Lecture 14 Flashcards

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1
Q

• What are five different defenses of the skin?

A

“SHEDDING” as a mechanical defense: Millions of cells of the stratum corneum slough off daily, taking microorganisms with them

ANTIMICROBIAL PEPTIDES
Positively charged peptides that act by disrupting the negatively charged membranes of bacteria
Play a major role in keeping the microbial count on the skin relatively low
SEBUM: oily substance secreted by sebaceous glands
Low pH can be inhibitory to many microorganisms
Lipids in sebum serve as nutrients to normal microbiota
Toxic byproducts of fatty acid metabolism inhibit the growth of microorganisms not adapted to the skin environment
SWEAT
Inhibitory to microorganisms due to low pH and high salt concentration
LYSOZOME: Enzyme found in sweat, tears, saliva
Breaks down peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls (breaks bonds between sugars in the glycan chains)

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2
Q

• What are four major genera that are components of the normal skin microbiota? For each of these covered in class: are they Gram positive or negative, to which phylum do they belong, what is their relationship to oxygen, and what is an example of each that is pathogenic?

A

Streptococcus (Phylum Firmicutes; Gram +)
Aerotolerant anaerobe (“lactic acid bacteria”)
Homofermentative – lactic acid as sole product
Genus includes the pathogens S. pneumoniae, S. pyogenes

Propionibacterium (Phylum Actinobacteria; Gram +)
Facultative or aerotolerant anaerobes
Live in follicles, pores; ferment sebum, acids, carbs
P. acnes is implicated in acne

Staphylococcus (Phylum Firmicutes; Gram +)
Facultative anaerobe (fermentation)
Commensals (S. epidermidis) and pathogens (S. aureus)

Corynebacterium (Actinobacteria; Gram +)
Obligately aerobic or facultatively anaerobic
Includes the pathogen C. diphtheriae, cause of diptheria

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3
Q

• What are the signs, symptoms, and causative agent of the macropapular disease measles? Know that many fatalities are due to secondary infections, such as pneumonia.

A

.Sore throat, dry cough, headache, fever, conjunctivitis (inflammation of the conjunctiva, or outer layer of eye), lymphadenitis (enlargement of lymph nodes)
Red, maculopapular exanthem (widespread rash) that erupts on the head and progresses to the trunk and extremities

Causative Agent: Measles virus
Genus Morbillivirus, family Paramyxovirus
Enveloped, single-stranded RNA virus

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4
Q

• What are some differences between measles and rubella?

A

There are two “forms” of measles: rubeola (the “ordinary” kind), which causes more serious symptoms and can do permanent damage, and rubella (“German” measles), which is very benign if you have it as a child or an adult but can induce severe birth defects in womem infected early in pregnancy. Aside from some similarity in symptoms, there isn’t much in common betwen the two viruses.

Measles (also known as rubeola)
Sore throat, dry cough, headache, fever, conjunctivitis (inflammation of the conjunctiva, or outer layer of eye), lymphadenitis (enlargement of lymph nodes)

Red, maculopapular exanthem (widespread rash) that erupts on the head and progresses to the trunk and extremities

Rubella
Latin for “little red”, also known as German measles
Relatively minor rash disease with few complications
Teratogenic: causes harm to the fetus
Virus is transmitted from the mother to fetus in utero, even if the mother is asymptomatic
Infection in the first trimester can result in miscarriage or multiple permanent defects
Most common defect is deafness, but cardiac abnormalities, ocular lesions, and mental and physical retardation can occur in varying combinations

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5
Q

• What are the target microbes/diseases of the MMR vaccine, and what type of vaccine is this?

A

MMR (mumps, measles, rubella) vaccine contains live, attenuated measles virus that confers protection for up to 20 years

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6
Q

• What is the main sign of impetigo, and what are the main two causative agents of this disease?

A

Superficial bacterial infection that causes the skin to flake or peel
Staphylococcus au or Streptococcus

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7
Q

• Which of these causative agents is important in initiating the disease, and which of them typically causes the disease in newborns?

A

S. pyogenes begins all cases of the disease, but later S. aureus takes over and produces a bacteriocin that destroys S. pyogenes

S. pyogenes is more often the cause of impetigo in newborns; S. aureus is more often the cause of impetigo in older children

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8
Q

• What are some of the important virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus in impetigo, and how do they function?

