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IDH_Psych > Learning/Human Development > Flashcards

Learning/Human Development Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three models of learning?

A

Classical conditioning (Pavlov), operant conditioning (Skinner), social learning theory (Bandura)

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2
Q

What is Operant Conditioning?

A

Where the outcome or consequence of behaviour influences the repetition or no repetition of the behaviour. Positive consequences are known as reinforcements, negative consequences are known as punishments. Reinforcements or punishments that occur closely to the behaviour have an increased chance of influencing more or less of the behaviour.

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3
Q

List the stages of desensitisation:

A

Step 1. learn relaxation technique
Step 2. form a hierarchical list of fear exposure - less fearful to more fearful
Step 3. Relax using relaxation technique, then expose to least fearful object/picture/experience on heirarchical list. If ok, move to next on list. If not, use relaxation technique and try again. Only move only when relaxed with object/picture/experience.

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4
Q

Name two relaxation techniques:

A

Jacobson’s - tense/relax muscles

Benson’s - breathing techniques

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5
Q

A neutral stimulus is detected by what?

A

The five senses.

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6
Q

What does unconditioned mean?

A

Its a behaviour or a response that occurs naturally, without training/learning.

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7
Q

What does conditioned mean?

A

That something has been learned.

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8
Q

What is a neutral stimulus?

A

Its something that we detect with our five senses, however, it does not trigger a specific response. It’s neutral. It can, however, be paired with an unconditioned stimulus, and through association, be able to generate a response on its own. For the association to occur, the neutral stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus need to occur close together.

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9
Q

What is a trial (Classical Conditoning)?

A

The period in which the neutral stimulus and unconditioned stimulus are coupled together - where the connection occurs.

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10
Q

When does a neutral stimulus become a conditioned stimulus?

A

When the neutral stimulus causes a response on its own. Then it becomes the conditioned stimulus and the response becomes a conditioned response because it has been learned.

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11
Q

What is Social Learning Theory?

A

Learning by observing others and then copying and using the behaviour as well.

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12
Q

What is learning?

A

Learning is when behaviour changes because of an experience (knowledge/skills). This change is pretty permanent.

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13
Q

Who discovered Classical Conditioning?

A

Ian Pavlov

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14
Q

Who founded Behaviourism?

A

John B.Watson

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15
Q

What is behaviour?

A

Human action determined by genetics and learning through experiences.

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16
Q

What is habituation?

A

Simplest form of learning. Actions become automatic as they are repeated often, generally associated with weaker stimuli (stronger stimuli doesn’t seem to become habituated).

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17
Q

What is a cephalic response?

A

The idea the unconditioned stimulus produces the response.

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18
Q

What are the three phases of Classical Conditioning?

A
  1. Aquisition
  2. Extinction
  3. Spontaneous Recovery
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19
Q

What is Acquisition?

A

The ability to learn and make associations (neutral stimuli and unconditioned stimuli). Associations are best learnt when coupled closely together, ideally 1/2 second a part = the quicker the association is made, the stronger the association is.

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20
Q

What is Extinction?

A

Where the learned or conditioned response fades if the response is presented on its own for too long. The response is “written over” by another association.

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21
Q

What is Spontaneous Recovery?

A

The Conditioned Response can reappear with the presentation of the Conditioned Stimuli after Extinction has occurred, however, the association will be much weaker than it was. Memory is involved in this - triggered by environment. Also called the Renewal Effect.

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22
Q

What is Stimulus Generalisation?

A

Similar stimuli to the Conditioned Stimulus can generate a similar response to the Conditioned Response. The stronger the likeness to the Conditioned Stimulus, the stronger the response. This is an adaptive response by the brain - applying newly learned association to new things.

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23
Q

What is Stimulus Discrimination?

A

Opposite to Stimulus Generalisation. The response to stimuli that are not similar to the Conditioned Stimulus is less than the response to the Conditioned Stimulus.

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24
Q

What is Higher Order Conditioning?

A

An additional stimulus can be paired with the controlled stimulus (conditioned neutral stimulus), but again, placing it close to the controlled stimulus to form an association with the controlled response. This additional stimulus can eventually trigger a response on its own, but the response is much weaker. A third additional stimulus can be added/associated too, but again, this association/response will be weaker again.

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25
Q

What is latent inhibition?

A

When a conditioned stimulus has illicited a controlled response a lot, it is very difficult to pair with an another neutral (to become conditioned) stimulus - this is latent inhibition.

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26
Q

What is Operant Conditioning?

A

Type of learning where the consequences (both positive and negative) influence or cause the learning.

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27
Q

How is Operant Conditioning different to Classical Condtioning?

A
  1. Op Cond. the response comes from the person - choice - motivated by consequences.
  2. Op Cond. person’s behaviour (changes/doesn’t change) impacts the outcome.
  3. Op Cond. is voluntary behaviour - uses skeletal muscles. Class. Cond. is involuntary - influences the autonomic nervous system - increases heart rate, or breathing rate, causes perspiration.
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28
Q

Explain The Law of Effect:

A

E.L Thorndike behind idea - basis for Op. Cond. - if a response and stimulus associate and the outcome is positive, this strengthens the association. If the outcome is positive, we’re more likely to repeat the behaviour.

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29
Q

What do Stimulus-Response theorists say is the root of complex behaviour?

A

An accummulation of stimulus-response assoications.

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30
Q

Name & describe two types of reinforcement (Operant Conditioning):

A
  1. Positive reinforcement: give something positive - positively reinforces or increases the desired behaviour (gold star on homework - increased homework completed)
  2. Negative reinforcement: taking something negative away - increases the desired behaviour, reinforces the response (for future)
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31
Q

What is a descrimative stimulus in Operant Condiioning?

