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Anatomy and Physiology > Lecture Exam 2 > Flashcards

Lecture Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Non-living fluid matrix of blood.

A

Plasma

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2
Q

3 Formed Elements of Blood

A

Platelets, Erythrocytes, Leukocytes

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3
Q

Red Blood Cells are Called:

A

Erythrocytes

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4
Q

White Blood Cells are called:

A

Leukocytes

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5
Q

3 Layers of Blood when spun in a centrifuge

A

Plasma, Buffy Coat (WBC/Platelets), Erythrocytes

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6
Q

Plasma should make up how much of a hematocrit?

A

55%

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7
Q

Erythrocytes should make up how much of a hematocrit?

A

45%

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8
Q

How do you figure out how much of an element in a hematocrit?

A

Column of element/column of whole tube multiplied by 100

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9
Q

Function of Leukocytes

A

Protect body from bacteria, viruses, parasites, toxins, and tumor cells.

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10
Q

Diapedisis

A

The way that WBC’s leave the capillaries towards infection using ameboid motion and positive chemotaxis

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11
Q

Leukocytosis

A

Increased production of WBC’s, normal response to infection.

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12
Q

3 Granulocytes

A

Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils

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13
Q

2 Agranulocytes

A

Lymphocytes, Monocytes

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14
Q

Most common Leukocytes to Least Common

A

Neutrophils, Lymphocytes, Monocytes, Eosinophils, Basophils

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15
Q

Characteristics of Granulocytes

A

Cytoplasmic granules, shorter lived that RBC’s, Lobed nuclei, all phagocytic.

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16
Q

Characteristics of Neutrophils

A

Most abundant, 3-6 lobes in nucleus, Larger than RBC’s, contain defensins, phagocytize bacteria

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17
Q

Characteristics of Eosinophils

A

Bi-lobed nucleus, Red granules, Larger than RBC’s, Defend against parasitic worms, Role in allergies and asthma

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18
Q

Characteristics of Basophils

A

Deep Purple nucleus, Larger than RBC’s, Least abundant, contain histamine

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19
Q

Histamine

A

Inflammatory chemical that dilates blood vessels to attract WBC’s to site of infection.

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20
Q

Characteristics of Lymphocytes

A

Deep purple, circular nuclei, Mostly in lymphoid tissue, Mount immune response

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21
Q

Characteristics of Monocytes

A

Kidney shaped nuclei, very large.

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22
Q

Function of Monocytes

A

Differentiate into microphages and enter tissues, actively phagocytic, activate lymphocytes to mount immune response.

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23
Q

Leukopoiesis

A

Production of WBC’s.

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24
Q

Leukopoiesis is stimulated by:

A

Interleukins and Colony Stimulating Factors

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25
Q

All leukocytes originate from:

A

Hemocytoblasts

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26
Q

Where are the chemical messengers found that stimulate Leukopoiesis?

A

Red Bone Marrow and Mature WBC’s

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27
Q

Leukopenia

A

Abnormally low WBC count.

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28
Q

What causes Leukopenia?

A

Glucocorticoids or anti-cancer drugs

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29
Q

What is Leukemia?

A

The Cancerous overproduction of abnormal WBC’s. Fill red bone marrow .

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30
Q

Myeloid Leukemia

A

Myoblast decendents (granulocytes)

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31
Q

Lymphocytic Leukemia

A

Involves lymphocytes

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32
Q

Acute Leukemia

A

Derives from Stem Cells

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33
Q

Chronic Leukemia

A

Derives from later cell stages.

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34
Q

Infectious Mononucleosis

A

Excessive numbers of atypical a granulocytes. Caused by Epstein Barr Virus

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35
Q

Symptoms of Infectious Mononucleosis

A

Tired, achy, sore throat, low fever

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36
Q

How do you treat infectious mononucleosis

A

Runs course with rest

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37
Q

Sickle Cell Anemia

A

Red Blood Cells are sickle shaped, not round. Rupture easily and block small vessels.

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38
Q

Pernicious Anemia

A

Large and Odd Shaped RBC’s

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39
Q

Whole Blood Transfusions

A

Used when blood loss is rapid and substantial (>30%).

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40
Q

Packed Red Cell Transfusions

A

Transfused in other cases, restore Oxygen carrying capacity.

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41
Q

Loss of ______ or more blood can be fatal.

A

30%

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42
Q

Transfusions of incompatible blood can be _________.

A

Fatal

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43
Q

Antigens (Agglutinogens)

A

Generate Immune Response

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44
Q

Antibodies (Agglutinins)

A

Pre-formed Anti-A or Anti-B antibodies

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45
Q

Type A blood would have:

A

Antigens: A Antibodies: Anti-B

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46
Q

Type B blood would have:

A

Antigens: B Antibodies: Anti-A

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47
Q

Type AB blood would have:

A

Antigens: A and B Antibodies: None

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48
Q

Type O blood would have:

A

Antigens: None Antibodies: Anti-A and Anti-B

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49
Q

Which type of blood is a universal donor?

A

Type O

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50
Q

Which type of blood is a universal receiver?

A

Type AB

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51
Q

Agglutinated

A

Clumped together

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52
Q

If someone’s blood type is O negative, what antigen are they missing?

A

RH antigen

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53
Q

How many times does someone who is RH- have to be transfused with RH+ blood to get a reaction.

A

The second time there is a reaction.

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54
Q

Someone will only produce RH antibodies if:

A

A mom is carrying an RH+ baby, and individual who is RH- receives RH+ blood.

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55
Q

Erythroblastosis Fetalis

A

When an RH- mom is carrying an RH+ baby, the second time the baby may become anemic or hypoxic.

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56
Q

RhoGRAM Serum

A

Contains artificial RH antibodies so that the mother of a baby doesn’t produce RH antibodies and attacks the fetus.

