Lecture 19 Respiratory Infections Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Rebecca Lancefield

A

Demonstrated that streptococci can be clasified based on cell wall carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Rebecca Lancefield discovered ______ protein on streptococcus pyogenes

A

M protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Upper respiratory tract

A

head and neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Lower respiratory tract

A

Chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the parts of the upper respiratory tract

A

Nose, nasal cavity, pharynx, epiglottis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

in URT, ______ cells produce mucus

A

Goblet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

______ propels mucus, trapped particles away from lungs

A

Mucociliary escalator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

______ are lymphoid organs that come into contact with microbes entering URT

A

Tonsils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Approx 30% of healthy people carry

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Corynebacterium characteristics

A

Pleomorphic, gram positive rod, non-motile, club-shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Haemophilus characteristics

A

Small, gram negative rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Staphylococcus characteristics

A

Gram positive cocci in clusters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Streptococcus characteristics

A

Gram positive cocci in chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

tears are rich in ______ and ______

A

Lysozyme, secretory IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

External ear is protected by

A

Cerumen (ear wax)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Infection in middle ear occurs in

A

Otitis media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Inner ear is ______

A

microbe-free

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What happens to throat in streptococcal pharyngitis

A

Red with patches of pus, tiny hemorrhages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

causative agent of streptococcal pharyngitis

A

Strep. pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Strep pyogenes result on blood agar

A

Beta hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the lancefield group of strep. pyogenes

A

Group A strep (GAS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

GAS is distinguished by

A

M protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

in S. pyogenes, ______ acts as adhesin
______ adheres to fibrin of epithelial cell
protein ______ binds to ______ region of ______

A

M protein
Protein F
Protein G, Gc region, IgG antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

______ breaks down tissue of throat in S. pyogenes

A

DNase, hyaluronidase, proteases

streptokinase breaks blood clots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A few strains of S. pyogenes produce ______ which leads to a high fever

A

Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins (SPEs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

______ prevents opsonization via C3b

A

M protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

______ is an Fc receptor, binds to IgG, prevents IgG mediated phagocytosis

A

Protein G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

C5a peptidase

A

Inhibits recruitment of phagocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

______ make holes in membanes of erythrocytes and leukocytes, yields Beta hemolysis

A

Streptolysins O and S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hyaluronic acid capsule

A

Interferes with phagocytosis by causing inactivation of C3b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

S. pyogenes only infects ________

A

hhumans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How is S. pyogenes spread

A

respiratory droplets, contaminated food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

S. pyogenes can be a source of ________ infections

A

healthcare associated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How is S. pyogenes treated

A

penicillin prevents post-strep sequelae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is post-streptococcal sequelae

A

Complications after strep infections, results from autoreactive immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Acute rheumatic fever can begin________

A

3 weeks after recovery from step

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

________ are involved with susceptibility of acute rheumatic fever

A

MHC class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

ACute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis causes

A

Fever, fluid retention, high BP, blood and protein in urine… KIDNEY failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Sign and symptoms of strep. sequelae

A

sore red throat
pus and tiny hemorrhages
enlargement of lymph nodes in neck
rheumatic fever
glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Incubation period of strep. sequelae

A

2 to 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Causative agent of strep. sequelae

A

S. pyogenes, lancefield group A
Beta hemolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Epidemiology of strep. sequelae

A

Direct contact, droplet infection, ingestion of contaminated food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

causative agent of diptheria

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Shape of corynebacterium

A

Pleomorphic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Motility of corynebacterium

A

non motile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

gram rxn of corynebacterium

A

gram positive rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

C. Diptheria releases

A

diphtheria toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

C. diptheria is isolated on what medium

A

Selective and differential
contains potassium-tellurite
also grown on Loeffler’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Symptoms of C. diptheria

A

Mild sore throat, slight fever, extreme fatigue, malaise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

C. diphtheria causes formation of ________ on tonsils, throat, nasal cavity

A

Pseudomembrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Diptheria results from

A

Exotoxin absorbed into bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

in diptheria, ________ attaches to cell receptors, entire molecule is taken up by endocytosis