A

A stimulus that notifies a person that reinforcement is about to happen i.e. person waves from a distance - notification they are about to come and say hello. Also, positive reinforcement is used to help distinguish between stimuli i.e. pigeons trained to distinguish between Monet & Picasso.

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32
Q

Skinner’s patterns of reinforcement are:

A
  1. Continuous reinforcement - occurs every time

2. Partial (intermittent) reinforcement - reinforcement is occassional

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33
Q

What is Continuous reinforcement (Operant Conditoning)?

A

When reinforcement is delivered continuously. Continuous reinforcement helps animals learn new behaviours in a short period of time.

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34
Q

What is Extinction in Operant Conditioning?

A

When reinforcement for a certain behaviour ends, the behaviour will taper off and finally disappear.

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35
Q

What is Partial (intermittent) reinforcement (Operant Conditioning?)

A

When behaviour is reinforced every now and again. Extinction rate for the behaviour is slower - anticipation of the reinforcement keeps the behaviour going for longer than continuous reinforcement.

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36
Q

What are the two dimensions for administering reinforcements (Operant Conditioning)?

A
  1. Consistency of reinforcements - either fixed (delivered at fixed rates) or variable (delivered more randomly).
  2. Basis of giving reinforcements - either intervals (given at certain time periods from last reinforcement) or ratio (given after a number of times the behaviour is presented - dog rolls 5 times, gets reward). Ratio schedule and fixed delivery more effective in supporting the new behaviour.
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37
Q

What are the four schedules for reinforcement?

A
  1. Fixed ratio - reinforcement given after a certain number of responses - treat after dog rolls x 5.
  2. Fixed interval - reinforcement given after certain period of time - worker paid every Thursday. Rate of responding increases the closer to the next (can wait for reinforcement - scalloped pattern)
  3. Variable ratio - pattern of reinforcement changes - average # of reinforcement but delivery changes: treat after 5 x rolls (dog), treat after 10 x rollls, treat after 2 rolls (inconsistent) (highest response in rats/Casino-gambling)
  4. Variable interval - reinforcement given at inconsistent intervals - every 5 mins, every 10 mins, every 8 minutes
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38
Q

What is fading (Operant Conditioning)?

A

When in learning phase, reinforcements are given for behaviour that is nearly right. Over time, reinforcements are given less and less for ‘nearly right’ behaviour - this is fading.

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39
Q

What is Chaining (Operant Conditioning)?

A

Linking behaviours (similar) into a sequence, with one behaviour prompting the next behaviour and so on - Skinner’s pigeons learned table tennis - sequence of behaviours learnt - 1. turning paddles, 2. paddles in beaks, 3. hitting ball - each step linked to the next.

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40
Q

What is Premack Principal / Grandma’s rule (Operant Conditioning)?

A

Less common behaviours can be increased through reinforcing with more frequent behaviours - Grandma’s rule prevents procrastination/motivates behaviour - finish veg before dessert (higher veg eating as dessert is coming)

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41
Q

How is Operant Conditioning used in practice?

A

Tokens - rewards for desired behaviours in school/aged care. Secondary reinforcers - fav drink/food. Used with spectrum disorders to encourage language development - reward (food/drink) given for ‘nearly right’ sounds.

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42
Q

Which area of the brain is involved with Classical Conditioning trigger?

A

Amygdala

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43
Q

Which area of the brain is involved with Operant Conditioning?

A

Nucleus Accumbens (part of pleasure/reward system) & lymbic system

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44
Q

Can Classical Conditioning and Operant Conditioning work at the same time?

A

Yes - example - fearful association established with Classical Conditioning - fear becomes persistent attached to object/event. Once established fearful object/event is avoided which reduces the fearful feelings (negatively reinforces by reducing the unpleasant stimulus - Operant Conditioning). So, fear established through Classical Conditioning but perpetuated by Operant Conditioning.

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45
Q

What is S-O-R Theories?

A

That cognition is involved - not just Stimulus-Response, modern understanding is Stimulus-Organism (thinks about stimulus)-Reponse. Also think expectation is part of learning. example of S-O-R theorists understanding - metronome chimed - dog ‘thought’ ‘meat powder coming’, dog salivated.

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46
Q

What is Latent Learning?

A

Edward Chase Tolman - learning happens without reinforcements/rewards, just becomes obvious after the reward.

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47
Q

What’s a cognitive map?

A

Tolman - spacial representation of space (i.e. uni campus)/map in mind - mental picture.

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48
Q

What is the Social Learning Theory?

A

Learning through watching/observing - a type of Latent learning - cognition involved. Learn from influential role models - parents, teachers, peers.

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49
Q

What are motor neurons?

A

Neurons in the prefrontal cortex that enable humans to imitate behaviour/actions observed. Neuroscientists believe motor neurons could be involved in empathy.

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50
Q

What is Insight Learning?

A

Learning through thinking - working out solutions in mind - not linked to observing others - coming up with own ideas to solve problems. Wolfgagn Köhler (German psych) experiment with Sultan apes - banana outside of cage, 2 x bamboo sticks inside cage - bamboo inside each other - reach banana).

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51
Q

What is conditioned taste aversion & how does it differ from classical conditioning?

A

Unlike Classical Conditoning, conditioned taste aversion doesn’t require multiple exposures to become paired - just one exposure/immediate - biologically understood to avoid poisonous foods (classical conditioning can take 6-8 hours to be established - dangerous: food poisoning). Conditioned taste aversion relate to specific food - not generalised to similar food.