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57
Q

Results of Transfusion Reactions

A

Diminished O carrying capacity, Diminished blood flow beyond blocked vessels, Ruptured cells release hemoglobin and cause kidney failure.

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58
Q

Treatment for transfusion reactions

A

Fluids and diuretics to wash out hemoglobin.

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59
Q

Low Blood Volume can cause_____ and_____.

A

Shock and Death

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60
Q

3 Functions of Blood:

A

Distribution, Regulation, Protection

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61
Q

Blood Distribution:

A

Distributes O, Nutrients, Hormones. Removes metabolic waste.

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62
Q

Blood Regulation:

A

Maintains body temperature, pH, Fluid volume

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63
Q

Lower blood pH than normal:

A

Acidosis

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64
Q

Higher blood pH than normal:

A

Alkalosis

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65
Q

Blood Protection:

A

Provides Leukocytes

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66
Q

Plasma

A

Non-living fluid matrix of blood

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67
Q

Blood Plasma Characteristics

A

90% Water, Least heavy layer and the most abundant, Solutes

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68
Q

Solutes of Blood Plasma

A

Electrolytes and Plasma Proteins (albumin)

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69
Q

Albumin

A

Regulates osmotic pressure

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70
Q

Function of Erythrocytes

A

Respiratory gas transport

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71
Q

Hemoglobin

A

Binds reversibly with Oxygen

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72
Q

Characteristics of Erythrocytes

A

Small, biconcave, high hemoglobin content, no mitochondria, aneucleate

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73
Q

Globin

A

Composed of 4 polypeptide chains

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74
Q

Heme

A

Pigment bonded to each globin chain. Iron atom binds with 1 Oxygen atom.

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75
Q

How many O atoms can each Hb (Hemoglobin) molecule bind to?

A

4

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76
Q

Oxyhemoglobin

A

Produced by O2 loading into lungs. Ruby red in color.

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77
Q

Deoxyhemoglobin

A

Produced by O2 unloading in tissues. Dark red in color.

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78
Q

Carbaminohemoglobin

A

Produced when CO2 loads in tissues. 20% of CO2 in blood binds to Hb.

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79
Q

Hematopoiesis

A

Production of blood cells

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80
Q

Blood cell formation occurs where?

A

Red bone marrow

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81
Q

Erythropoesis

A

Production of Red Blood Cells

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82
Q

All blood cells arise from a ____________.

A

Hemocytoblast

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83
Q

Hormones and growth factors influence ___________ to turn into erythrocytes.

A

Myeloid Stem Cells

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84
Q

Balance of RBC production and destruction depends on:

A

Hormonal Controls and Dietary requirements

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85
Q

Too few RBC’s leads to_______

A

Tissue Hypoxia

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86
Q

Too many RBC’s leads to ________

A

Blood viscosity

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87
Q

Erythropoietin (EPO)

A

Glycoprotein hormone in kidneys that stimulates RBC production.

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88
Q

EPO production is increased by ______.

A

Hypoxia

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89
Q

EPO is increased by hypoxia due to:

A

Decreased RBC’s, Insufficient Hemoglobin, Reduced O availability

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90
Q

Dietary Requirements for Erythropoesis

A

Nutrients and structural materials, Iron, B complex vitamins

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91
Q

What element is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis?

A

Iron

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92
Q

What type of vitamins are necessary for DNA synthesis?

A

B complex vitamins (Folic, B12)

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93
Q

How long does an RBC live in the bloodstream?

A

About 100 days

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94
Q

What happens to the parts of RBC’s that cannot be reused?

A

Excrete them

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95
Q

What part of the RBC must be reused?

A

Hemoglobin

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96
Q

When an RBC is destroyed Heme is taken where?

A

Fe goes back to the blood stream, the rest is taken to the liver.

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97
Q

When an RBC is destroyed Globin is taken where?

A

It is turned into amino acids

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98
Q

Anemia

A

Bloods Oxygen carrying capacity is too low to support normal metabolism

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99
Q

Polycythemia

A

Abnormal excess of erythrocytes

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100
Q

Symptoms of Anemia

A

Fatigue, pallor, shortness of breath, chills

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101
Q

Causes of Anemia

A

Blood loss, Low RBC production, High RBC destruction

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102
Q

Acute Hemmorhagic Anemia

A

Rapid loss of blood quickly

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103
Q

Chronic Hemmorhagic Anemia

A

Slight, but persistent blood loss

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104
Q

Iron deficiency anemia

A

Caused by hemmorhagic anemia, low iron intake or impaired absorption

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105
Q

Pernicious Anemia Causes

A

Autoimmune Disease, Lack of ability to absorb B12 to have cell division.

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106
Q

Renal Anemia

A

Lack of Erythropoeitin

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107
Q

Aplastic Anemia

A

Destruction or inhibition of red bone marrow by chemicals, drugs, radiation or viruses

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108
Q

Hemolytic Anemias

A

Premature RBC lysis

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109
Q

Thalassemias

A

Where one globin chain is absent or faulty

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110
Q

Sickle Cell Anemia occurs mostly in what race of people?

A

Black/African

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111
Q

You have a better chance of surviving malaria if you have how many copies of the sickle cell gene?

A

One

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112
Q

If you have one copy of the sickle cell gene you have ________ if you have two copies you have ________.

A

Sickle Cell Trait, Sickle Cell Anemia

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113
Q

Polycythemia Vera

A

Bone Marrow Cancer

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114
Q

Secondary Polycythemia

A

Less O2 available (high altitude) or EPO production increases.

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115
Q

Blood Doping

A

Artificially induced polycythemia to increase O2 carrying capacity. Used by athletes.

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116
Q

Function of Platelets

A

Clotting Process, Form temporary plug to help seal breaks in vessel walls.

