection, but not cure it because spores will survive in the environment for prolonged periods of time

169
Q

What are the most common conditions of gerbils?

A
  • Nasal dermatitis
  • Degloving of the tail
  • Epileptiform seizures
170
Q

What is antibiotic associated entercolitis of the hamster?

A

GI infection caused by the animal received any of the PLACE or VGC drugs

171
Q

What are the PLACE drugs that should not be administered to lab animals?

A
  • Penicillian
  • Lincomycin
  • Amplicillin/Amoxicillin
  • Clindamycin
  • Erythromycin
172
Q

What are the VGC drugs that should not be administered to a hamster?

A
  • Vancomycin
  • Cephalosporins
  • Gentamicin
173
Q

What are the clinical signs of antibiotic associated entercolitis?

A
  • Ruffled hair
  • Anorexia
  • Profuse diarrhea
  • Dehydration
  • Death within 4-10 days
174
Q

Why is antibiotic associated entercolitis so serious to hamsters?

A

Because it disrupts the normal flora of the GI tract including the lactobacillus and the bacteroides with Clostridium difficile toxins

175
Q

How can antibiotic associate entercolits be treated in a hamster?

A

Lactobacillus supplement and supportive care

176
Q

What is the scientific name for wet tail?

A

Proliferative ileitis

177
Q

What diseases commonly affect the hamster?

A
  • Antibiotic associated entercolitis
  • Proliferative ileitis aka wet tail
  • Lymphocytic choriomeningitis aka LCM
178
Q

What are some conditions that commonly affect the hamster?

A
  • Renal amyloidosis in females

- Atrial thrombosis of the left atrium

179
Q

What is wet tail caused by?

A

Desulfovibio sp

180
Q

At what age are are hamsters most susceptible to wet tail?

A

3-8 weeks of age

181
Q

How is wet tail transmitted?

A

Through fecal and oral transmission with stress being the biggest contributing factor

182
Q

What are the clinical signs of wet tail?

A
  • Unkempt hair coat
  • Anorexia
  • Moistened peritoneal area
  • Fetid watery diarrhea
  • Dehydration
  • Distended bowl loops
  • Rectal prolapse
  • Intussusception
183
Q

What is the natural reservoir of lymphocytic choriomeningitis?

A

The wild mouse and it is spread through infected saliva, feces or urine

184
Q

Is lymphocytic choriomeningitis zoonotic?

A

Yes, LCM infected hamsters are the primary source of LCM in humans

185
Q

What are the main diseases/conditions guinea pigs can get?

A
  • Antibiotic toxicity
  • Malocclusion aka Slobbers
  • Scurvy
  • Pregnancy complications
186
Q

What drugs in addition to PLACE medications should a guinea pig never receive?

A
  • Bacitracin

- Dihydrostreptomycin

187
Q

Why is oral, parenteral or topical administration not recommended for guinea pigs?

A

Because it affects the normal flora of including lactobacillus and streptococcus and causes overgrowth of clostridium difficile and e.coli

188
Q

Which teeth are most likely to malocclude in the guinea pig?

A

Premolars and rostral molars due to genetic disposition

189
Q

What are the clinical signs of slobbers?

A
  • Ptyalism
  • Halitosis
  • Chronic weight loss
  • Tongue trauma
190
Q

What is scurvy?

A

When a guinea pig can not convert L-gulonolactone to L-absorbic acid and therefore require a Vitamin C supplement

191
Q

At what dose should a Vitamin C supplement be given to a guinea pig with scruvy?

A

15-20 mg/kg

192
Q

What are the clinical signs of scurvy?

A
  • Reluctance to move due to sore joints
  • Unkempt appearance
  • Swollen joints
  • Diarrhea
193
Q

What pregnancy complications are guinea pigs susceptible to?

A
  • Dystocia

- Pregnancy toxemia aka ketosis

194
Q

What diseases are rabbits prone to?

A
  • Pasteurella multocida aka snuffles
  • Enterotoxemia
  • Mucoid enteropathy
  • Venereal spirocetosis aka syphillis aka vent disease
  • Ear mites
  • Protazoa
  • Coccidiosis
  • Uterine adenocarcinoma
195
Q

What conditions are rabbits prone to?

A
  • Fracture or luxation of L7-S1
  • Hair balls aka trichobezoars
  • Ketosis
  • Malocclusion
  • Splay leg
  • Ulcerative pododermatitis aka sore hock
196
Q

What is the most common disease of the rabbit?

A

Pasteurella multocida aka snuffles and is harbored in the nasal passages and tympanic bullae and can eventually affect the reproductive tract

197
Q

What can otitis interna in the rabbit lead to?

A

Torticollis aka wry neck

198
Q

How can Pasteurella multocida in the rabbit be controlled?

A
  • Quarantine incoming animals
  • Eliminate environmental stressors
  • Isolation/culling of affected individuals
  • Medicated feed
199
Q

What should be used to treat enterotoxemia in a rabbit?

A

Cholestryramine to absorb PLACE drug toxins

200
Q

What age rabbits are effected most by mucoid enteropathy?

A

Young rabbits 7-10 weeks of age

201
Q

What are the clinical signs of mucoid enteropathy?

A
  • Abdominal distention
  • Sloshing sounds in the intestines
  • Hunching position
  • Depression
  • Polydipsia
  • Anorexia
  • Hypothermia
  • Constipation followed by diarrhea
202
Q

What is rabbit venereal spirocetosis caused by?

A

Treponema cuniculi

203
Q

What causes protazoa in rabbits?

A

Encephalitiozoon cuniculi shed in urine and ingested and can be transmitted from mother to offspring

204
Q

How can coccidiosis in rabbits be prevented?

A
  • Strict cleaning and disinfection
  • Use of wire hanging cages
  • Medicated food and water
  • Culling of infected animals
205
Q

What is the most common neoplasm of rabbits?

A

Uterine adenocarcinoma in does 5 years and older if not spayed

206
Q

What is the percentage of formaldehyde in formalin?

A

37-40% formaldehyde; 10:1 ratio

Lab Animal (12 decks)

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