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52
Q

What’s a scapegoat food (Conditioned Taste Aversion)?

A

Used before chemo, food not liked by patient is consumed before chemo - connection made with nausea. Food aversion is blamed psychologically on food eaten before chemo.

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53
Q

What is belongingnes (Conditioned Taste Aversion/Biological influences on learning)?

A

Some stimuli seem to be paired more readily to unconditioned stimulus i.e. some foods/nausea.

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54
Q

What is equipotentiality?

A

Behaviourists belief that all conditioned stimulus pair in the same way to all unconditioned stimulus - contradictory to ‘belongingness’.

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55
Q

What is Preparedness in relation to phobias?

A

Martin Seligman - evolutionary experience genetically programmed humans to be fearful of certain environmental hazards (dark, snakes, spiders, crocodiles, heights etc) to keep species safe. Humans access dangerous objects every day but do not fear them - they weren’t a threat in time of ancestors.

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56
Q

What is Counter Conditioning?

A

Extinguishing one association and establishing a replacement association - i.e. stimulus desensitisation - desensitisation of phobia - new association = relaxation.

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57
Q

What are Primary Reinforcers (Operant Conditioning)?

A

Reinforcers associated with meeting biological needs - inherent - no need for learning - food, air, sleep, sex, water - happen naturally.

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58
Q

What are Secondary Reinforcers (Operant Conditioning)?

A

Secondary reinforcers need to be learned - money, tokens, praise.

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59
Q

How are primary and secondary reinforcers linked?

A

One is needed to fulfill the other - related - money (secondary) required to buy food (primary).

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60
Q

Which cognitive processes involved in social learning (Bandura)?

A

Attention, memory, motivation

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61
Q

Which reinforcement is an important part of social learning?

A

Postive and negative reinforcemet (for agressive behaviour - observed by children - affected aggressive behaviour learned in children).

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62
Q

How can social learning theory be experienced in a professional setting?

A
  1. modeling - client may emulate positive behaviours modelled by professional
  2. Individual confidence boosted - increase in self-efficacy
  3. Client’s belief in self increased = increased chance of health benefits - increased positive perception of ability = increases outcomes/achievements.
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63
Q

What are four qualities of empathy?

A
  1. Perspective taking - look through other’s perspective/lens
  2. Refrain from judgement
  3. Recognising emotions in others
  4. Communicating emotion in others.
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64
Q

What are Piaget’s 4 x stages of cognitive development?

A
  1. Sensory/Motor Stage
  2. Preoperational Stage
  3. Concrete Operational Stage
  4. Formal Operational Stage
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65
Q

Describe Piaget’s Sensory Motor Stage:

A
  • 0-2 years
  • Focus on inital schemas - sucking, looking, grasping, pushing.
  • Development through 5 x senses
  • Simple reflexes
  • 4 mths aware of things outside of selves
  • Learn to do actions with intent
  • Object permanence from 3 months-2 years
  • Working memory develops
  • Curiosity - exploration - propels movement - sit, crawl, stand, walk, run

Focus of this stage - Object permanence / strong connection with cognitive development and movement.

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66
Q

Describe Piaget’s Pre-operational Stage:

A
  • 2-7 years
  • Thinking/concepts are symbolically represented in mind (mental images of object)
  • Centration - strongest perception informs perspective - focus on one part of object/experience, not whole
  • Pre-operational - as some operations aren’t yet developed
  • Learn to talk/develop language/images (symbols)
  • Draw family - not to scale - symbolic
  • Pretend play - role play - learning
  • Curiosity established 4 yrs-ish - Why?
  • ‘Intuitive age’ - aware of developing knowledge, not how acquiring knowledge
  • Egocentric/expect other’s have some perspective as self

Symbolism / egocentrism/ intuitive age (awareness of knowledge growing)

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67
Q

Describe Piaget’s Concrete Operational Stage:

A
  • 7-11 years
  • Logic develops - form mental actions
  • Concrete operations develop - sorting objects in order
  • Inductive reasoning (see something - draw conclusion - make generalisiation)
  • Start to understand conservation - volume same in different shaped glasses - looks different, but understand volume is the same/equal.
  • Start to understand inverse maths operations - 3 + 5 = 8, 8 - 3 = 5
  • Concrete operational mental structures begins - getting opposite actions (reverse situations)
  • New understanding/logic etc applied to writing, conversations, things we do, learning at school.
  • Start to see self as unique
  • Begin to see things from other’s points of view
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68
Q

Describe Piaget’s Formal Operational Stage:

A
  • 12 years +
  • Abiltity to apply rational thought to abstract concepts/hypothetical circumstances
  • Understand abstract concepts - love, hate, success
  • Can use logic to understand abstract problems
  • Become aware of morality
  • Become aware of mortality
  • Systematically solves problems
  • Empathy/compassion for others
  • Decuctive reasoning - compare multiple things/draw conclusions/generalise
  • Able to plan and prioritise
  • Developing ability to philosophise
  • Egocentric thoughts - audience watching in mind
  • Last stage of development
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69
Q

What were the results from Albert Bandura’s Bobo Doll experiment?

A
  • kids in aggressive group - repeated aggressive behaviour witnessed by adults
  • Non-aggressive group - less aggressive behaviour both boys/girls
  • Boys - opp gender role was calm - increased aggression with boys’ behaviour (?)
  • Boys watching men act aggressively - behaved more aggressively than boys watching women act aggressively.
  • Boys more likely to act with physical violence, girls more likely to act with verbal violence
  • Boys - twice aggressive in behaviour than girls
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70
Q

What were the conclusions from the Bobo Doll experiment?