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117
Q

Why is blood doping dangerous?

A

Blood can become too viscous

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118
Q

Platelets are made from:

A

Ruptured cytoplasmic elements of a megakarocyte.

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119
Q

What hormone regulates the formation of platelets?

A

Thrombopoieten

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120
Q

Hemostasis

A

3 reactions that help prevent the loss of blood from breaks in the vessel walls.

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121
Q

Hemostasis is _______, ________, and _________

A

Fast, localized, and highly controlled

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122
Q

What coordinates Hemostasis?

A

Clotting Factors

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123
Q

3 Steps to Hemostasis

A

Vascular Spasm, Platelet Plug Formation, Coagulation of Blood

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124
Q

Vascular Spasm

A

Damaged blood vessel responds to injury by constricting.

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125
Q

Vasoconstriction

A

The constriction of a blood vessel

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126
Q

Triggers of a Vascular Spasm

A

Direct injury to blood vessel wall, Chemicals released by endothelial cells and platelets, Local pain receptor reflexes

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127
Q

von Willebrand Factor

A

Plasma protein that helps platelets stick to collagen fibers.

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128
Q

Damage to blood vessel exposes ___________

A

Collagen fibers

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129
Q

Platelets release _________ to make nearby platelets to become spiked and sticky.

A

Chemical messengers

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130
Q

Chemical Messengers that cause platelets to become sticky

A

Adenosinediphosphate (ADP), Serotonin, Thromboxane A2

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131
Q

In coagulation, platelet plug is reinforced with _________.

A

Fibrin Threads

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132
Q

In coagulation blood is formed from ______ to _______.

A

Liquid to gel

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133
Q

3 phases of coagulation:

A

Prothrombin activator formed, Prothrombin turns into thrombin, Thrombin catalyzes fibrinogen to fibrin

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134
Q

Factor __ works to form the prothrombin activator

A

X

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135
Q

Coagulation phase 1

A

Factor X works to form prothrombin activator

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136
Q

Coagulation phase 2

A

Prothrombin activator catalyzes transformation of prothrombin to thrombin

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137
Q

Coagulation phase 3

A

Thrombin catalyzes the transformation of fibrinogen to fibrin.

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138
Q

Fibrinogen is _________ while fibrin is ________

A

soluble, insoluble

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139
Q

Thrombin also activates factor _________ or __________.

A

Factor XIII, Fibrin stabilizing factor

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140
Q

Clot retraction

A

Platelets contract, drawing edges of ruptured blood vessels together.

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141
Q

Vessel Healing

A

Stimulates cells of vessel walls to divide

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142
Q

Platelets release __________ for vessel healing

A

Platelet Derived Growth Factor (PDGF)

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143
Q

Endothelial cells release ________ for vessel healing

A

Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF)

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144
Q

Fibrinolysis

A

Removes unneeded clots after healing

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145
Q

Plasmin

A

Fibrin-digesting enzyme

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146
Q

Homeostatic Mechanisms limiting clot growth

A

Removal of clotting factors, Inhibition of activated clotting factors

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147
Q

Antithrombin III

A

Inactivates thrombin

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148
Q

Heparin

A

Enhances Antithrombin III

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149
Q

Thromboembolic Disorders

A

Undesirable clot formation

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150
Q

Bleeding Disorders

A

Unable to clot

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151
Q

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

A

Clotting and Bleeding issues

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152
Q

Thrombus

A

Stationary clot that develops and persists in an unbroken vessel

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153
Q

Thrombosis

A

Formation of a blood clot inside a vessel that blocks the flow of blood.

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154
Q

Embolus

A

A Thrombus that is freely floating throughout the body

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155
Q

Embolism

A

Stuck clot

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156
Q

4 Anticoagulant Drugs

A

Aspirin, Heparin, Warfarin, Dabigitran

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157
Q

Aspirin

A

Inhibits Thromboxane A2

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158
Q

Warfarin (Coumadin)

A

Interferes with Vitamin K production of clotting factors

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159
Q

Dabigitran

A

Inhibits thrombin

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160
Q

2 Causes of Deficient Clotting

A

Circulating platelet deficiency, Deficiency of clotting factors

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161
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A

Platelet Deficiency

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162
Q

Circulating platelet deficiency can come from ________

A

Red bone marrow destruction

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163
Q

Deficiency of Clotting factors can come from________

A

Impaired liver function, Vitamin K deficiency, Hepititis or Cirrohsis

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164
Q

Hemophilia

A

A genetic disease, Factor VIII, Minor tissue trauma causes prolonged bleeding

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165
Q

Hemophilia ____ is the most common type

A

A

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166
Q

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

A

Clotting in intact blood vessels, severe bleeding because residual blood unable to clot.

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167
Q

DIC can happen because of

A

Pregnancy issues, Septicemia, Incompatible Blood Transfusions

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168
Q

Coordinated Heartbeat is a function of _____ and _____

A

Gap junctions, Intrinsic conduction system

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169
Q

Cardiac Pacemaker Cells

A

Noncontractile cells with unstable resting membrane potential

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170
Q

Cardiac Pacemaker Cells do two things:

A

Drift toward depolarization, Trigger rhythmic contractions through action potentials

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171
Q

3 parts of Action Potential

A

Pacemaker Potential, Depolarization, Repolarization

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172
Q

Electrical Impulse of the Heart Passes in this order:

A

SA node, AV note, Bundles of His, Purkinje Fibers (Subendocardial Conducting Network)

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173
Q

Sino Atrial Node

A

Drives Heart Rate, Generates the impulse.

