Lecture 11 - Muscle Contraction Flashcards

1
Q

Motor unit

A

The motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How can force be increased during muscle contraction?

A
  1. Recruiting more motor units
  2. Increase frequency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What changes occur when the frequency of muscle contraction increases?

A

more action potentials = more muscle twitches = more force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What changes occur when more motor units are recruited?

A

more motor units = more muscle fibers activated = more force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

All fibers in a muscle unit contract _____.

A

Simultaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the most important means of controlling muscle tension?

A

Recruitment of motor units.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

All fibers in a motor unit are the same ____.

A

Fiber type.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What coordinates gradation of force in skeletal muscles?

A

The nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The smallest amount of muscle that can be activated voluntarily is called

A

Motor unit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Slow motor units contain ____.

A

Slow fibers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Fast motor units contain ____.

A

Fast fibers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the physiological profile of slow motor units.

A
  1. ATP is used at a slow rate, myosin has a long cycle time.
  2. Many mitochondria are present, large ability to replenish ATP.
  3. Force is maintained economically during isometric contractions. There is efficient performance of repetitive slow isotonic contractions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which type of motor unit can manage with anaerobic conditions?

A

Type 2B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the physiological profile of fast motor units.

A
  1. Myosin heads have a rapid cycling rate.
  2. Produces higher power for when isometric force
    produced by slow motor units is insufficient.
  3. 2A fibers sustain power, 2B fibers are faster.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the function of 2A fibers?

A

Fast fibers - adapted for producing sustained power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the function of 2B fibers?

A

Faster fibers - fatigue rapidly due to being non-oxidative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Isometric contraction

A

The development of tension without muscle contraction (shortening)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do motor neurons compare to other neurons?

A

Motor neurons are larger than other neurons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The neuromuscular junction is a _____.

A

Specialized synapse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is released at the NMJ?

A

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where is the neuromuscular juntion?

A

Where the motor neuron attaches to the muscle fiber.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where does ACh bind in the NMJ?

A

Receptors on the muscle fiber (there are many different types of ACh receptors).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List the steps that occur at the NMJ. (i’m so sorry this card is so long)

A
  1. Transmitters are synthesized and stored in vesicles.
  2. The action potential reaches the synaptic terminal of the pre-synaptic motor neuron.
  3. The synaptic terminal is depolarized, causing the opening of voltage gated calcium channels.
  4. There is an influx of calcium into the motor neuron through calcium channels.
  5. Calcium causes the fusion of vesicles with the synaptic membrane.
  6. Vesicles are retrieved from the plasma membrane and returned into the cell.
  7. Transmitters are released into the synaptic cleft through exocytosis.
  8. The transmitter binds to receptor molecules on the postsynaptic cell membrane.
  9. Postsynaptic channels open and close.
  10. Postsynaptic current causes excitatory/inhibitory postsynaptic potential that changes the excitability of the postsynaptic cell.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the effect of clostridium botulinum toxin on acetylcholine?

A

Botox works on the pre-synaptic side of the NMJ. It reduces the efficacy of calcium channels which prevents the release of acetylcholine into the synapse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does clostridium botulinum toxin cause death?

A

Paralysis of respiratory muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe acetylcholine metabolism.

A

Acetyl CoA is converted to CoA which releases an acetyl group. At the same time, Choline is converted to acetylcholine through the addition of an acetyl group. The enzyme for this reaction is choline acetyl transferase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the uses of clostridium botulinum?

A

Reduce wrinkles (Botox), control strabismus (crossed eyes),
blepharospasm (uncontrolled blinking)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the effect of curare on acetylcholine?

A

Curare can bind to acetylcholine receptors, preventing ACh binding. It specifically blocks nicotinic receptors which then prevents ACh induced muscle contractions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How are curare derivatives used?

A

A muscle relaxant prior to surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does myasthenia gravis cause?

A

It is an autoimmune condition. Causes reduced ACh receptor function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How is myasthenia gravis treated?

A

With Neostigmine - an AChE inhibitor. This results in additional ACh to remain in the synapse and increases the binding to the receptor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How do AChE inhibitors work?

A

Inhibit the enzyme acetylcholine esterase which normally breaks down acetylcholine into choline and acetate in the synapse. By inhibiting this enzyme, there is increased ACh that remains in the synapse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How is acetylcholine regenerated in the cell?

A

Acetylcholine in the synapse is broken down into acetate and choline by acetylcholine esterase. Choline is then brought back into the cell through a choline carrier. Choline is then converted to acetylcholine by choline acetyl transferase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Describe excitation-contraction coupling.