A
  • Children assume aggressive behaviour is ‘normal’ if an aggressive adult is observed.
  • If children observe aggressive behavior by an adult - increased chance of being aggressive when frustrated.
  • Follow-up study (1965) - if children observed adult being rewarded for aggressive behaviour, more likely to emulate themselves. If punished, less likely to emulate.
  • positive/negative reinforcement important in social learning.
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71
Q

What are Erickson’s 8 stages of cognitive development?

A
  1. Basic trust v’s mistrust
  2. Autonomy v’s shame/doubt
  3. Initiative v’s guilt
  4. Industry v’s inferiority
  5. Identity v’s role confusion
  6. Intimacy v’s isolation
  7. Generativity v’s stagnation
  8. Ego intergrity v’s despair

Conflict of each stage needs to be mostly resolved before moving to next psychosocial stage.

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72
Q

What is Erickson’s first stage Basic Trust v’s Trust about?

A
  • 0-1 1/2 / 2 years
  • Is the world safe and can it be trusted?
  • Trust established through interaction with mum
  • If trust not established in this stage - fear results = doubt/mistrust
  • Mum - key to development of trust in this stage
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73
Q

What is Erickson’s second stage Autonomy v’s Shame/ Self-doubt about?

A
  • 1 1/2-3 years
  • Start to experience self/body
  • Key question - Is it ok to be me?
  • If able to express/be self - self-confidence develops - can control body / make things happen
  • If no space to be self - shame/self doubt develops - feelings of inadequacy
  • Walking/language develop
  • Start to explore
  • Autonomy/independence = feeling capable
  • Restriction/criticism = self-doubt
  • High expectations/pressure = reduced perseverance
  • Both parents integral to this process
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74
Q

What is Erickson’s third stage Initiative v’s Guilt about?

A
  • 3-6 years
  • Start to exercise taking initiative/create - trying new things - if denied = reduced self worth
  • Understand basic concepts of how things work
  • Confident to experiment
  • Start exploring own interests
  • Guilt develops if not permitted to pursue or criticised for interests
  • All family members integral to this process
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75
Q

What is Erickson’s fourth stage Industry v’s Inferiority about?

A
  • 6-12 years
  • Develop identified interests
  • Aware we’re different from others
  • Question - can we make it in this world?
  • If received recognition for effort from peers/teachers - can become industrious/hard working (develop intellectual/motor/social skills)
  • If observe rather then engage in activities = feel inferior/lack confidence
  • If criticised heavily = inferiority - reduces motivation
  • School friends have biggest influence in this stage
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76
Q

What is Erickson’s fifth stage Identity vs role confusion about?

A
  • 13-19 years
  • Social roles integral to learning - friends, students, children, citizens
  • Working out own identity - freedom to work out identity important - strong sense of self
  • No space to develop identity or pressure to conform to parental views = feel out of place
  • Role models integral to development
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77
Q

What is Erickson’s sixth stage Intimacy v’s Isolation about?

A
  • 20-40 years
  • Sense of who we are
  • Relationships developed to ‘fit in’ may be discarded
  • Intimate relationships form (closeness) if confident/happy otherwise can feel alone/isolated
  • friends/partners integral to development
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78
Q

What is Erickson’s seventh stage Generativeity v’s stagnation about?

A
  • 40-65 years
  • 40’s - comfortable with self - contribute to society - family, community, future generations
  • Generativity - interest in future generations - fulfillment in supporting future
  • If unresolved issues from younger years, can become negative in thinking / stagnate / self-indulgent
  • immediate family/work peers biggest influencers
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79
Q

What is Erickson’s eighth stage Ego Integrity v’s Despair about?

A
  • 65 years - death
  • Reflect on life - conclusions affect feelings in this stage - did well = contentment (no regrets); not well = grumpy/bitter/regrets/self-deprication
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80
Q

What is cognitive development?

A

According to Piaget: process of knowing - includes using imagination, recognising, reasoning, inferencing, problem solving.
* cumulative - one level of understanding/knowing builds upon the one that went before - stages dependent on each other.

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81
Q

What defines ‘developmental age’?

A

Chonological age general to specific characteristics (‘norms’) linked to certain developmental stages

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82
Q

What is normative investigation in developmental psychology?

A

Research with purpose of establishing ‘norms’ in terms of characteristics synonymous with specific developmental stages.

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83
Q

Who founded behaviourism?

A

John Watson

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84
Q

What is a reflex?

A

Hard-wired biological response to stimuli that’s relevant to survival.

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85
Q

What is cognitive development?

A

As we age, processes & products of the mind develop and change.

86
Q

What was John Locke’s (philosphers) take on cognitive development?

A

Empiricism - born with clean slate - learning occurs through experiences only. Nurture informs development.

87
Q

What was Jean Jacques Rousseau’s take on cognitive development?

A

Nature/evolutionary learning informs development.

88
Q

What is the modern understanding of cognitive development, in terms of nature/nurture?

A

Both nature and nurture involved in development.

89
Q

What was Jean Piaget’s focus when investigating children’s development?

A

How their cognitive development, thinking (inner representations), perception, reasoning, problem solving changed as children grew/developed.

90
Q

What does ‘schemes’ mean?

A

Mental structures developed that help interpret experiences. Intial schemes are practiced and used to build/establish more complex schemes.

91
Q

What are examples of infant schemes?

A

Sucking, grasping, pushing

92
Q

Piaget said for growth to happen, two things were necessary. What were they?

A

Assimilation & accommodation

93
Q

What is assimilation (Piaget)?

A

When we modify/change new information to fit into an existing schema - adding to what we already know.