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174
Q

Atrioventricular Node

A

Impulse Pauses here

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175
Q

Atrioventricular Bundle

A

Connects Atria to the Ventricles

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176
Q

Bundle Branches

A

Conduct impulses through the inter ventricular septum

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177
Q

Subendocardial Conducting Network

A

Depolarizes contractile cells of both ventricles

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178
Q

SA node has ______ bpm

A

75

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179
Q

AV node has ______ bpm

A

50

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180
Q

AV bundle and Purkinje Fibers have _____ bpm

A

30

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181
Q

Arrythmias

A

Irregular Heart Rhythms

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182
Q

Fibrillation

A

Rapid, irregular contractions

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183
Q

Defibrillation

A

Resetting the electrical activity of the heart

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184
Q

Homeostatic Imbalances of the Electrical System of the Heart

A

Arrhythmias, Fibrillation, Uncoordinated atrial and ventricular contractions

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185
Q

Ectopic Focus

A

Abnormal pacemaker caused by defects with SA node. AV node sets a junctional rhythm (45-60bpm)

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186
Q

Extrasystole

A

Premature contraction. Can be caused by nicotine or caffeine

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187
Q

Heart Block

A

Few or no impulses reach ventricles because of defective AV node. Too slow for life, need artificial pacemaker to treat.

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188
Q

Extrinsic Innervation of the Heart:

A

Heartbeat modified by ANS via cardiac centers in the brainstem.

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189
Q

Cardioacceleratory Center

A

Sympathetic, accelerates via AV, SA nodes, heart muscle and coronary arteries.

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190
Q

Cardioinhibitory Center

A

Parasympathetic, inhibits via AV, SA nodes

191
Q

ECG

A

Electrocardiogram, composite of all action potentials generated by nodal and contractile cells of the heart

192
Q

3 deflections of an ECG

A

P wave, QRS Complex, T wave

193
Q

P Wave

A

Movement of depolarization wave from SA node through atria.

194
Q

QRS complex

A

Ventricular depolarization and atrial repolarization

195
Q

T wave

A

Ventricular repolarization

196
Q

P-R interval

A

Beginning of atrial excitation to beginning of ventricular excitation

197
Q

S-T segment

A

Entire ventricular myocardium depolarized

198
Q

Q-T interval

A

Beginning of ventricular depolarization through ventricular repolarization

199
Q

Junctional Rhythm

A

SA node is non-functional, P waves are absent. AV node paces heart between 45-60 bpm

200
Q

Second Degree Heart Block

A

More P than QRS waves are seen. P waves repeat themselves.

201
Q

Ventricular Fibrillation

A

Chaotic and irregular ECG

202
Q

Right side of the heart picks up what kind of blood from where?

A

Deoxygenated from the tissues

203
Q

Pulmonary Circuit

A

Blood pumped into the lungs to receive O2

204
Q

Left side of the heart picks up what kind of blood from where?

A

Oxygenated from the lungs

205
Q

Systemic Circuit

A

Blood pumped to the tissues from the lungs.

206
Q

The heart is located in which part of the thoracic cavity?

A

Mediastinum

207
Q

Base of the heart leans where?

A

Toward the right shoulder

208
Q

Apex of the heart points where?

A

Left hip

209
Q

Pericardium

A

Double Walled sac enclosing heart

210
Q

Fibrous Pericardium

A

The superficial layer of the pericardium

211
Q

Parietal Serous Pericardium

A

Lines internal surface of fibrous pericardium

212
Q

Visceral Serous Pericardium (epicardium)

A

On the external surface of the heart

213
Q

Myocardium

A

Spiral bundles of contractile cardiac muscle cells, Connective tissue of cardiac skeleton

214
Q

Endocardium

A

Continuous with endothelial lining of blood vessels

215
Q

Atria

A

Superior chambers, receiving chambers

216
Q

Ventricles

A

Inferior Chambers, Discharging chambers

217
Q

Interatrial Septum

A

Separates atria

218
Q

Interventricular Septum

A

Separates ventricles

219
Q

Valves of the heart

A

Ensure uni-directional flow of blood, Open and close in response to pressure changes

220
Q

Tricuspid Valve

A

Right atrioventricular valve

221
Q

Bicuspid (mitrial) Valve

A

Left atrioventricular valve

222
Q

Chordae Tendinae

A

Collagenous chords anchor cusps of valves to papillary muscles on ventricle walls

223
Q

AV Valves open when ________ pressure is greater than ________ pressure

A

Atrial, Ventricular

224
Q

AV valves close when _________ pressure is greater than _______ pressure.

A

Ventricular, Atrial

225
Q

Semilunar valves

A

Prevent back flow of blood into ventricles

226
Q

Incompetent Valve

A

Blood back flows and heart repumps same blood over and over.

227
Q

Valvular Stenosis

A

Stiff flaps of valves constrict opening heart exerts more force to pump blood.

228
Q

Coronary Circulation

A

Functional blood supply to heart itself

229
Q

Blood is delivered to the coronary circulation when:

A

The heart is relaxed

230
Q

The ________ receives the most blood supply

A

Left Ventricle

231
Q

Arteries arise from the ________

A

Aorta

232
Q

Cardiac Veins

A

Collect blood from capillary beds

233
Q

Angina Pectoris

A

Chest pain caused by deficiency in blood delivery to myocardium, cells weakened.

234
Q

Myocardial Infarction

A

Heart Attack, Prolonged coronary blockage, Areas of cell death repaired with non contractile scar tissue

235
Q

Which circuit is short?

A

Pulmonary Circuit

236
Q

Which circuit is long?

A

Systemic Circuit

237
Q

Pulmonary circuit has ______ pressure.

A

Low

238
Q

Systemic Circuit has _________ friction.

A

High

239
Q

The left ventricle walls are ________ than the right.

A

3x thicker

240
Q

Cardiac muscles are ________, ________, and have many _______.

