Direct Testing Flashcards

1
Q

Why does the common test for cystic fibrosis have only an 85% accuracy rate?

A

Allelic heterogeneity; this tests for the common mutations that account for 85% of cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the goal of direct testing?

A

Determine the genotype for 1 or more specific mutations or susceptibility alleles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

“Direct testing has high analytic validity for”…

A

the specific alleles being assayed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does direct testing work?

A

Oligonucleotides specific for the mutation are used to determine patients’ genotype:

–Only perfect hybrids are detected (due to the mutation, the abnormal DNA and the normal oligonucleotide will not pair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are 3 types of direct testing explained in class?

A
  1. Single gene mutation (example-factor V leiden)
  2. Mutation panel–screen for the various genotypic mutations associated with a phenotype (such as the 23 common cystic fibrosis mutations)
  3. Gene panel–screen for multiple genes associated with a phenotype (such as screening for factor V leiden and prothrombin2010 in patients with hypercoagulability)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T/F: Direct testing is often not very specific for the alleles that are tested.

A

F–It is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T/F: Direct testing is unable to determine if a person is homozygous or heterozygous for the allele.

A

F–It can (PCR fluorescence testing) (specific primers for specific alleles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Direct testing (with PCR) depends on _____ _____ of the oligonucleotide and patient DNA.

A

Perfect complementarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T/F: Allele specific primers can detect differences in one base pair.

A

T: they won’t anneal correctly (she calls it “single base discretion”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A trinucleotide repeat disorder is direct tested based on:

A

allele sizing

PCR product will vary in size based on repeat copy number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe PCR testing for a trinucleotide repeat disorder.

A
  1. Gene-specific primers anneal to areas flanking the repeat regions
  2. PCR amplification occurs across the repeat region
  3. PCR products are separated based on size (thus based on number of repeats)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What disease is associated with the trinucleotide repeat sequence “CGG”?

A

Fragile X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What disease is associated with the trinucleotide repeat sequence “CAG”?

A

Huntington

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What may be observed in families, which appears to be related to the size of a trinucleotide repeat?

A

Anticipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When using PCR to analyze a pedigree, what feature of the Huntington allele is being studied?

A

The degree of expansion of trinucleotide repeat region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is notable about the interpretation of results in genetic test reports?

A

They are interpreted in standardized nomenclature

17
Q

Primary uses of direct testing (2):

A
  1. Limited allelic heterogeneity

2. Defined mutation panel

18
Q

Advantages of direct testing: (2)

A
  1. Very accurate

2. Reasonable cost

19
Q

Limitations of direct testing:

A

Information limited to specific alleles tested

(This is an implication of allelic heterogeneity–in other words: an obligate carrier of CF with a negative test result will STILL be an obligate carrier)

20
Q

Disorders in which a gene contains tandem repeats of 3 bp.

A

Trinucleotide repeat expansion disorders

21
Q

Most common form of inherited mental retardation

A

Fragile X

22
Q

Disorder in which a 3bp expansion in the 5’ untranslated region of FMR1 gene interferes with its expression

A

Fragile X

23
Q

What shuts down gene expression in Fragile X?

A

Methylation associated with expansion

24
Q

2 minor phenotypic abnormalities that are often present in premutation carriers of Fragile X?

A
  1. premature ovarian failure

2. fraX associated tremor/ataxia syndrome

25
Q

2 Types of trinucleotide repeat disorders?

A
  1. expansions in noncoding regions that interfere with normal gene expression
  2. expansions of polyglutamine tracts in coding sequences
26
Q

What category of trinucleotide repeat disorder is associated with a loss of function?

A

expansions in noncoding regions that interfere with normal gene expression

27
Q

What category of trinucleotide repeat disorder is associated with a gain of function? What is this symptom?

A
  • expansions of polyglutamine tracts in coding sequences

- neuronal degeneration

28
Q

Disorder caused by an expansion in the 3’ UTR in DMPK gene which disrupts normal splicing of other genes

A

Myotonic dystrophy

29
Q

Disorder in which expansion of polyglutamine tract produces proteins which form toxic aggregates

A

Huntington’s disease

30
Q

Autosomal dominant adult onset neurodegenerative disorder.

A

Huntington’s disease

31
Q

What is the result of meiotic instability?

A

Continued expansion of TNR’s

32
Q

What is associated with increasing trinucleotide repeats numbers?

A

Earlier age of onset (anticipation)

33
Q

What is anticipation?

A

progressively earlier age of onset with increased severity in successive generations

34
Q

What causes anticipation?

A

successive increase in copy number

35
Q

T/f: In premutation carriers, there is calculable a risk of expansion.

A

T (apparently; it’s shown in %)

36
Q

What are 2 likely mechanisms for trinucleotide repeat expansion?

A
  1. strand slippage

2. altered DNA conformation during replication

37
Q

Huntington’s is more unstable in (male/female) meiosis.

A

Male

38
Q

Fragile X is more unstable in (male/female) meiosis.

A

Female

39
Q

What is a possible result of minor instability in trinucleotide repeat expansions during MITOSIS?

A

somatic mosaicism