94
Q

What is accommodation (Piaget)?

A

When new information helps us re-structure/modify the existing schema, sometimes to the point of creating a separate, new schema to accommodate the new information.

95
Q

To Piaget, cognitive development requires:

A

Both accommodation and assimilation - increases ability to think abstractly.

96
Q

What are foundational theories, in terms of modern understanding of ideas/concepts?

A
  • Foundational theories/frameworks developed by children to explain experiences/environment etc. These are updated as further experience deepens their understanding/changes their perspective - accumulative throughout life.
97
Q

What is the contemporary understanding of social and cultural influences on cognitive development?

A

Lev Vygotsky - internalisation = humans internalise info from experiences/social/cultural environments - does influence cognitive development. Different cultural experiences influences way/rate of human cognitive development - may differ from Piaget’s Western body of evidence? How universal where Piaget’s stages?

98
Q

Which type of development was Piaget’s focus?

A

Cognitive development

99
Q

Which type of development was Erickson’s focus?

A

Social development

100
Q

What role does temperament play in social learning/development?

A

Sets the scene
Temperament can be modified as social skills are learned, but rarely changes dramatically.
Genetically established.

101
Q

What role does attachment play in social learning/development?

A

Connection with primary caregiver beginning of social learning. Established patterns influence social interaction during childhood.
Attachment necessary for survival when young.
Humans programmed to attach to primary caregiver.
Secure attachment helps build confident social skills = increased risk taking, able to establish intimate relationships, able to tackle new and unfamiliar situations.
Parenting styles impact type of attachment with child.
Authorative parenting = securely attached - high expectations accompanied with high support with autonomy as goal.
Changes in parenting style/increased skills in authoritative parenting = improved attachment/social development.

102
Q

What are three forms of attachment?

A
  1. Securely attached
  2. Insecurely attached - avoidant
  3. Insecurely attached - ambivalent/resistant
    (Mary Ainsworth 1978 - Strange Situation Test)
103
Q

What is cupboard theory?

A

Attaching to parents to receive food (Freud)

104
Q

What is contact comfort theory?

A

Harry Harlow (1958) attach to parents for contact comfort - monkey experiment (terry towling monkey - baby clung to for comfort even with other hard monkey provided milk)

105
Q

How can deprivation of contact comfort impact social development?

A

Loving, affectionate contact with child fosters growth/survival - deficit of this negatively impacts brain development.
Sexual abuse = psychologically damagine
Abuse / neglect includes - malnutrition, physical or sexual abuse, psychological abuse, substance abuse.
Factors in abuse - community, cultural, parenting styles, lack of parent education.

106
Q

What are the 4 principals in Kohlberg’s stage model for moral development?

A
  1. Can only be at one stage at a time
  2. Stages are sequential - work through in order
  3. Every stage more complex than the one before
  4. All stages occur in every culture
107
Q

What are Kohlberg’s moral developmental stages:

A

Pre-moral

  1. Obedience v’s punishment
  2. Individualism & exhange

Conventional

  1. Good boy/good girl
  2. Law and order

Post-conventional

  1. Social contract
  2. Universal Principal
108
Q

What are two types of develpmental influences?

A
  1. Normative influences

2. Non-normative influences

109
Q

What are normative influences in developmental psychology?

A

Development that happens to all humans - similar experiences in age group:

  • age-related physical changes
  • age related social transitions
  • Specific physical changes - puberty/menopause
110
Q

What are non-normative influences in developmental psychology?

A

Random/non-typical events that are unpredictable/have big impact on individual:
* serious illness/accident

111
Q

Piaget’s 4 stages - brief exlplanations:

A
  1. Sensorimotor stage - object permenance
  2. Preoperational - magical thinking (creative play) assimulation, egocentric, conservation
  3. Concrete operational - logical thinking, accommodation
  4. Formal operational - abstract thinking
112
Q

What is memory?

A

Encoding, retaining and accessing information over a period of time.

113
Q

Which factors can negatively impact memory?

A 
Stress
Overload - high amount of information
Anxiety
Age
Hormones
114
Q

What is intelligence?

A

Capability to learn new information and gain skills

115
Q

Name two most studied forms of sensory memory:

A
  1. Iconic - visual memory - lasts less 1/2 second

2. Echoic - aural memory - lasts 3-4 seconds

116
Q

What is working memory?

A 
Retaining information before it is processed, chosen to be moved to long-term memory.  
Working memory than hold 7 +/- 2 pieces of info at a time
# of info hold depends on how old a person is and how complex the information is.
117
Q

Which part of working memory processes visual / spacial information?

A

Visuo-spacial sketch pad

118
Q

Which part of working memory processes verbal information (words/numbers)?

A

Phonological loop

119
Q

Which part of the working memory helps integrate both visual-spacial and verbal information?

A

The Central Executive

120
Q

Where is integrated information from the visuo-spacial sketch pad and phonological loop temporarily stored before heading to the long-term memory?

A

The Episode Buffer (connector to long-term memory)

121
Q

How much information can the long-term memory store?

A

Infinitive amount

122
Q

What are two parts of the long-term memory and what type of information do they store?

A
  1. Explicit meomory (declarative) - facts/events easily described (conscious)
  2. Implicit (non-declarative) (unconscious)
123
Q

Explicity memory (declarative) has two categories - what are these?

A

A. Semantic memory (words based) - memory of names of capital cities
B. Episodic memory (events/experienced based)

124
Q

Implicit memory (non-declarative) has two categories - what are these?