A

B subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

________ catalyzes reaction covalent modification of cellular factor 2 required for movement of ribosome on mRNA

A

A subunit, ADP-ribosyl-transferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

in diptheria, ________ are reservoir

A

humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How is diptheria spread

A

by air, inhalation or from fomites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Cutaneous diptheria

A

Caused from touching or handling infected materials from carrier to patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Treatment of Diptheria

A

injection of antiserum to toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Incubation period of C. diptheria

A

2 to 6 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

For lower respiratory tract infections, location is usually ________

A

sterile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Parts of LRT

A

larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What happens in pneumonia

A

Alveoli fill with fluids like pus and blood

62
Q

Pneumonia is an inflammatory response to ________

A

microbial infection

63
Q

What is the leading cause of death due to infection

A

Pneumonia

64
Q

Symptoms of pneumonia

A

Cough, chills, SOB, fever, chest pain, cyanosis

65
Q

in pneumonia, ________ comes up from lungs

A

sputum

66
Q

Pneumonia is caused by opportunists when ________ is compromised

A

Mucociliary escalator

67
Q

Pneumonia may affect ________ in pleura, causing pain

A

Nerve endings

68
Q

________ collects in alveoli in pneumonia

A

Fluids, leukocytes, mucus

69
Q

Causative agent of pneumonia

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

70
Q

Gram rxn of S. pneumoniae

A

Gram positive diplococci

71
Q

for S. pneumoniae, ________ is responsible for virulence

A

Thick polysaccharide

72
Q

Incubation period of pneumococcal pneumoniae

A

1 to 3 days

73
Q

________ accounts for 60% of adult community acquired pneumonia requiring hospitalization

A

Pneumococcal pneumonia

74
Q

Symptoms of pneumococcal pneumonia

A

cough, fever, chest pain, sputum production

75
Q

for pneumococcal pneumonia, ________ interferes with C3b of complement system, blocks phagocytosis

A

PspA, pneumococcal surface protein

76
Q

________ damages ciliated epithelium

A

pneumolysin

77
Q

pneumococci may enter ________, lead to sepsis of blood, endocarditis, meningitis

A

blood stream

78
Q

There is an increased of pneumococcal pneumonia during ________

A

Influenza A infection

79
Q

Treatment of pneumococcal pneumonia

A

Penicillin

80
Q

________ strains of S. pneumonia is the causative agent of pneumococcal pneumoniae

A

Encapsulated

81
Q

Causative agent of pertussis

A

Bordtella pertussis

82
Q

Gram rxn of B. pertussis

A

Gram negative rod

83
Q

When bacteria are inhaled of pertussis, they ________

A

attach to ciliated cells of epithelium

84
Q

Pertussis can lead to small areas of ________

A

collapsed lung

85
Q

decreased ________ results in severe cough in pertussis

A

Ciliary action

86
Q

________ toxins are released in pertussis

A

three

87
Q

Stages of pertussis

A

Catarrhal
Paraxoysmal
convalescent

88
Q

Catarrhal stage

A

inflammation of mucous membrane

89
Q

What happens in catarrhal stage

A

1 to 2 weeks of signs resembling UR infection

90
Q

Paroxysmal

A

Repeated, sudden attacks
Whoop sound of forced inhalation

91
Q

Convalescent stage

A

Recovery
not contagious, coughing decreases

92
Q

pertussis toxin is ________ toxin

A

A-B

93
Q

What does pertussis toxin do?

A

B attaches to cellular receptors
A moves through cytoplasmic membrane

94
Q

Pertussis toxin icnreases ________

A

cAMP

95
Q

Adenylate cyclase toxin

A

Lyses leukocytes, catalyzes ATP conversion to cAMP

96
Q

Tracheal cytotoxin

A

Causes release of fever-inducing interleukin-1
Toxic to ciliated epithelial cells

97
Q

Epidemiology of pertussis

A

Highly contagious

98
Q

Treatment of pertussis

A

Macrolides during catarrhal stage
intensive support therapy
prevented with DTap

99
Q

Incubation period of pertussis

A

1 to 2 weeks

100
Q

Tuberculosis causative agent

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

101
Q

Initial infection of tuberculosis by M. tuberculosis is usually ________

A

asymptomatic

102
Q

M. tuberculosis yields ________

A

Latent tuberculosis infection LTBI

103
Q

LTBI may later develop into

A

tuberculosis disease

104
Q

TB primarily infects ________

A

lungs

105
Q

Shape of M. tubercuolsis

A

Rod shaped bacteria

106
Q

How does tuberculosis infection start

A

airborne cells inhaled into lung

107
Q

Pathogenesis of TB

A

alvelolar macrophate engulfs airborne cells
lympocytes wall off infected area
granuloma forms (tubercles)
effector helper T cells release cytokines

