Lecture 15: Vaccination Flashcards

1
Q

From where was the first smallpox vaccine derived?

A

Dried pustules collected from individuals with mild cases were used to scratch the vaccine recipient to induce a small infection (that killed you 1% (?) of the time)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why did Jenner’s cowpox vaccine work against smallpox?

A

Common surface antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe how a cowpox vaccine protects from smallpox.

A

Antibodies are developed against the surface antigens on cowpox; because some of the smallpox surface antigens are (luckily) the same as cowpox antigens, the produced antibodies bind/neutralize smallpox virus

It Is CROSS-REACTIVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why is it freaking scary that terrorists could use smallpox for biowarfare?

A

People under ~42 have not received immunizations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does a killed subunit/toxoid vaccine protect?

A

Ab are produced against the deactivated toxin; if pathogen encountered, toxin neutralized by the produced antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Type of vaccine: diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis

A

Kill subunits and toxoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Type of vaccine: polio

A

Whole killed virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Type of vaccine: MMR

A

live attenuated virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Type of vaccine: pneumococcal conjugate

A

heptavalent/diphtheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Type of vaccine: Hoemophilus B conjugate

A

diphtheria protein conjugate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Type of vaccine: Hepatitis B

A

Subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Type of vaccine: Varicella (chickenpox)

A

Live attenuated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Type of vaccine: Rotavirus

A

Live attenuated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Type of vaccine: Influenza

A

Killed or live attenuated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Type of vaccine: Meningococcus C

A

Conjugated capsule subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Type of vaccine: HPV

A

Gardasil: virus like particle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What type of vaccine will elicit an APC/CD8 T cell response?

A

Attenuated live virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Type of vaccine: TB

A

attenuated bovine mycobacterium tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does the TB vaccine work?

A

The attenuated mycobacterium elicits a TH1 and macrophage response necessary to contain infections via granulomas AND an Ab response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why are attenuated vaccines risky?

A

If not perfect, they can induce infection

aka it can result in an “iatrogenic” disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why won’t the purified capsular polysaccharide require a carrier protein?

A

Protein is needed to activate effector T cells and to supply 2nd signal to polysaccharide B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are some practical considerations for vaccines?

A

Cost, side effects, ease of administration, biological stability (ex: a vaccine that must be kept cold in the desert)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Important features of a good vaccine

A

Most important = protective, safety, long term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What immune cells/features are induced by a good vaccine?