A

Branched, Striated, Mitochondria

241
Q

Sarcolemma

A

Plasma membrane of a muscle fiber

242
Q

T Tubule

A

Infolding of the sarcoma that helps in communication with organelles

243
Q

Sarcoplasm

A

cytoplasm of a muscle cell

244
Q

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

A

Specialized smooth E.R. Stores intracellular calcium

245
Q

Myofilaments

A

Fibers that slide past each other when muscle contracts

246
Q

Intercalated Disks

A

Junctions between cardiac cells

247
Q

Desmosomes

A

Prevent cells from separating during contraction

248
Q

Gap Junctions

A

Allow ions to pass from cell to cell

249
Q

Functional Syncytium

A

Coordinated Unit

250
Q

______ and _____ allow the heart to be a functional syncytium.

A

Desmosomes and gap junctions

251
Q

Automaticity

A

Self-excitable cells.

252
Q

What kind of cells generate depolarization?

A

Non-Contractile cells

253
Q

Organ Contraction of the Heart

A

All contractile cells contract as a unit or none do

254
Q

Long Absolute Refractory Period

A

Prevents wave summation and tetanus which would stop the pumping action of the heart.

255
Q

Sequence of Events that happen during a Muscle Contraction (Cellular Level)

A

Na channels open with depolarization, Na enters sarcoplasm, Depolarization of membrane opens other Na channels, Na channels close rapidly, Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases Ca, Ca signals muscle filaments to perform a muscle contraction.

256
Q

3 Phases of Cardiac Muscle Contraction

A

Depolarization, Plateau, Repolarization

257
Q

What happens during the Depolarization phase?

A

Na influx, positive feedback opens more Na channels, Channels close.

258
Q

What happens during the Plateau phase?

A

Slow Ca influx keeps the cell depolarized

259
Q

What happens during the Repolarization phase?

A

Ca channels close and K channels open repolarizing the cell membrane. This requires ATP and uses the NaK pump.

260
Q

A ligand channel is where?

A

Around the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

261
Q

How many Na can the NaK pump hold?

A

3

262
Q

How many K can the NaK pump hold?

A

2

263
Q

Cardiac muscle has much more _______ than skeletal muscle.

A

Mitochondria

264
Q

Fuel Sources for Cardiac Muscle

A

Glucose, fatty acid, lactic acid

265
Q

The heart has a great dependence on __________ respiration.

A

Aerobic

266
Q

The heart has little ________ respiration ability.

A

Anaerobic

267
Q

Two Sounds Associated with the Heart:

A

Lub and Dup

268
Q

What happens during the Lub sound in the heart?

A

AV valves close, beginning of systole

269
Q

What happens during the Dup sound in the heart?

A

SL valves close, beginning of ventricular diastole

270
Q

What happens between the Lub and Dup sounds?

A

There is a pause where the heart relaxes.

271
Q

Heart Murmur

A

Abnormal heart sounds, usually indicates incompetent or stenotic valve

272
Q

Cardiac Cycle

A

All events associated with the blood flow during one complete heartbeat.

273
Q

3 phases of the cardiac cycle

A

Ventricular filling, Ventricular Systole, Isometric relaxation

274
Q

What happens during phase 1 of the cardiac cycle?

A

Ventricular Filling: AV valves open, Blood passively flows into low pressure ventricles. Atrial systole leads to end diastolic volume.

275
Q

End Diastolic Volume (EDV)

A

Max volume of blood that ventricles will contain during the cardiac cycle

276
Q

What happens during phase 2 of the cardiac cycle?

A

Ventricular Systole: Atria relax, ventricles contract, rise in ventricular pressure leads to AV valves closing, Ejection phase: ventricular pressure greater than that of arteries, SL valves open, leads to end systolic volume.

277
Q

Ejection Phase

A

Ventricular pressure is greater than that of large arteries, so SL valves open.

278
Q

End Systolic Volume (ESV)

A

Amount of blood remaining in each ventricle after systole.

279
Q

Isovolumetric Contraction Phase

A

When all valves are closed

280
Q

What happens during phase 3 of the cardiac cycle?

A

Isometric Relaxation: Ventricles relax, atria filling, Backflow of blood closes SL valves, When atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure, AV valves open.

281
Q

Dicrotic notch

A

Brief rise in aortic pressure from blood bouncing off closed valve.

282
Q

Cardiac Output

A

Volume of blood pumped by each ventricle in one minute.

283
Q

The equation for cardiac output

A

CO=HRxSV

284
Q

Heart Rate

A

Number of beats per minute

285
Q

Stroke Volume

A

Volume of blood pumped out by one ventricle in each beat.

286
Q

Cardiac Output is measured in:

A

Milliliters per minute

287
Q

Cardiac Reserve

A

Difference between maximal and resting CO. Dependent on cardiovascular health, highly variable among individuals

288
Q

Equation to find Stroke Volume

A

SV=EDV-ESV

289
Q

EDV is affected by:

A

Length of ventricular diastole, venous pressure

290
Q

ESV is affected by:

A

Arterial BP, force of ventricular contraction

291
Q

3 main factors that affect Stroke Volume

A

Preload, Contractility, Afterload

292
Q

Preload

A

Degree of stretch of cardiac muscle before they contract.

293
Q

Frank-Starling Law of the Heart

A

Stroke volume of blood stretches fibers in the heart and makes cardiac muscle contract more forcefully.

294
Q

At rest muscles are ______ than optimal length.

