Lecture 9 2/7/25 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the components of chronic enteropathy treatment?

A

-diet
-microbiome
-vitamin status
-immunosuppression

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2
Q

What can lead to treatment failure when treating chronic enteropathy?

A

-failure to approach all aspects of treatment
-failure to recognize mild improvement

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3
Q

What are the general steps to chronic enteropathy treatment?

A

step 1: empirical deworming and diet trials
step 2: microbiome-directed trials
step 3: GI biopsies
step 4: immunosuppression: corticosteroids +/- second agents

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4
Q

How does food intolerance differ from food hypersensitivity?

A

-food intolerance is non-immunologic
-food hypersensitivity is immunologic

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5
Q

What are the characteristics of patient response to diet trials?

A

-50 to 60% of patients with chronic enteropathy respond to a diet trial
-response typically takes 2 weeks; dermatologic signs and cyclical signs can take longer to see improvement

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6
Q

When are patients more likely to respond to a diet trial?

A

-concurrent atopic dermatitis
-younger age
-normal, hypoechoic bowel mucosa in dogs with chronic diarrhea when assessed via ultrasound

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7
Q

Which factors are NOT reliable predictors of diet trial response?

A

-severity of histologic changes
-degree of bloodwork changes
-serum IgE screens for dietary allergens

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8
Q

How does the treatment for food allergies differ from the treatment for lymphangiectasia?

A

-food allergies require a hypoallergenic elimination diet with either hydrolyzed or novel protein; nothing else should be fed during trial
-lymphangiectasia requires a low-fat diet in addition to hypoallergenic

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9
Q

Which type of diet is preferred for small intestinal dz?

A

highly digestible, low-residue diet or elimination diet

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10
Q

Which type of diet is preferred for large intestinal dz?

A

fiber-enriched diet or elimination diet

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11
Q

Which type of diet is preferred for fat malabsorption?

A

low fat diet

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12
Q

Which type of diet is preferred for dermatological signs?

A

elimination diet that removes pet’s specific allergy

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13
Q

Which aspect of diet is important when a pet shows signs of delayed GI motility?

A

ensuring the diet is low fat

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14
Q

What are the indications for an elimination/hypoallergenic diet trial?

A

-most chronic enteropathies
-chronic large intestinal dz that fails fiber-enriched diet
-concurrent dermatological signs

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15
Q

What is a novel protein diet?

A

diet that introduces a new protein source that the pet has never eaten before

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16
Q

What is a hydrolyzed diet?

A

diet in which the proteins are hydrolyzed to small peptides; intends to “hide” the peptides from the immune system

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17
Q

Which carbohydrate sources are commonly used in novel protein diets?

A

-potatoes/sweet potatoes (dogs)
-green peas (cats)

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18
Q

Why is it important to know whether a pet completing a diet trial has eaten a grain free diet?

A

grain free diets often use potatoes and peas as carbohydrate sources; it is possible for the patient to have an allergy to these, which would persist through the diet trial

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19
Q

Why is it ideal to use a prescription novel protein diet?

A

over the counter diets are more likely to be contaminated; risk exposing pet to food allergen

20
Q

What are the hydrolyzed/elemental diets available?

A

-purina HA; soy based, low fat
-hill’s z/d ULTRA; chicken and soy forms
-rc HP; soy based
-rc Ultamino; chicken based
-purina Elemental; individual amino acids from the start

21
Q

What are the indications for low fat diet trials in dogs?

A

-suspicion of lymphangiectasia
-evidence of fat malabsorption; esp. hypocholesterolemia
-concurrent pancreatitis
-delayed gastric emptying

22
Q

What are the important notes regarding diet trials?

A

-new diet should be transitioned to over 1-2 weeks; abrupt change could worsen or cause clinical signs
-nothing else should be fed during trial, including treats, flavored vitamins, flavored medications, flavored toothpaste, and chew toys

23
Q

Why should a low fat diet NOT be fed to a patient with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?

A

it can lead to fat soluble vitamin deficiencies

24
Q

What are the characteristics of capromorelin?

A

-ghrelin-agonist
-appetite stimulant
-flavored
-side effects include vomiting, diarrhea, and hypersalivation

25
Q

What are the characteristics of mirtazapine?

A

-alpha-2 antagonist
-appetite stimulant
-available as an oral pill or a transdermal ointment
-side effects include vocalization, agitation, vomiting, restlessness, trembling, and hypersalivation

26
Q

What are the characteristics of cyproheptadine?