A

Depolarization of the motor end-plate is coupled to muscle contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

List the steps of excitation-contraction coupling.

A
  1. Action potential propagates along sarcolemma and down the T tubules
  2. Depolarization causes a conformational change in ‘DHP’ (Dihydropyridine) receptor in T tubule
  3. DHP opening linked/gated to opening of ‘Ryanodine’ receptor on SR
  4. Calcium is released from the SR
  5. Ca2+ binds to troponin → causes position change in tropomyosin → active sites on actin exposed
  6. Formation of “cross bridges” between myosin and actin
  7. Calcium removed back to SR
  8. Tropomyosin block on active sites for actin is restored → contraction ends (troponin and calcium are no longer bound)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the difference in the DHP receptor between different muscle types?

A

It is voltage sensitive in skeletal and a Ca2+ channel in cardiac.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Conformational change in DHP receptors allows for ____.

A

Rapid release of calcium from the SR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the H zone?

A

The area of the sarcomere with only myosin (no actin overlapping)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the I band?

A

The area of the sarcomere with only actin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the A band?

A

All areas of the sarcomere with myosin (areas with and without overlap).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What happens to the H zone during contraction?

A

It shortens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What happens to the I band during contraction?

A

It shortens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What happens to the A band during contraction?

A

It stays the same width.

42
Q

What is the power stroke?

A

The myosin head binds to actin and pulls it towards the M line.

43
Q

What is the M line?

A

The line in a sarcomere that myosin binds to.

44
Q

What is the Z line?

A

A zig-zag line where actin binds. This line defines the end of a sarcomere.

45
Q

What factors affect skeletal muscle contraction?

A
  • Muscle length and tension
  • Energy supply
46
Q

What is the physiological range in the length-tension relationship?

A

The rate of length changes that can occur in the body. Here, there is the best amount of overlap in the sarcomere which allows the maximal amount of tension.

47
Q

What occurs if the muscle is shortened past the physiological range?

A

Actin begins to overlap, the Z lines cannot move any closer together to contract.

48
Q

What occurs if muscle is stretched beyond the physiological range?

A

There is limited overlap between actin and myosin which limits the force due to less actin-myosin binding. When the muscle is stretched to a certain point, there can be no overlap between actin and myosin and cross bridges will be unable to form.

49
Q

What percentage of muscle length compared to resting is the physiological range?

A

70-130%

50
Q

At what percentage of muscle length compared to resting do myosin and actin not overlap?

A

170%

51
Q

When does the muscle have the ability for maximal tension?

A

At resting muscle length.

52
Q

Isotonic contractions

A

Same tension - shortened muscle.

53
Q

Describe the force-velocity relationship.

A

The capacity to generate force depends on the velocity of muscle contraction. These factors are inversely proportional, with maximal velocity occuring at zero load and maximal force at zero velocity (isometric contraction).

54
Q

At what velocity is force at a maximal load?

A

Zero velocity.

55
Q

What does increased frequency of muscle contraction result in?

A

Endurance

56
Q

What is meant by muscle is plastic?

A

Muscle can adapt to meet the habitual level of demand placed on it.

57
Q

What does increased load during muscle contraction result in?

A

Increased strength.

58
Q

What happens when muscle use is decreased?

A

Decreased muscle mass.

59
Q

What factors can lead to muscle use being decreased?

A
  • Limb casting
  • Denervation
  • Aging
60
Q

The level of physical activity is determined by _____.

A

the frequency of recruitment and the load.

61
Q

How does the body and muscle adapt to endurance training?

A
  • Cardiovascular adaptations
  • Increased mitochondrial density
  • Enhanced fuel storage
62
Q

How does the body and muscle adapt to strength training?

A
  • Muscle hypertrophy
  • Neural adaptations
  • Muscle fiber type changes
63
Q

What happens during muscle hypertrophy?

A

The muscle cells gain myofibrils (there is not an increase in muscle cells).

64
Q

What are the types of isotonic contractions?

A
  • Concentric
  • Eccentric
65
Q

Concentric contraction

A

A decrease in muscle length due to the formation of cross bridges.

66
Q

Eccentric contraction

A

An increase in muscle length due to the tension developed being less than the load on the muscle. Ex - Walking down a steep incline requires control of rate of elongation.

67
Q

Is there any shortening during isometric contractions?

A

Yes, there is a small amount of internal shortening that occurs (the sarcomeres shorten when tension is developed).