A

Shorter

295
Q

Venous return

A

Amount of blood returning to the heart

296
Q

Most important factor stretching cardiac muscle is:

A

Venous Return

297
Q

Venous Return is increased by:

A

Slow Heartbeat, Exercise

298
Q

Increased Venous Return ______ ventricles and ______ contraction force

A

Stretches, Increases

299
Q

Contractility

A

Contractile strength at given muscle length

300
Q

Increased Contractility is because of these two factors:

A

Sympathetic Stimulation, Positive inotropic agents

301
Q

Positive Inotropic Agents

A

Epinephrine, High extracellular Ca, Thyroxine

302
Q

Negative Inotropic Agents

A

Acidocis, Increased extracellular K, Ca channel blockers

303
Q

Decreased Contractility is because of one factor:

A

Negative Inotropic Agents

304
Q

Afterload

A

Pressure ventricles must overcome to eject blood.

305
Q

Hypertension

A

High Blood Pressure

306
Q

Hypertension increases _________, resulting in increased ________ and decreased ________.

A

Afterload, ESV, SV

307
Q

Positive Chronotropic Factors

A

Increase Heart Rate

308
Q

Negative Chronotropic Factors

A

Decrease Heart Rate

309
Q

When blood volume drops and heart is weakened, how does this affect the SV, CO, and HR?

A

SV drops, CO is maintained by increasing HR.

310
Q

Sympathetic Nervous System

A

Nervous system activated by physical or emotional stressors.

311
Q

Norepinephrine

A

Causes pacemaker to fire more rapidly, increases contractility, faster relaxation

312
Q

Parasympathetic Nervous System

A

Opposes sympathetic nervous system, recovery.

313
Q

Acetylcholine

A

Hyper-polarizes pacemaker cells by opening K channels.

314
Q

Vagal Tone

A

Parasympathetic Nervous System is dominant

315
Q

Chemical Regulation of Heart Rate

A

Hormones, Ion Concentrations

316
Q

Epinephrine

A

Increases heart rate and contractility

317
Q

Thyroxine

A

Increases heart rate and enhances epinephrine

318
Q

Hypocalcemia

A

Low Calcium, Depresses Heart Rate

319
Q

Hypercalcemia

A

High Calcium, Increased HR and Contractility

320
Q

Hyperkalemia

A

High Potassium, Alters electrical activity, Heart block and Cardiac Arrest

321
Q

Hypokalemia

A

Low Potassium, Feeble heartbeat, Arrythmias

322
Q

Other Factors that influence Heart Rate

A

Age, Gender, Exercise, Body Temperature

323
Q

HR _______ when body temperature increases

A

Increases

324
Q

What has the fastest Heart Rate?

A

Fetus

325
Q

What gender has the faster Heart Rate?

A

Females

326
Q

Tachycardia

A

Heart Rate Faster than 100bpm, may lead to fibrillation

327
Q

Bradycardia

A

Heart rate slower than 60bpm, inadequate blood circulation in non-athletes.

328
Q

Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)

A

CO so low that circulation is inadequate to meet tissue needs.

329
Q

What causes Congestive Heart Failure?

A

Coronary Athersclerosis, Hypertension, Multiple Myocardial infarctions, Dialated Cardiomyopathy

330
Q

Coronary Athersclerosis

A

Clogged vessels

331
Q

Dialated Cardiomyopathy (DCM)

A

Ventricles stretch and doesn’t allow them to contract efficiently.

332
Q

Pulmonary Congestions

A

Left Side fails, blood appears in lungs.

333
Q

Peripheral Congestion

A

Right Side fails, blood pools in body tissues/edema

334
Q

Edema

A

Blood pooling in body tissues

335
Q

Human heart begins as _____ instead of 4 chambered heart

A

2 endothelial tubes

336
Q

2 Structures that bypass pulmonary circulation

A

Foramen Ovale, Ductus Arteriosus

337
Q

Foramen Ovale

A

Connects the 2 atria, bypass right ventricle to the lungs, becomes fossa ovalis

338
Q

Ductus Arteriosus

A

Connects Pulmonary Trunk and Aorta, becomes Ligamentum Arteriosum

339
Q

Arteries

A

Carrying blood away from the heart

340
Q

Capillaries

A

Contact tissues, give oxygen and nutrients, exchange of materials

341
Q

Veins

A

Carry blood back towards the heart

342
Q

Tunica Intima

A

Endothelium lines lumen of all vessels, slick surface reduces friction

343
Q

Tunica Media

A

Smooth muscle and sheets of elastin, Thicker in arteries, influence bloodflow and pressure

344
Q

Tunica Externa

A

Thicker in veins, Collagen fibers protect and anchor to surrounding fibers

345
Q

Arterial Vessels from largest to smallest

A

Elastic Arteries, Muscular Arteries, Arterioles

346
Q

Elastic Arteries

A

Large, thick-walled arteries closest to the heart, Large lumen=low resistance, low pressure down stream

347
Q

Muscular Arteries

A

Distal to elastic arteries, Delivery system to organs, Thick tunica media, active in vasoconstriction

348
Q

Arterioles

A

Smalles arteries, Control flow into capillary beds

349
Q

Flow of blood through the arterial system

A

Heart, Elastic Arteries, Muscular Arteries, Arterioles, Capillaries

350
Q

Capillaries

A

Microscopic Vessels, Walls are tunica intima only, Exchange of gasses, nutrients, waste between blood and interstitial fluid.

351
Q

Capillaries from Most to Least Permeable

A

Sinusoid, Fenestrated, Continuous

352
Q

Continuous Capillary

A

Least permeable, most common, found in skin and muscle, Allows fluids and some small solutes

353
Q

Fenestrated Capillary

A

Large fenestrations, increased permeability, larger particles, in areas of absorption In the kidney, and small intestine.

354
Q

Sinusoid Capillary

A

Most Permeable, Large intercellular clefts, allow blood cells and large particles. Found in bone marrow, liver, spleen

355
Q

Capillary Beds

A

Interwoven networks of capillaries that control blood to arterioles and venules.