A

-phenothiazine with anti-serotonin and antihistamine properties
-appetite stimulant for cats
-not commonly used
-side effects include paradoxical activity in cats
-not recommended for use in cats with hepatic lipidosis

27
Q

What are options besides appetite stimulants for patients with decreased appetite?

A

-glucocorticoids; must rule out infectious dz and contraindications first
-nasogastric tube
-esophagostomy tube

28
Q

What are the characteristics of idiopathic dysbiosis?

A

-around 10% of dogs with chronic diarrhea respond to antibiotics
-common in young, large-breed dogs, esp. german shepherds

29
Q

What are the potential etiologies of idiopathic dysbiosis?

A

-enteropathic bacterial infections (uncommon)
-secondary small intestinal bacterial overgrowth

30
Q

What are the characteristics of a probiotic trial for idiopathic dysbiosis?

A

-14 day trial
-ideally want 10-20 billion CFU/kg/day
-probiotics are not created equal; choose best product for patient, goals, budget, etc.

31
Q

What are the characteristics of an antibiotic trial for idiopathic dysbiosis?

A

-only consider after failed response to diet and probiotic trials
-avoid antibiotics in young boxers and french bulldogs
-consider if evidence of dysbiosis on GI trial
-involves a 14-21 day trial of tylosin; may become a lifelong medication

32
Q

Why is metronidazole not used for antibiotic trials in idiopathic dysbiosis?

A

causes shifts in natural microbiome that can take upwards of 4 weeks to return to normal

33
Q

What are the indications for immunosuppressive therapy?

A

-diagnosis of idiopathic inflammatory bowel diseases
-no response to diet trials, deworming, or probiotics/antibiotics and infectious disease should rule out

34
Q

What is important regarding immunosuppressive therapy as a treatment for chronic enteropathy?

A

it should be added to other therapies, not used as sole therapy

35
Q

What are the criteria for diagnosing idiopathic IBD?

A

-documentation of lymphoplasmacytic and/or eosinophilic enteritis
-no response to elimination diet trial, deworming, probiotics, or antibiotics
-responsive to immunosuppressive therapy

36
Q

What are the characteristics of immunosuppressive therapy for IBD?

A

-diet +/- probiotics should be continued
-start with corticosteroid (pred)
-add second agent if response is incomplete
-end goal is to wean corticosteroid down to lowest possible dose or discontinue if possible

37
Q

Why is prednisolone used in cats instead of the prednisone used in dogs?

A

cats have poor conversion of prednisone into prednisolone

38
Q

What should be done prior to starting an animal on prednisone?

A

-rule out large cell lymphoma
-rule out infectious disease
ensure no concurrent bacterial hepatobiliary infections; evaluate liver enzymes

39
Q

What are the characteristics of prednisone dosing?

A

-should use an anti-inflammatory to immunosuppressive dose
-should not exceed 40-50 mg total per dog per day

40
Q

What aer the side effects of corticosteroid use?

A

-PU/PD
-panting
-polyphagia
-muscle wasting
-behavior changes
-possible induction of cALP

41
Q

What are the characteristics of remission with immunosuppressive therapy?

A

-want to see resolution of clinical signs and normalization of blood proteins if PLE
-taper to lowest effective dose over 3 to 4 weeks
-continue diet +/- probiotics long term

42
Q

What are the characteristics of budeonide?

A

-glucocorticoid with high hepatic clearance
-no difference in remission rates or adverse effects compared to prednisone
-used in patients unable to be weaned off steroids; lessens unacceptable corticosteroid side effects

43
Q

What are the indications for second tier immunosuppression?

A

-refractory to glucocorticoids alone
-response seen but with intolerable side effects

44
Q

What are the characteristics of chlorambucil?

A

-alkylating chemotherapy agent
-effective against small cell lymphoma
-main side effect is bone marrow suppression; CBC should be monitored
-can cause Fanconi’s like syndrome in cats; glucosuria, proteinuria

45
Q

What are the characteristics of cyclosporine?

A

-T cell inhibitor
-want to monitor blood conc.
-side effects include vomiting, inappetance, gingival hyperplasia, alopecia, and secondary fungal infections

46
Q

What are the characteristics of azathioprine?

A

-purine analog that inhibits RNA and DNA synthesis
-contraindicated in cats due to impaired detoxification
-side effects include neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, hepatopathy, and pancreatitis