A

A. Procedural memories - small steps involved in an action - i.e. how much pressure to apply to pedal when riding a bike
B. Priming - past experiences colour interpretation/understanding of current events/experiences

Implicit memories are subconscious

125
Q

What is short-term memory?

A

Ability to hold/access a small amount of information for a short period of time, all thought accessible in present moment - includes information from sensory memory (iconic an echoic). Capacity 7 +/- 2 pieces of information.

126
Q

Are short term and working memory the same thing?

A

Talked about interchangeably, however, short-term memory is part of working memory (all structures involved in short-term memory, but can manipulate memories, whereas short-term memory only stores information).

127
Q

What are two types of interference that affects the storage of memories?

A

A. Proactive - past memories making new memories difficult to encode/retrieve
B. Retroactive - new memories make it difficult to retrieve older memories

128
Q

What are two factors that affect the storage of memories?

A
  1. Interference

2. Life events/trauma/anterograde amnesia

129
Q

What type of process is memory retrieval?

A

A reconstructive one.

130
Q

Which factors affect memory retrieval?

A 
Context
Environmnet
Health
Illness
Concentration
131
Q

What are organic causes liked to forgetting?

A

Demential/Alzheimers
Brain injury
Psychological distress
Retrieval issues - memory trace - no access (tip of tongue experiences over lifetime)

132
Q

What does IQ stand for?

A

Intelligence Quota

133
Q

What is intelligence?

A

Ability to learn from experiences, reason, problem solve, use logic, memory recall, apply information previously learned.

134
Q

What is an IQ test?

A

Questions that produce a numerical score - compared to others - sets ‘normal’ range of intelligence, so test can identify if individual is out of the ‘normal’ range.

135
Q

Describe the theory that focusses on one general intelligence - the G factor:

A

Theorises that if you are strong at one type of testing (say verbal) you’ll be equally strong at other types of learning/testing (say maths). The G factor explains this - equality between different types of learning.

136
Q

Describe Robert Sternberg’s developmental theory of 3 x main intelligences:

A

A. Analytical intelligence - academic capabilities/problem solving (IQ reflects analytical intelligence)
B. Creative Intelligence - able to adapt to changing circumstances and create novel thoughts/ideas
C. Practical intelligence - lateral problem solving

137
Q

What is emotional intelligence?

A

Ability to understand own and others’ emotions, manage own emotions when interacting with people.

138
Q

What is fluid intelligence?

A

Ability to use logic and abstract reasoning to solve problem.

139
Q

What is crystallised intelligence?

A

Knowledge that accumulates over lifetime plus verbal skills

140
Q

What happens to fluid and crystallised intelligence as humans’ age?

A

Crystallised intelligence either stays the same or increases.
Fluid intelligence, in particular, processing speed, decreases.

141
Q

Who Developed the first intelligence test?

A

Alfred Benet (France) - identify child developmental age to predict performance at school. Not adaptive to all cultures.

142
Q

Does either nature or nurture impact/affect intelligence?

A

Both nature and nurture - work together to influence intelligence (determined from twin studies)

143
Q

What is a fixed mindset?

A

Belief that intelligence level is pre-determined, static, unchangeable.

144
Q

What is a growth mindset?

A

Understanding that intelligence can grow and adapt, that the brain plasticity allows for intelligence to be developed. People with a growth mindset are more motivated and achieve in life.

145
Q

A person wtih high emotional intelligence will be able to:

A
  • understand that emotions displayed could be in response to other emotions - anger displayed, sadness under the surface - anger is defense mechanism when hurt
  • be resilient when desired outcome doesn’t eventuate - psychological flexibility
  • keeps pessimism in check - positive outcome
146
Q

What type of lessons teach emotional intelligence?

A
  • How to understand own emotions (what am I feeling)
  • Where do emotions come from
  • How do childhood experiences affect us
  • How to manage fears/anger - big emotions in general
147
Q

Ways to educate the population in emotional intelligence?

A

Include messages in books, plays, tv shows

148
Q

What are emotional competancies according to Martin Goleman?

A
  1. Self awareness - read own emotions
  2. Self regulation - regulate own emotions
  3. Social Awareness - pick up on/understand emotions of others
  4. Relationship Managment - inspire others and manage emotional conflict.
149
Q

Other than the brain, what else is involved in memory?

A

Behaviour and environment.

150
Q

What are the three main functions of memory?

A
  1. Encoding - forming mental representations in mind
  2. Storage - retaining information encoded over time (maintenance)
  3. Retrieval - being able to regain access to information over time
151
Q

What is retrograde amnesia?

A

Having no access to memories made before a traumatic event.

152
Q

Which part of the brain temporarily stores visual information?

A

The occipital lobe

153
Q

Which part of the brain temporarily stores auditory information?

A

The temporal lobe

154
Q

Sensory information is held briefly in short-term memory. How long is it held for?

A

20 seconds, unless rehearsed, then held in short-term memory for longer.

155
Q

List three ways forgetting happens?

A
  1. decay - info breaks down if not rehearsed - lost
  2. displacement - can be replaced with fresher memories
  3. interference - pre-existing memories affect the way new memories are remembered.
156
Q

What is chunking?

A

Breaking larger pieces of information into ‘chunks’, smaller pieces, and rehearsed - transported to LT memory in chunks and these chunks can then be linked to reassemble larger pieces of information. A technique of remembering.

157
Q

Categories of long term memory:

A

Long Term Memory

  • Declarative/Explicit (conscious) - facts/events
  • Episodic - memories of experiences * Semantic - words, facts, concepts
  • Procedural/Implicit (subconscious) - how to do things
158
Q

How can a clinicial assist a client/patient to remember information from session?