A

Exfoliative toxins A and B:
Coded for by a phage that infects some strains of S. aureus
Attack a protein important in cell-to-cell binding in the epithelium
Leads to characteristic blistering
Breakdown of skin architecture facilitates spread of the bacterium

Coagulase:
Coagulates plasma
Helps pathogen evade immune system
97% of all human isolates produce this enzyme; considered diagnostic of the species

Hyaluronidase:
Digests the intracellular “glue” (hyaluronic acid) that binds connective tissue in host tissues

Staphylokinase:
Digests blood clots
DNase, a nuclease that digests DNA
Lipase, an enzyme that helps the bacteria colonize oily surfaces

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9
Q

• What are some characteristics regarding Staphylococcus aureus’s resistance to heat, desiccation, salt concentrations, and antimicrobial drugs?

A

among the sturdiest of all non-spore-forming pathogens

Withstands high salt (7 – 10%),
Tolerates high temperatures (survives 60 °C for 1 hour)
Remains viable after months of air drying
Resists the effects of disinfectants and antibiotics (e.g. MRSA)

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10
Q

• What are two tests that can be used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from Streptococcus pyogenes in impetigo?

A

Coagulase test
Key technique that separates S. aureus from other species of Staphylococcus
Isolates that coagulates plasma are likely S. aureus
Others are coagulase negative
This test aids in diagnosis

Catalase test
Enzyme breaks down hydrogen peroxide accumulated during oxidative metabolism
Used to differentiate the staphylococci from the streptococci Primary isolation is achieved by inoculation on blood agar
Will produce a clear area in the agar around the colonies due to lysis of red blood cells (hemolysis)

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11
Q

• What is the causative agent of smallpox?

A

Variola virus, an orthopoxvirus
Enveloped DNA virus
This group also includes monkeypox and vaccinia
Hardy virus, surviving outside the host longer than most viruses

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12
Q

What are two different viruses that have been used as vaccines for smallpox?

A

. First successful vaccine produced by Edward Jenner in 1796, by exposure of patient to related but non-virulent cowpox
Vaccine now is another related virus, vaccinia virus (mild infection)
A massive vaccination effort from 1967-1977 eradicated the disease

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13
Q

How prevalent is smallpox in the world today?

A

Vaccination had been discontinued when the disease was eradicated, but is now offered to certain U.S. populations

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14
Q

• What does the term “immunologically privileged” mean?

A

Only able to mount a partial or different immune response when exposed to an immunological challenge
CNS functions are so vital that even temporary damage that could result from normal immune responses could be detrimental
Macrophages are present but not as active as in other body parts

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15
Q

• Is there a normal microbiota in the central nervous system?

A

none known

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16
Q

• What is meningitis, what are some important signs/symptoms (general to most cases of meningitis), and how do microbes cause this disease? Know that, similar to pneumonia, there can be many different causative agents for this disease.

A

Meningitis is caused by inflammation of the meninges
Anatomical syndrome: many different microorganisms (bacteria, fungi, viruses) can cause an infection of the meninges and all cause the same constellation of symptoms

Inflammation is a result of growth of microbes in the CSF
More serious forms of acute meningitis are caused by bacteria
Entrance to the CNS facilitated by co-infection or previous infection with respiratory viruses

Signs and Symptoms (Typical symptoms, regardless of causative agent)
Headache, painful or stiff neck
Fever, nausea and vomiting; skin rash in some cases
Photophobia (sensitivity to light)
Increased number of lymphocytes in the CSF

17
Q

• What are some common tests used to determine the causative agent of meningitis, and what sorts of fluids are these tests performed on?

A

Cerebrospinal fluid, blood, and nasopharyngeal
Gram stain (Gram negative diplococci)
Oxidase testing

“Chocolate” agar medium (lysed blood cells) is used

Rapid diagnostic kits using ELISA (detection by antibodies) and other techniques are available for direct testing of dairy products (faster!)

18
Q

• Why are antibiotics typically used to treat meningitis before the causative agent is known?

A
Lumbar puncture (spinal tap), Gram stain, and/or culture of CSF are performed when meningitis is suspected
Treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics is started immediately 

Meningitis can be life-threatening because of the inflammation’s proximity to the brain and spinal cord; therefore, the condition is classified as a medical emergency.

19
Q

• What is the name and some attributes of the causative agent of the most serious form of acute meningitis?

A

Neisseria meningitidis (Phylum Proteobacteria

Gram-negative diplococcic (pairs)
Commonly known as the meningococcus
Often associated with epidemic forms of meningitis
Causes the most serious form of acute meningitis

20
Q

• What are some important virulence factors?

A

Bacteria entering the blood vessels rapidly penetrate the meninges and produce symptoms
Pathogen releases endotoxin into the generalized circulation which stimulates white blood cells
Bacterium produces IgA protease and a capsule that counter the body’s defenses

21
Q

• How does Neisseria get from its initial site of infection to the CSF?

A

Initial Neisseria infection in mouth

Contact with highly vascularized roof of nasal cavity

22
Q

• How is this organism cultivated, and what are some examples of tests that can be used to identify it?