108
Q

in TB, after infection, ________ forms around macrophage, keeps lymphocyte out of tubercle

A

Fibrous layer

109
Q

Ghon foci

A

Fibrous layer calcifies in adjacent lymph nodes

110
Q

in TB, tubercle ________ after macrophage in tubercle dies

A

ruptures, spreads bacteria in lungs

111
Q

How is TB identified

A

Tuberculin skin test, blood test

112
Q

Treatment of TB

A

multiple drugs over a long period of time
combination therapy

113
Q

What vaccine is used against TB

A

BCG, but it is discouraged because it causes positive tuberculin test

114
Q

Causative agent of legionellosis

A

Legionella pneumophila

115
Q

Gram rxn of L. pneumophila

A

Gram negative rod, fastidious

116
Q

Symptoms of L. pneumophila

A

Headache, muscle aches, high fever, confusion, shaking chills

117
Q

How is legionellosis acquired

A

Inhaling aerosolized water with organism

118
Q

MIP

A

Macrophage invasion potentiator

119
Q

How does bacteria survive in legionellosis

A

by preventing phagosome-lysosome fusion, multiple within macrophages

120
Q

Epidemiology of legionellosis

A

widespread in warm, natural waters with protozoa

121
Q

There is no ________ spread for legionellosis

A

Direct person to person

122
Q

treatment of legionellosis

A

appropriate antibiotic that produces B-lactamase

some patients need O2 therapy

123
Q

incubation period of legionellosis

A

2 to 10 days

124
Q

pathogenesis of legionellosis causes ________ of cells lining alveoli

A

Necrosis

125
Q

causative agent of influenza

A

Influenza A, member of orthomyxoviridae

126
Q

Influenza A is an ________ virus with ________ segments of single stranded, negative RNA

A

enveloped, 8

127
Q

Which type of flu is most serious

A

Influenza A

128
Q

Incubation period of influenza

A

2 days

129
Q

Influenza does NOT cause

A

Vomiting and diarrhea,
different from stomach flu

130
Q

How is influenza contracted

A

inhalation of aerosolized secretions or from contaminated fomites

131
Q

in influenza, virion is attached by ________ to respiratory epithelial cells, enters by endocytosis

A

HA spikes

132
Q

Epidemiology of influenza A

A

only a small percent of cases are fatal
Antigenic drift is responsible for seasonal flu

133
Q

Treatment of Influenza A

A

antiviral medications like neuraminidase inhibitors

134
Q

RSV infects ________

A

Lower respiratory tract

135
Q

Incubation period of RSV

A

1 to 4 days

136
Q

RSV causes ________, high-pitched cough and noisy inhalation from airway obstruction

A

croup

137
Q

Causative agent of RSV

A

enveloped, ss RNA
Pneumoviridae

138
Q

pneumoviridae causes cells in culture to fuse into v

A

Syncytia

139
Q

how is RSV contracted

A

inhalation, replicates nasopharynx

140
Q

Where does RSV replicate

A

in nasopharynx

141
Q

When is RSV common

A

Late fall, early spring

142
Q

Treatment for RSV

A

no antivirals
no vaccine

143
Q

incubation period of RSV

A

1 to 4 days

144
Q

Hantavirus symtoms

A

fever, fatigue, muscle aches

145
Q

hantavirus incubation period

A

7 days to 8 weeks

146
Q

Causative agent of hantavirus

A

Sin nombre virus (SNV)

147
Q

SNV genome consists of how many segments of ss RNA?

A

3

148
Q

How is hantavirus contracted

A

Inhalation of airborne dust contaminated with urine, feces, saliva of infected rodents

149
Q

Pathogenesis of hantavirus

A

Viral antigen localizes in capillary walls in lungs

150
Q

Epidemiology of hantavirus

A

Zoonosis

151
Q

Treatment of hantavirus

A

no treatment