A
  • make sure client gets opporunity to repeat/rehearse info during session
  • ensure verbal and written information is given, maybe even accompanied with pictures to aid memory
  • communicate with a way that resonates - did the client make connection with information?
  • pay attention to mood of client - anxious, low mood, distracted etc.
159
Q

Which part of the brain is associated with cognitive intelligence?

A

Neocortex

160
Q

Which intellectual capabilities is the neocortex responsible for?

A 
logic
reason
reading
writing
analysing
prioritising
161
Q

Which higher order functions is the neocortex associated with?

A 
perception of senses
motor movements (commands)
spatial reasoning
thought - conscious
language
162
Q

Binet & Simon’s intelligence test was re-jigged in the US - who was responsible for the adaptation?

A

Louis Turman - Stanford university - standardised test and adapted it for USA use. Extended test to include 14 year olds.
1916 test renamed Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale

163
Q

Who established the Intelligence Quotient (IQ)?

A

William Stern - Stanford University - maths formula

164
Q

Which alternative / adjusted intelligence test is used today?

A

Wechsler test - developed 1930 - acknowledges different forms of intelligence.

165
Q

What were limitations with the Binet-Simon intelligence Test?

A 
Not applicable to all cultures
Derogatory classifications of capability
Didn't factor age-related decline
Single scored test
Only measured one type of intelligence
166
Q

What are the pros of intelligence tests?

A
  • Asist children to get access to schools that offer better academic support
  • Identifies cognitive strengths/weaknesses
  • Helps teachers/health workers understand students/clients - best support them
  • Explains brain function - how to support
167
Q

What are the cons of inteligence tests?

A
  • Only representative of certain cognitive abilities - don’t highlight other types of intelligence, strengths or weaknesses.
  • Insight into cognitive function in one time period (snapshot) - could be tired, unwell, anxious on day of test
  • Categorises/labels - could cause discrimination by teachers/peers/community
168
Q

Dimensions of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale fourth edition are:

A
  • Verbal comprehension
  • Perceptual reasoning - fluid/visuo-spacial
  • Working Memory
  • Processing Speed
169
Q

Dimensionso of the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children - fith edition are:

A
  • Verbal comprehension
  • Visual-spatial reasoning
  • Fluid reasoning
  • Working memory
  • Processing speed
170
Q

What are the domains of intelligence measured by the Wechsler Intellighence Scales?

A
  1. Verbal comprehension
  2. Visual-spacial reasoning
  3. Fluid reasoning
  4. Working memory
  5. Processing speed
  6. Perceptual reasoning
171
Q

What is encoding?

A

Processing of information - converting into mental representations in working memory. Culture may impact the way a brain encodes information. If information is encoded well, it will be easier to reconstruct/access later.

172
Q

What are the trhee parts of working memory?

A
  1. Phonological loop - info from echoic (auditory) memory
  2. Visuo-spatial sketchpad - info from iconic memory
  3. Central Executive - coordinates info from phonological loop and visuo-spatial sketchpad
173
Q

Short-term memory is part of which memory?

A

Working memory

174
Q

What is the special focus of short-term memory?

A

mental representations essential for brain processes

175
Q

What is the working memory span?

A

Capcity/measure of ability of working memory.

176
Q

Which type of intelligence was identified by Raymond Cattell?

A

Fluid and crystalised intelligence.

177
Q

What are retrieval cues?

A

Cues/triggers (stimuli) that help us access memories - sounds, sights, environments, phrases, touch (textures), tastes, smells - senses. The purpose of retrieval may cue the retrieval of information. The quality of the retrieval cue may help access to the information.

178
Q

Which social factors are connected with mental illness?

A
  • Poverty
  • Unemployment
  • Reduced productivity
  • Homelessness
179
Q

What are three key issues related to mental illnesses?

A
  1. Isolation
  2. Discrimination
  3. Stigma
180
Q

What is the percentage of Australians that suffer from mental health?

A

45% - 2016 = 1 in 5 Australians

181
Q

What does DSM-5 stand for?

A

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (300 mental disorders)

182
Q

List main groups of mental disorders:

A
  1. Mood disorders - depression / bipolar disorder
  2. Anxiety disorders - panic / social anxiety
  3. Personality disorders - borderline personality disorder/narcissistic personality disorder
  4. Eating disorders - anorexia nervosa
  5. Psychotic disorders - schizophrenia
  6. Substance abuse disorders - alcohol abuse
183
Q

Name the three most common psychological disorders:

A

Most common - anxiety disorders
2nd most common - depression
3rd most common - substance abuse disorders

184
Q

List the main types of anxiety:

A
  1. Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD)
  2. Specific phobias
  3. Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)
  4. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
  5. Panic disorder
  6. Social disorder
185
Q

What is the average in regards to experiencing depression:

A

1 in 6 people - 1 in 5 women, 1 in 8 men

186
Q

List symptoms associated with depression:

A
  1. low mood / irritability / negative feelings about self / overwhelmed
  2. low energy/loss of appetite
  3. reduced ability to sleep or increased ability to sleep (sleeping excessively)

Low mood for longer than 2 weeks could suggest depression

187
Q

List the pathways affecting depression connected with diet:

A

inflammatory/oxidateive stress pathways
brain placticity
gut microbiota

188
Q

What does the SMILES trial suggest clinicians should address with depression first?

A
  • diet (increaseing plant-based food)
  • exercise
  • sleep
  • smoking
189
Q

How does VIC Mental Health Act 2014 define a mental illness?

A
  • disturbance - thought, mood, memory
190
Q

What is meant by comorbid illness?

A

Strong correlation between psychotic illness and reduced physical health - increased risk of type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular diseases. Can be two mental health disorders coinciding also.

