Lecture Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

A symbiotic relationship in which one species benefits from the association while the other species is not harmed but does not benefit from the relationship

A

Commensalism

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2
Q

Which of the following could result in a type II hypersensitivity?

A

Wrong

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3
Q

All the following are true of most diseases caused by fungus except

a. Fungi spores enter the body thru a cut or a wound
b. Fungi could release enzymes that attack host cells
c. Fungi can use its flagellum to expel tissue fluids
d. Fungi produce mycotoxins, which cause disease if ingested by humans

A

C. Fungi can use its flagellum to expel tissue fluids

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4
Q

Giardia intestinalis, a Protozoan, posses the following virulence factor

A

Adhesive disc

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5
Q

Physical barriers of nonspecific defenses

A

Include both the cells that line the body surfaces and the chemicals they secrete

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6
Q

Which statement about chemical barriers is false

a. High salt content of sweat inhibits the growth of bacteria
b. Chemical barriers include mechanism to limit free iron
c. Secreted defensins form pores in microbe membranes
d. Chemical barriers include eosinophils and macrophages

A

d. Chemical barriers include eosinophils and macrophages

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7
Q

Allergens binds to sensitized mast cells carrying surface ____ molecules, causing degranulation

A

Wrong

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8
Q

_____ is the after affects of the disease after recovery

A

Sequelae

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9
Q

Granulocytes include all of the following except

A

Good

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10
Q

Leukocytes responsible for killing intracellular viruses are ____

A

Natural killer cells

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11
Q

Heat pain, redness and swelling are symptoms of

A

Inflammation

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12
Q

The rapid transfer of microbial pathogen through animals of a susceptible species ____

A

Good

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13
Q

Which of the following must be true in order to satisfy some of Koch’s postulates?

A

Good

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14
Q

Toxoid

A

Good

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15
Q

The granulocytes that releases the inflammatory agent histamine is a

A

Wrong

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16
Q

Which of the following does NOT occur in the process of phagocytosis?

A

Wrong

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17
Q

Factors that improve the chances of pathogen’s ability to invade a host and cause infection are known as

A

Good

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18
Q

The spreading of exotoxins from the site of infection via the blood is called

A

Wrong

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19
Q

Some strain of streptococcus pyogenes (flesh eating bacteria is a causative agent of

A

Good

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20
Q

Toll-like receptors

A

Wrong

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21
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity includes

A

Good

22
Q

The condition that is caused by exogenous and endogenous pyrogens is called

A

Good

23
Q

HIV has an affinity for cells that bear the ____ antigen (s. on their surface

A

CD4

24
Q

Gas gangrene, with gas production leading to tissues necrosis is due to

A

Good

25
Q

Interferons which are stimulated by viruses and ____

A

Good

26
Q

What is the difference between rubella and rubeola?

A

Good

27
Q

Cytokines

A

Wrong

28
Q

Adaptive immunity is ____

A

Good

29
Q

Injection of a patient with ready-made antibodies produced in a different host is an example of what type of immunity?

A

Good

30
Q

Injection of a person with a vaccine that induces protective immunity in that individual is an example of what type of immunity

A

Good

31
Q

Colostrum, which contains high concentrations of antibodies passed onto an infant from a mother during breast-feeding is an example of what type of immunity?

A

Good

32
Q

HAART (Highly Active Antiretrovial Therapy is

A

Good

33
Q

A protein molecules produced in a host in response to an agent which is capable of binding to that antigen is a/an

A

Good

34
Q

Burn infections

A

Wrong

35
Q

What is the site where stem cells develop into B lymphocytes in humans?

A

Good

36
Q

All of the following are symptoms of measles except

A

Good

37
Q

Which class of immunoglobulin consists of five units (pentamer connected by J chains?

A

Good

38
Q

All of the following have correctly matched antibody class with their function except

A

Wrong

39
Q

Antigens that have capacity to activate huge numbers of immune T cells non-specifically resulting in a large immune response that results in disease are ____

A

Good

40
Q

Which of the following T cells secretes lymphokines that further activate B cells to differentiate into plasma cells?

A

Good

41
Q

Which one is the first antibody to be produced?

A

Good

42
Q

Hypersensitivity or allergy refers to the immune system responding ____

A

Good

43
Q

Anaphylaxis is associated with which type of hypersensitivity?

A

Good

44
Q

Staphylococcus aureus causes all of the following except

A

Good

45
Q

Scarlet fever can lead to serious complications including

A

Good

46
Q

Which of the following Staphylococcal infections is matched correctly with the infection site?

A

Good

47
Q

Which of the following statement about scalded skin syndrome is incorrect?

A

Wrong

48
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with the erythrogenic toxin of Streptococcus pyogenes?

A

Good

49
Q

Debridement

A

Good

50
Q

Eosinophils are present in large number during worm infections

A

True

51
Q
  1. List the stages of infectious diseases in order And define each stage
  2. A women gave birth to a still born, and the test showed that the infant was infected with rubella. Mother’s medical history showed that she was immunized with MMR when she was young and she had no signs or symptoms during or before her pregnancy. She has two children, and they both were born normal. Both were immunized at appropriate age, and her youngest one was immunized 9 months ago.

A. How did the mother become infected with rubella?
B. What specific test was done on infant that was positive for rubella?

A

Answer