A

Neutralizing Ab and protective T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Goal of vaccination
To trick the immune system to respond to the vaccine as if it were a pathogen
26
Why is the amount/route of exposure a difficult barrier for vaccination?
Providing a dose of vaccine that is similar to what would be physiologic
27
Dose threshold
Dose of antigen correlates with antibody response (for a primary response); too little does not elicit an Ab response, too much starts to show a decline in Ab response
28
Immune response to a low dose of antigen
No Ab response, too low antigen to be perceived as a thread
29
Immune response to an excessively high dose of antigen
Decreased Ab response, the body assumes the antigen could be from food so the immune system tolerates
30
How does the secondary response to an immunization relate to the primary response?
High and low doses tolerize, but intermediate doses result in a large antibody response
31
When administering a drug parenterally, you will get what response?
Systemic ONLY
32
Most effective (common) vaccine route?
Subcutaneous (then IP>IM>IV)
33
What would be a preferable vaccine: a mucosal route vaccine or a subcut vaccine?
Mucosal--mucosal AND systemic response
34
What is the goal of a vaccine for an extracellular pathogen?
The substance will be endocytosed and presented on MHC II
35
How does a vaccine bypass tolerance mechanisms of immune system?
Supplying "danger signals" or PAMPs -> upreg B7 (need B7 to elicit T cell response)
36
What is upregulated as a result of provided Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns?
B7 (macrophages and dendritic cells)
37
What is the result of an absent co-stimulation signal to T cells?
Tolerance, T cell anergy (no future protection from vaccine)
38
What happens if a T cell receives only signaling through its CD28?
Nada
39
T/F: An immune response to any parts of a pathogen ensure protective immunity.
F (requires PROTECTIVE determinants)
40
What are the two broad classifications of vaccines?
Whole pathogen and subunit
41
Co-administered substance that enhances the adaptive immune response to a vaccine's immunogen
Adjuvant
42
Why is Freund's used in animal models?
Too toxic for humans
43
How does alum work?
Delays release of antigen and enhances uptake by macrophages
44
Lipid micelle (liposome) that delivers antigen to cytosol, inducing CTL's
ISCOMs
45
Why is a slow-release "paste" injected?
The paste/depot releases/metabolizes slowly so the antigen exposure is continuous, allowing better macrophage uptake
46
What is the function of dead pathogen in Freund's complete or alum?
Serves as a ligand for PRR, thus upregulating B7
47
Why is only Freud's incomplete used after the primary vaccination?
Large inflammatory T cell response ad ulceration will occur site of injection if the mycobacterium is readministered
48
Adjuvant used if a CD8 response is needed
ISCOMs
49
Liposome is a stable _____ vesicle comprised of ______ of phospholipids.
closed, single bilayer
50
How does a liposome containing antigen function in immunity?
Liposome dumps its contents into cytoplasm; the antigen is then broken down by proteosomes and presented on MHC I
51
What type of antigen must a liposome contain?
Peptide
52
Type of adjuvants that induce mucosal responses
Bacterial toxins
53
What is the downside to the adjuvants used to induce mucosal responses?
They are inherently toxic, and we've been unable to separate the toxicity from the adjuvanticity
54
Attenuated pathogen will ____ but will not _____ within the host
grow; cause infection
55
Attenuated viruses are more effective because (compared to physiologic conditions)
Antigen is in the appropriate location and there is an appropriate amount (which produces cytokine signaling)
56
What is "wrong" with using a dead pathogen?
It is hard to mimic a natural infection (especially cytokines)
57
Explain how an attenuated virus (for human use) is developed.
Using recombinant DNA, the virulence gene is either mutated or deleted; yields an avirulent virus and a good vaccine if the protective determinant is intact Develop in another organism, no longer suited for human
58
The exchange of pieces of a segmented genome
antigenic shift
59
High mutation rate, yielding immunologically distinct serotypes
antigenic drift
60
What feature of the flu and rotavirus allow neutralization via antibodies?
their envelope glycoproteins
61
Attenuated human rotavirus, expresses VP4 and VP7
rotarix
62
Mixture of rotavirus strains that are noninfectious to humans but have been engineered to express common human variants of VP4 and VP7
rotateq
63
DNA vaccine
Recombinant plasma DNA that encodes structural proteins is administered either IM or intranasally; cells uptake DNA and transcrible/translate if promoter region works
64
Exogenous administration of what cytokine induces a TH1 response?
IL12
65
Cytokines can _____ and ______ the immune response
Increase, shape
66
T/F: The amount of cytokine to produced is easily controllable, making this a realistic vaccine method.
False
67
What are examples of mucosal adjuvants?
cholera toxin heat labile E. coli toxin pertussis toxin
68
What is an iatrogenic disease?
disease caused by medical treatment (i.e. live attenuated virus that re-gains virulence)
69
There are ___ known serotypes of Rotovirus, but ___ of them are responsible for 90% of morbidity/mortality. (diarrhea)
42; 5
70
What is the significance of administering tumor cells that have been transfected with B7 molecules?
immune system will recognize similar tumor cells in the body as foreign and kill tumor the tumor. B7 is needed to prevent anergy (as anti-cancer treatment... i assume...)
71
Why is it important to have a vaccine elicit a mucosal response?
bc many pathogens gain access to the body via mucosal layers (GI, respiratory, UG)