191
Q

Mental illness is hard to define - what are some of the criteria for defining a mental disorder?

A
  1. Statistical rarity
  2. Subjective stress
  3. Impairment
  4. Social disapproval
  5. Biological dysfunction
192
Q

Why was there an increase in homelessness in Australia in the 1960s/70s?

A

Deinstitutionlisation - closing of mental hospitals.

193
Q

List two reasons why a mental health diagnosis is important:

A
  1. Understand condition affecting individual - determine how to best support / help condition
  2. Communication between medical practitioners
194
Q

What can a mental health diagnosis communciate?

A
  1. Confirm what the symptoms are not
  2. Predict certain results from lab tests
  3. Predicts / identifies possible family history to investigate
  4. Can predict what may occur in future
  5. Can predict the likely response to treatment
195
Q

Benefits of using the DSM-5 to assist diagnosis?

A
  • Lists criteria for mental health disorders
  • Warns of other causes, symptoms, illnesses etc - able to investigate medical symptoms first
  • Gives strong idea of community prevalence
  • Takes a biopsychosocial approach
  • Culturally relevant information listed
196
Q

What is an anxiety disorder?

A

When anxiety becomes invasive and interferes with day to day living - excessive and ongoing worries. GAD - worry 60% of the day.

197
Q

List genetic/biological factors of anxiety:

A
  • anxiety/depression share neural pathways
  • genetic link to neuroticism (one of big 5 personality traits - OCEAN) - increase incidence with anxiety/depression (personality traints)
  • genes carry info for seratonin/glutamate related to OCD
  • OCD - more thoughts / active frontal lobes
198
Q

List factors for major depressive disorder:

A
  • 20% Australians over life - mood disorder
  • Can commence at any age
  • Women - twice as likely to develop depression
  • Possible underdiagnosis in men
  • Average period of depression = 6 months
  • Depression can be ongoing - years
  • Can make day to day functioning difficult
199
Q

List factors that could contribute to development of depression / mood disorder:

A
  • genetic predisposistion
  • personality traits
  • stressful/traumatic life events
  • intimate relationships
  • negative thoughts/helplessness
200
Q

List theorists and main ideas about depression:

A
  • Freud - loss - leads to depression
  • Coyne - interpersonal problems - social disorder
  • Lewinsohn - behavioural - loss of positive reinforcement
  • Beck - behavioural - disorder of thinking - negative self thought/inaccurate perceptions/depressive realism
  • Seligman - learned helplessness - loss of control of life events
201
Q

What role does biology play in depression?

A
  • genetic link
  • link with seratonin transporter gene - sensitive (if 2 x copies of sensitive gene - increased chance depression)
  • low levels norepinephrine with depression
  • brain reward/stress response system not working properly = lower dopamine levels (hard to feel pleasure)
202
Q

What is bipolar disorder?

A

Characterised by mood swings - depression / manic episodes.

203
Q

List characteristics of bipolar disorder:

A
  • manic episode. - high mood, reduced requirement for sleep, high energy, high confidence, talkative, increased irresponsibility
  • high volume of thoughts - burst of creativity
  • incidence rates men/women - equal
  • episodes could be frequent or occasional
  • depressive episode generally comes after manic ep
  • manic eps difficult work/relationships
  • 60-85% inherited
  • genetic sensitivity with dopamine receptors and decreased sensitivity of seratonin receptors - many genes contribute to disorder
  • MRI shows increased activity of amygdala (emotion center) and decreased activity prefrontal cortex (planning)
  • stress can be a trigger
204
Q

List risk factors for suicide:

A 
depression
hopelessness
substance abuse
schizophrenia
homosexuality (stigma)
unemployment
chronic illness
death of friend/close relative
family history
personality disorder
anxiety disorder 
old age
205
Q

What are two more common personality disorders?

A
  1. Borderline Personality Stable Instability - 2-6% adults, mainly females.
  2. Psychopathic Personality
206
Q

What are symptoms of Borderline Personality Disorder?

A
  • mostly females experience
  • changing mood
  • identity issues
  • difficulty with impulse control - behaviour unpredictable
  • fluctuating wildly emotionally
  • high-risk behaviour (drug/alcohol abuse, self-harming behaviours, overeating
  • feel abandoned
  • promiscuous
  • 85% recovery over 10 years treatment - relapse 12%
207
Q

List Borderline Personality Theorists - Kernberg, Linehan, Sleby and Joiner and main theories:

A

Kernberg - childhood issues with connection/empathy from mother

Linehan - sociobiological model - strong response to stress, tricky emotional regulation, question value/whether loved

Selby/joiner - focus on negative thoughts - cycle of negative though and self harm.

208
Q

List symptoms of psychopathic personality:

A
  • never experience guilt
  • often dishonest
  • manipulative
  • self-obsessed
  • despite above, and have friendly manner
  • don’t care if actions are morally bereft
  • no fear
  • high risk-taking
209
Q

Name three dissociative disorders:

A
  1. Depersonalisation/derealisation disorder
  2. Dissociative amnesia disorder (dissociative fugue - last hours, days usually)
  3. Dissociative Identitiy disorder (multiple personalities)
210
Q

What is a psychotic disorder?

A

A psychotic disorder often involves distorted/abnormal thinking patterns, a disconnection from reality, delusions and hallucinations (often auditory) - i.e. schizophrenia. Difficult to maintain normal life - job/relationships etc.

211
Q

Common delusions associated with schizophrenia are:

A
  • sexuality
  • grandeur
  • guilt crimes

IDH_Psych (10 decks)

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