356
Q

Flow through the capillary bed:

A

Terminal Arteriole, Meta arteriole, Thoroghfare Channel, Post capillary venule

357
Q

Two types of capillary blood vessels

A

Vascular Shunt, True Capillaries

358
Q

Vascular Shunt

A

Directly connects terminal arteriole and Post Capillary Venule

359
Q

True Capillaries

A

Branch of Meta or Terminal Arterioles

360
Q

Precapillary Sphincters

A

Regulates blood flow through capillary bed

361
Q

Venules

A

Formed when capillary beds unite, very porous

362
Q

Veins

A

Form when venules converge, have thinner walls and larger lumens than arteries, Blood pressure lower than arteries

363
Q

Veins hold ______ % of the blood volume

A

60%

364
Q

Veins have 2 adaptations that help blood get back to the heart:

A

Venous Valves, Venous Sinuses

365
Q

Venous Valves

A

Force blood to flow in an unidirectional manner

366
Q

Venous Sinuses

A

Like a funnel that force blood in a unidirectional manner

367
Q

Vascular Anastomoses

A

Interconnection of blood vessels. Alternative channels.

368
Q

What Anastomoses are more common, Arterial or Venous?

A

Venous

369
Q

Blood Flow

A

(ml/min) Volume of blood flowing through something in a period of time

370
Q

Blood Pressure

A

(mm/Hg) Force per unit area exerted on blood vessel wall by blood

371
Q

Resistance

A

Measure of friction blood encounters with vessel walls, generally in systemic circuit.

372
Q

3 Sources of Resistance

A

Blood Viscosity, Vessel Length, Vessel Diameter

373
Q

Blood Viscosity

A

Stickiness, controlled by formed elements

374
Q

We have the most control over what source of resistance?

A

Vessel Diameter

375
Q

Blood flow is directly proportional to _________

A

Pressure

376
Q

Blood flow is inversely proportional to ________

A

Resistance

377
Q

Equation for Flow

A

F=Pressure/Resistance

378
Q

Arterial Blood Pressure: 2 factors

A

Elasticity, Volume of blood forced into arteries

379
Q

Systolic Pressure

A

Pressure exerted into the aorta. Highest pressure 120mm/Hg

380
Q

Diastolic Pressure

A

Lowest Level of aortic pressure 70-80mm/Hg

381
Q

Pulse Pressure

A

Difference between Systolic and Diastolic Pressure

382
Q

Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)

A

Pressure that propels blood to tissues

383
Q

Equation to find MAP

A

MAP=Diastolic+(Pulse/3)

384
Q

Capillary Blood Pressure

A

Low pressure is desirable, High BP would rupture walls, Low Pressure forces filtrate into interstitial spaces

385
Q

Venous Blood Pressure

A

Changes little during cardiac cycle, Low pressure due to peripheral resistance

386
Q

Factors that Aid Venous Return

A

Muscular Pump, Respiratory Pump, Sympathetic Vasocontriction

387
Q

Muscular Pump

A

Skeletal muscles put blood towards the heart and prevent backflow

388
Q

Respiratory Pump

A

Pressure changes during breathing, pumps blood towards the heart

389
Q

Sympathetic Vasoconstriction

A

Constrict venous vessels

390
Q

Main Factors influencing blood pressure

A

Cardiac Output, Peripheral Resistance, Blood Volume

391
Q

Equation for Pressure

A

P =COxR

392
Q

Two Controls used during short term regulation of blood pressure

A

Neural and Hormonal Controls

393
Q

Long Term Regulation of blood pressure is usually because of __________

A

Renal Regulation

394
Q

Neural Control of Blood Pressure Regulation

A

Cardiovascular Center

395
Q

Cardiovascular Center

A

Clusters of sympathetic neurons in brain stem oversee changes in CO and diameter

396
Q

2 Parts of the Cardiovascular Center

A

Cardiac Center, Vasomotor Center

397
Q

Cardiac Center

A

Cardioacceleratory Center and Cardioinhibitory Center, HR Control

398
Q

Vasomotor Center

A

Sends steady impulses to control diameter of vessels

399
Q

Reflex Arcs

A

Alter CO and R

400
Q

Types of Reflex Arcs

A

Baroreceptor, Chemoreceptor, Higher Brain Centers

401
Q

Baroreceptors

A

Aortic Arch, measures pressure, found in major neck arteries as well

402
Q

Chemoreceptors

A

Aortic Arch and major neck arteries, respond to chemical signals, respond to levels of CO2, pH, O2

403
Q

Types of Higher Brain Centers

A

Cerebral Cortex, Hypothalamus, Medulla Oblongata

404
Q

Short Term Hormonal Controls regulate:

A

Peripheral Resistance

405
Q

Short Term Neural Controls alter:

A

Peripheral Resistance and Cardiac Output

406
Q

Epinepherine, Norepinephrine increase

A

Vasoconstriction

407
Q

Kidneys sense blood pressure and generate this hormone:

A

Angiotensin II

408
Q

Angiotensin II increases

A

Vasoconstriction

409
Q

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) increases

A

Vasoconstriction

410
Q

Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) increases

A

Vasodialation

411
Q

ANP comes from which part of the body

A

The heart

412
Q

Long Term Controls alter __________ via ______

A

Blood Volume via Kidneys

413
Q

Direct Renal Mechanism

A

Alters blood volume independently, if increased BP increased filtration and excretion, and vice versa.

414
Q

Indirect Renal Mechanism

A

Hormonal Controls, Angiotensin II, increases blood volume to increase BP by retaining salt and reducing urination

415
Q

Tissue Perfusion

A

Delivery of O2 and nutrients, removal of waste from tissue cells.