A

“Chocolate” agar medium (lysed blood cells) is used
Provides a variety of complex nutrients required for Neisseria
Media is incubated at a high CO2 (enhances growth)
Specific rapid tests are available for detecting capsular polysaccharide or cells directly from specimens without culturing
Presumptive identification of the genus obtained through
Gram stain (Gram negative diplococci)
Oxidase testing

23
Q

• What antibiotic is typically given if meningococcal meningitis is suspected?

A

.Meningococcal meningitis must be confirmed or ruled out because it can be rapidly fatal

Treated meningococcemial disease has a mortality rate of 15%
Vital that chemotherapy begin as soon as possible
High doses of penicillin G given intravenously
Treatment for shock and intravascular clotting may also be required

24
Q

• What are three examples of immunologic methods for identifying antigens/antibodies?

A

Agglutination test

Direct Fluorescence Antigen Test
Fluorescently-labeled antibody used to detect antigen by microscopy

Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)
Can be either direct (detecting antigen) or indirect (detecting antibody)

25
Q

• Explain why immunologic methods are both specific and sensitive

A

Specificity: property of a test to focus only on a certain antibody or antigen, and not react with an unrelated or distantly related antigen
Sensitivity: detection of even minute quantities of antibodies or antigens in a specimen; reflects the degree to which a test will detect every positive person

26
Q

• What are some examples of ways in which antigen-antibody interactions are visualized?

A

The basis of immunologic testing is the binding of antibody (Ab) to a specific site or epitope of an antigen (Ag)
Some serological tests produce an endpoint reaction visible to the naked eye or with light microscopy
Antibody binding to large cell surface antigens creates large clumps or aggregates visible microscopically or macroscopically
Smaller Ab-Ag interactions can be observed using dyes or fluorescent reagents

27
Q

• What are some basic steps in the agglutination test?

A

Example of a visual, quantitative test for the amount (or titer) of antibody in a serum sample (similar to tube dilution test for antibiotic sensitivity)
Same amount of antigen is added to each tube or well.
Dilutions of the sample containing antibody (e.g. serum from blood) are made
Agglutination (clumping) occurs in tubes/wells containing sufficient antibody
Lowest dilution that results in agglutination is used to determine titer

28
Q

• In what ways is the direct fluorescence antigen test similar to and different from FISH?

A

Similar to FISH, but it detects an antigen with a fluorescently-labeled antibody
Sample is collected from patient and is incubated with labeled antibody
Excess antibody is washed away, and the sample is observed by fluorescence microscopy

29
Q

• What does ELISA stand for?

A

.Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)

Can be either direct (detecting antigen) or indirect (detecting antibody)

30
Q

What are some basic steps in the indirect ELISA methods?

A

Detects antibodies in patient sera based on binding to a known antigen
Known antigen is adsorbed to the surface of a well and mixed with unknown antibody
If an Ag-Ab complex forms, an added indicator antibody will bind and produce a color change
Common test used for antibody screening for HIV
Because false positives can occur, a verification test with other methods may be necessary

31
Q

Which method is used for detection of antibodies, and which method is used for detection of antigens?

A

ELISA (detection by antibodies)

32
Q

How are secondary antibodies used in the ELISA?

A

Makes use of a secondary or indicator antibody by…..
Antibody that bind specifically to the conserved portion of the primary antibody being detected
Is linked or conjugated to an enzyme that will allow for detection
Enzyme activity results in cleavage of a colorless substrate into a colored product

33
Q

Streptococcus

A

Streptococcus (Phylum Firmicutes; Gram +)
Aerotolerant anaerobe (“lactic acid bacteria”)
Homofermentative – lactic acid as sole product
Genus includes the pathogens S. pneumoniae, S. pyogenes

34
Q

Propionibacterium

A

Propionibacterium (Phylum Actinobacteria; Gram +)
Facultative or aerotolerant anaerobes
Live in follicles, pores; ferment sebum, acids, carbs
P. acnes is implicated in acne

35
Q

Staphylococcus

A

Staphylococcus (Phylum Firmicutes; Gram +)
Facultative anaerobe (fermentation)
Commensals (S. epidermidis) and pathogens (S. aureus)

36
Q

Corynebacterium

A

Corynebacterium (Actinobacteria; Gram +)
Obligately aerobic or facultatively anaerobic
Includes the pathogen C. diphtheriae, cause of diptheria

37
Q

What are some basic steps in the direct ELISA methods?

A

Direct ELISA
Detects antigens based on binding to a known antibody
Known antibody is adsorbed to the bottom of a well and incubated with an unknown antigen
If an Ag-Ab complex forms, it will attract the indicator antibody and color will develop in these wells