68
Q

Muscle agonist

A

The muscle doing the desired movement.

69
Q

Muscle antagonist

A

The muscle lengthening during a movement.

70
Q

What causes muscle relaxation?

A
  • Elastic forces
  • Opposing muscles
  • Gravity

*these factors return muscle to resting length

71
Q

Muscle relaxation is a ____ process.

A

Passive.

72
Q

What are the stages of muscle twitch?

A
  1. Latent phase.
  2. Contraction phase.
  3. Relaxation phase.
73
Q

In which phase of muscle contraction is calcium sequestered?

A

The relaxation phase.

74
Q

What is the latent phase of muscle twitch?

A

A short delay from the time when the action potential reaches the muscle until tension can be observed in the muscle.

75
Q

What is the contraction phase of muscle twitch?

A

Occurs while the muscle is developing tension and forming cross bridges.

76
Q

What is the reason for the latent phase of a muscle twitch?

A

It is the time required for calcium to diffuse out of the SR, bind to troponin, the movement of tropomyosin off of the active sites, formation of cross bridges, and taking up any slack that may be in the muscle.

77
Q

What is the relaxation phase of muscle twitch?

A

There is a decrease in muscle tension.

78
Q

What is treppe?

A

Occurs when the muscle is stimulated again immediately after the relaxation phase of the previous twitch. It causes an increase in tension in a staircase like way.

79
Q

What occurs during the relaxation phase of muscle twitch.

A
  • Calcium is actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum using ATP.
  • The troponin moves back into position blocking the myosin binding site on the actin.
  • The muscle passively lengthens.
80
Q

What causes treppe?

A

A gradual increase in calcium due to the inability of the SR pumps to sequester all of the calcium before next twitch.

81
Q

What is wave summation?

A

Occurs when the muscle is stimulated again before the relaxation phase is complete. The twitches are superimposed which results in a smooth, continuous muscle contraction.

82
Q

What is incomplete tetanus?

A

Individual twitches are distinguishable, but the fluctuations are not as pronounced as treppe or summation. There are small peaks and valleys at maximal muscle contraction.

83
Q

What is complete tetanus?

A

Individual twitches indistinguishable because of high frequency of stimulations. There is no relaxation phase tension.

84
Q

What are the types of muscle energy metabolism?

A
  • Creatine phosphate
  • Glycolysis
  • Oxidative metabolism
85
Q

Is creatine phosphate aerobic or anaerobic?

A

Anaerobic.

86
Q

Is glycolysis aerobic or anaerobic?

A

Anaerobic.

87
Q

Is oxidative metabolism aerobic or anaerobic?

A

Aerobic.

88
Q

Which type of energy metabolism has slow ATP production?

A

Glycolysis.

89
Q

Which type of energy metabolism has rapid ATP production?

A

Creatine phosphate.

90
Q

Explain creatine phosphate as energy metabolism for muscle.

A
  • Excess energy is stored as creatine phosphate exclusively in muscle.
  • Creatine phosphate is converted to creatine by the enzyme creatine kinase.
  • During the reaction, the phosphate group is transferred to ADP to produce ATP.
91
Q

What is the energy concentration in creatine phosphate compared to ATP?

A

Concentration is 3-6 times more in CP than in ATP.

92
Q

What is the enzyme responsible for the phosphorylation of creatine phosphate?

A

Creatine kinase.

93
Q

How long can ATP and creatine phosphate provide energy to a muscle?

A

10-15 seconds.

94
Q

What are the products of the creatine phosphate reaction?

A
  • Creatine
  • ATP
95
Q

How much ATP is produced by glycolysis?

A

2 ATP molecules per glucose molecule.

96
Q

How long can the products of glycolysis provide energy?

A

2 mins

97
Q

What muscle fibers use glycolysis?

A

Type IIB fibers.

98
Q

What percentage of muscle weight is glycogen?

A

1%

99
Q

Which metabolic process in muscles produces lactate?

A

Glycolysis - pyruvate is converted to lactate.

100
Q

How much ATP is produced by oxidative metabolism?

A

36 ATP molecules per glucose.

101
Q

Which muscle fibers use oxidative metabolism?

A

Type I fibers.

102
Q

What processes are involved in oxidative metabolism?

A
  • TCA cycle
  • Oxidative phosphorylation
103
Q

When are lipids used in muscle energy metabolism?

A

Oxidative metabolism switches from glucose to lipids during prolonged muscle use (ex. endurance training)

104
Q

Where does oxidative phosphorylation occur?

A

Mitochondria.