416
Q

Velocity of Blood Flow

A

High Velocity through arterial side, slows at capillaries (proper exchange), picks up through venous system

417
Q

Autoregulation

A

Automatic adjustment of blood flow to each tissue relative to it’s requirements

418
Q

2 Short Term Regulation Strategies

A

Metabolic Controls, Myogenic Controls

419
Q

Metabolic Controls of Autoregulation

A

Maintenance of waste, Increases blood flow if build up of waste.

420
Q

Myogenic Controls of Autoregulation

A

Maintenance of pressure into capillaries. Smooth muscle cells in vessels stretch

421
Q

Long Term Autoregulation

A

Angiogenesis

422
Q

Angiogenesis

A

of vessels to region increases and existing vessels enlarge

423
Q

Vasomotion

A

Slow, intermittent flow through capillaries

424
Q

Gasses and Nutrients diffuse ________________

A

Down Concentration Gradient

425
Q

Bulk Flow

A

Fluid leaves capillaries are arterial end, returns to blood at venous end.

426
Q

Direction and Amount of Fluid depend on:

A

Hydrostatic and Osmotic Pressure

427
Q

Hydrostatic Pressure

A

Force of fluid against a barrier

428
Q

Osmotic Pressure

A

Due to non-diffusible solutes, pulls fluid across a boundary

429
Q

Net Filtration Pressure (NFP)

A

Comprises all forces acting on capillary bed

430
Q

Equation to find NFP

A

NFP = (HPc+OPif)-(HPif+OPc)

431
Q

HPc

A

Hydrostatic Pressure of Capillary, out flow

432
Q

OPif

A

Osmotic Pressure of Interstitial fluid, out flow

433
Q

HPif

A

Hydrostatic Pressure of Interstitial Fluid, influx

434
Q

OPc

A

Osmotic Pressure of Capillary, influx

435
Q

Lymphatic System

A

Returns fluid that leaks out of the blood vessels

436
Q

Lymph

A

Fluid in vessels

437
Q

Lymph Nodes

A

Cleanse Lymph

438
Q

Function of Lymphoid Organs and Tissues

A

Protect body from pathogens, house phagocytic cells and lymphocytes

439
Q

Lymph flows ________________

A

One way, towards the heart

440
Q

Lymphatic Vessels from Largest to Smallest

A

Trunks and Ducts, Collecting Lymphatic Vessels, Lymphatic Capillaries

441
Q

Lymphatic Capillaries

A

Blind end, absorb fluid, Endothelial cells overlap, Form one way mini valves, Pathogens travel through body

442
Q

Lymphatic Vessels

A

Pathogens travel through body, return interstitial fluid and leaked plasma protein back into blood. Flows through increasingly larger channels.

443
Q

Lymphatic Collecting Vessels

A

Similar to veins except thinner walls, more internal valves, Anastomose more frequently

444
Q

Lymphatic Trunks

A

Formed by union of lymphatic collecting vessels. Deliver lymph into 2 ducts.

445
Q

2 Big lymphatic ducts

A

Right Lymphatic and Thoracic Duct

446
Q

Lymphatic Ducts

A

Empties lymph into venous circulation

447
Q

Lymph Transport is propelled by:

A

Skeletal Muscle, Valves, Respiration Changes, Pulsation of arteries, Contraction of smooth muscle inside lymphatic walls.

448
Q

T Cells (T Lymphocytes)

A

Manage immune response, attack and destroy infected cells

449
Q

B Cells (B Lymphocytes)

A

Secrete Antibodies

450
Q

Reticular Connective Tissue:

A

Houses and provides proliferation of lymphocytes, Surveillance point for lymphocytes and macrophages

451
Q

Lymph Nodes

A

Clustered along lymphatic vessels, Filter lymph and activate immune system

452
Q

2 functions of lymph nodes

A

Filter Lymph, Activate immune

453
Q

Lymph Nodes have an external _______________

A

Fibrous Capsule

454
Q

Cortex of a Lymph Node

A

Outside portion of the lymph node, contains follicles with germinal centers, Houses T cells

455
Q

Medulla of a Lymph Node

A

Inside Portion of a Lymph Node

456
Q

Germinal Centers

A

House B cells, inside the follicles of the cortex

457
Q

Medullary Cords

A

Extend inward from cortex and contain T and B cells

458
Q

Circulation through Lymph Nodes

A

Enters afferent vessels, fluid forced into interaction by germinal centers, flows into medulla and out efferent vessels

459
Q

Function of the Spleen

A

Lymphocyte proliferation, immune surveillance and response, cleanses blood of aged cells and platelets, macrophages remove debris

460
Q

White Pulp of Spleen

A

Lymphocytes

461
Q

Red Pulp of Spleen

A

RBC’s and everything but lymphocytes

462
Q

Function of Thymus

A

No follicles and No B cells, T lymphocyte maturation, doesn’t directly fight antigens,

463
Q

Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT)

A

Housed in mucous membranes throughout the body.

464
Q

Function of MALT

A

Protects from pathogens.

465
Q

Largest concentrations of MALT

A

Tonsils, Peyer’s Patches, Appendix

466
Q

Tonsils

A

Form a ring around pharynx, gather and remove pathogens in food or air

467
Q

Palatine Tonsils

A

Posterior of Oral Cavity

468
Q

Lingual Tonsils

A

Base of Tongue

469
Q

Pharyngeal Tonsils

A

Posterior of nasopharynx

470
Q

Tonsil Structure

A

Follicles w/ Germinal Centers, Epithelium forms crypts and forces interaction of pathogens.

471
Q

2 Clusters of Lymphoid Follicles

A

Peyer’s Patches and Appendix

472
Q

Peyer’s Patches

A

Small Intestine

473
Q

Appendix

A

Offshoot of large intestine

474
Q

Function of Follicle Clusters

A

Destroy Bacteria, Generate memory lymphocytes

Anatomy and Physiology (7 decks)

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