lecture 41 Flashcards

(45 cards)

1
Q

What are some examples of disorders that can be treated with adrenergic agonists and antagonists?

A
  1. hypertension
  2. angina
  3. heart failure
  4. arrhythemia
  5. asthma
  6. migraine
  7. anaphylactic reactions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what body hormone has little affect on B2 receptors?

A

Norepinephrine has little effect on beta2 receptors,
therefore it cannot cause bronchodilation, because
receptors in bronchial smooth muscle are beta2

on the other hand, epinephrine is a potent bronchodilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What receptors are abundant in skin blood vessels

A

alpha 1 receptors

norepinephrine and epinephrine cause constriction of such vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what receptors are found in the smooth muscle of blood vessels in skeletal muscle

A

both alpha 1 and and beta 2

Activation of beta2 receptors causes vasodilation.
Activation of alpha1 receptors causes vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does a low dose of epinephrine do?

A

vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what does a high dose of epinephrine do?

A

vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the three types of adrenergic agonists?

A
  1. direct acting
  2. indirect acting
  3. mixed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the three types of direct acting adrenergic agonists?

A
  1. endogenous catecholamines
  2. Beta adrenergic
  3. alpha adrenergic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the three endogenous catecholamines?

A
  1. epinephrine
  2. norepinephrine
  3. dopamine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the effects of epinephrine?

A

acts as a hormone

Increases heart rate and contractile force (beta 1 effect).

Cardiac output increases: oxygen demand of the
myocardium increases.

Increases renin release (beta 1 effect).

Constricts arterioles in skin and viscera (alpha 1 effect).

Dilates blood vessels of skeletal muscle (beta 2 effect).

Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle (beta 2 effect).

Increases liver glycogenolysis (beta 2 effect).

Increases lipolysis (alpha 1 and beta 2 effect).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does a large dose of epinephrine have on blood pressure?

A

blood pressure is increased

  1. increased venticular contraction
  2. increased heart rate
  3. vasoconstriction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does a small dose of epinephrine have on blood pressure?

A
  1. peripheral resistance decreases
  2. systolic pressure decreases
  3. heart rate increases

no mean increase in bp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the uses of epinephrine?

A
  1. anaphylactic shock
  2. acute asthmatic attack
  3. cardiac arrest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

norepinephrine is an an agonist at what receptors?

A

alpha 1 +2 and beta 1

little effect on beta 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

effects of norepinephrine?

A

Causes peripheral vasoconstriction (α1 effect).

Increases cardiac contractility (β1 effect).

Systemic administration of norepinephrine
increases peripheral vascular resistance, systolic
blood pressure and diastolic blood pressure.

The increase in blood pressure stimulates
baroreceptors leading to reflex bradycardia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is use for norepinephrine?

A

to treat shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the baroreceptor response to increased blood pressure?

A

stimulates the parasympathetic activity and inhibits the sympathetic activity

decrease heart rate and decrease force of contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the baroreceptors response to decreased blood pressure?

A

inhibits parasympathetic and activates sympathetic

increased heart rate and increased force of contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

isoproterenol

A

non selective beta 1 and 2 adrenergic agonist

20
Q

the use of isoproterenol?

A

Isoproterenol may be used in emergencies to
stimulate heart rate in patients with bradycardia
or heart block.

21
Q

Dobutamine

A

beta 1 selective adrenergic agonist

given by IV

22
Q

uses for dobutamine?

A

Management of acute heart failure.

Management of cardiogenic shock.

23
Q

albuterol

A

beta 2 adrenergic agonist

24
Q

uses for albuterol

A

Causes bronchodilation (beta 2 effect).

Used in asthma.

DOC for acute asthma attacks

25
what is phenylephrine and what is it used for?
alpha 1 selective adrenergic agonist causes vasoconstriction use: Nasal decongestant. Given orally or topically. Mydriatic.
26
What is clonidine and what is it used for?
partial alpha 2 adrenergic selective agonist centrally acting anti-hypertensive
27
What are the two indirect acting adrenergic agonists (releasing agents)?
1. amphetamine | 2. tyramine
28
What is amphetamine and what is it used for?
Has central stimulatory action. Can increase blood pressure by alpha-agonist action on vasculature as well as beta-stimulatory effects on heart. USES • ADHD • Narcolepsy
29
Where is tyramine found?
found in fermented foods such as cheese and wine MAO inhibitor = antidepressant
30
What is an uptake inhibitor (indirect acting adrenergic agonist)
cocaine blocks the reuptake of monoamines leads to monoamine accumulation in the synapse
31
what are the two mixed acting adrenergic agonists?
ephedrine and pseudoephedrine
32
What is ephedrine and what is it used for?
Not a catecholamine poor substrate for COMT and MAO  long duration. Penetrates the CNS. USES Used as a pressor agent, particularly during spinal anesthesia.
33
What is pseudoephedrine used for?
decongestant
34
What are the three types of adrenergic antagonists?
1. alpha 2. beta 3. partial
35
what are the two kinds of alpha adrenergic antagonists?
1. non-selective alpha | 2. alpha 1 selective
36
what are the two kinds of beta adrenergic antagonists?
1. nonselective beta | 2. beta 1 selective
37
What are two non-selective alpha adrenergic blockers?
1. phenoxybenzamine | 2. phentolamine
38
what is phenoxybenzamine and what is it used for?
Irreversible antagonist at alpha 1 and alpha 2 receptors. Unsuccessful for hypertension. USES Used in Pheochromocytoma: Prior to surgical removal of the tumor.
39
what is phentolamine and what is it used for?
Reversibly antagonist at alpha 1 and alpha 2 receptors. USES Pheochromocytoma: control of hypertension during preoperative preparation and surgical excision. Hypertensive crisis due to stimulant drug overdose
40
what is prazosin and what is its uses?
selective blocker of alpha 1 adrenergic receptors lowers blood pressure uses: used for the treatment of hypertension BUT is not the drug of choice BPH: benign prostatic hyperplasia DOC for symptom relief improve urinary flow
41
what are the effects of beta blockers?
Slow heart rate and decrease myocardial contractility (b1 effect). Blockade of b2 receptors in the lungs can cause respiratory crisis in patients with COPD or asthma. lower Glycogenolysis (b2 effect) lower Glucagon secretion (b2 effect)
42
What are the uses of adrenergic beta blockers
``` Hypertension Stable Angina Pectoris Myocardial Infarction Atrial Fibrillation Hyperthyroidism Glaucoma Migraine prophylaxis Performance Anxiety (“Stage Fright”) ```
43
atenolol description and uses?
beta 1 adrenergic blocker Useful in hypertensive patients with impaired pulmonary function. Useful in diabetic hypertensive patients.
44
What are the adverse effects of using adrenergic beta blockers?
bronchoconstriction hypoglycemia ``` CNS: sedation dizziness lethargy fatigue ```
45
what is pindolol and what is it used for?
It is a partial beta agonist (adenergic) May be preferred in individuals with diminished cardiac reserve or a propensity to bradycardia.