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Lear 45 TCAS Flashcards

Memory items (and a few extras)

1
Q

Maximum time for the engine to accelerate from initiation of start to idle N1

A

60 Seconds

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2
Q

What are the speeds for flap settings 8 degrees, 20 degrees, 40 degrees?

A

250 kts, 200 kts, 150 kts

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3
Q

If no indication of ITT occurs after 10 seconds what should be done.

A

Abort Start

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4
Q

Which side is considered the master engine with reference to engine syncronization

A

Left

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5
Q

What does APR stand for?

A

Automatic Performance Reserve

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6
Q

How much additional thrust does the APR provide?

A

150 pounds per engine

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7
Q

What is the DEEC

A

Digital Electronic Engine Control - controls systems such as automatic start sequence, thrust management, spool speed, engine syncronization, APR.

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8
Q

What type of oil system is on the Lear engines?

A

Pressure-scavenge system

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9
Q

Oil must be checked within _____ hour of shut down for an accurate check.

A

One

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10
Q

What is normal oil consumption

A

1 quart every 25 hours

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11
Q

If oil filter becomes clogged what will happen?

A

Bypass valve opens allowing unfiltered oil into the engine and a L/R OIL FILTER message will be on the CAS

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12
Q

An white L/R OIL FILTER light on the CAS in flight indicates:

A

Impending oil filter bypass

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13
Q

Are the thrust reversers electrically or hydraulically deployed?

A

Hydraulic

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14
Q

What is the lowest speed that TRs can be used?

A

40 kts

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15
Q

Is the max engine thrust when using the TRs controlled automatically or manually by the pilot?

A

automatically

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16
Q

What can happen if the TRs are used below 40 kts?

A

Reingestion of exhaust gases or foreign objects damage.

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17
Q

What should be done if a L/R REV UNSAFE warning light comes on during takeoff after V1

A
  1. Rotate at Vr
  2. Retract gear
  3. Climb at V2 up to 1500 feet or obstacle clearance altitude.
  4. Then climb at V2 + 25 kts
  5. Retract Flaps
  6. Climb at 200kts
    * Go to checklist*
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18
Q

What does N1 refer to?

A

Fan speed on the engine

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19
Q

What does N2 refer to?

A

The High Pressure (HP) rotating group including the HP compressor and turbine

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20
Q

What is the primary thrust indicating instrument?

A

N1

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21
Q

The accessory drive section is driven by the:

A

HP spool

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22
Q

If the DEEC fails to provide overspeed protection, an overspeed governor limits engine speed to:

A

105% of N2

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23
Q

A GPU or APU is recommended for starts although battery starts are an option. Below what temperature should battery starts be avoided?

A

0 degrees Celsius

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24
Q

What happens if there is a short in the fire detection system in flight?

A

A white L or R ENG FIRE FAIL light will illuminate on the CAS

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25
Q

The fire extinguishers and shut off valves are powered by the _____ busses.

A

Hot

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26
Q

What are the checklist items for an engine fire?

A
  1. Thrust lever - bring to idle
  2. Wait 15 seconds to see if fire indications go out.
  3. If they don’t go out bring the lever to cut off position
  4. Press Fire button
  5. Activate fire Extinguisher
    * Go to Checklist*
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27
Q

What does FWSOV stand for?

A

Fire Wall Shut Off Valve

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28
Q

Where are the two fire extinguishing agent containers located?

A

On the right side in the tail cone equipment bay

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29
Q

What should the pressure reading be on the fire extinguisher bottles when checked on preflight?

A

Between 400 and 800 psi depending on the temperature.

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30
Q

What is purpose of the red indicator disc on the right side of the fuselage?

A

It will be ruptured if either one of the extinguisher bottles has been thermally discharged

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31
Q

What is the purpose of the yellow indicator disc on the right side of the fuselage?

A

It will be ruptured if either one of the extinguisher bottles was discharged by depressing the extinguisher buttons in on the fuel panel in the cockpit.

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32
Q

Cabin bleed air comes from the ____ bleed air.

A

Low Pressure

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33
Q

Wing and tail heat come from the _____ bleed air

A

High Pressure

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34
Q

What does the EMER PRESS button do?

A

It diverts LP bleed air directly into the cabin bypassing the ECU (environmental control unit)

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35
Q

How is the hydraulic reservoir pressurized?

A

HP bleed air

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36
Q

Emergency pressurization is normally activated at what cabin pressure altitude?

A

9500 ft by the cabin pressure controller

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37
Q

When should HI FLOW not be used?

A
  1. Above 30,000 ft
  2. When using wing anti ice
  3. On takeoff and landing
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38
Q

What is the engine out procedure above V1?

A
  1. Rotate at Vr
  2. Retract gear
  3. Climb to 1500 ft AGL or obstacle clearance altitude
  4. Accelerate to V2 + 25.
  5. Retract flaps
  6. Climb at 200 kts
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39
Q

“Pull up, pull up”

A
  1. Auto Pilot - disengage
  2. Thrusters - to TO or APR
  3. Nose up
  4. Spoilers retract
  5. Flaps up to approach
  6. Gear up
  7. Flaps up all the way
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40
Q

Emergency descent

A
  1. Masks on
  2. Throttles to idle
  3. Autopilot - disengage
  4. Spoilers deploy
  5. Descend at Vmo/Mmo
  6. Passenger masks deploy
  7. Mic/Mask button
  8. INPH button on
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41
Q

Cabin Fire

A
  1. Oxygen Masks On
  2. Goggles on
  3. Press emer depressurization button
  4. Pilot mic/mask button
  5. PIlot INPH button
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42
Q

How long should the engine Idle prior to cutoff?

A

1 minute

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43
Q

At what temperatures is icing possible?

A

10º C to -40º C and visible moisture present

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44
Q

If the ice detection probe senses ice it will indicate ICE DETECTED on the CAS in white letters for how long?

A

1 minute after which the letters will turn yellow

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45
Q

If icing conditions are present the WING/STAB anti ice should be turned on _________ minutes prior to setting takeoff power.

A

2 minutes

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46
Q

Nacelle anti ice defaults to the ______ position when not powered.

A

On position - nacelle leading edge heat fails to the on position if the ship loses electrical power.

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47
Q

What do the engine alternators power?

A

The windshield heats

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48
Q

How does the crew know that an alternator has failed?

A

The windshield on the side of the failed alternator does not work.

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49
Q

Where does the bleed air go after it has heated the wing leading edges?

A

It is then directed into the center wing area.

50
Q

What does the HI FLOW button do?

A

It allows sufficient bleed air for heating and cooling.

51
Q

What happens to the cabin air temp when emergency pressurization is selected?

A

LP bleed air bypasses the ECU and comes in at a very warm temperature causing the cabin to get quite warm.

52
Q

If the cabin is depressurized using the EMER DEPRESS button, to what altitude will the cabin climb?

53
Q

The destination field elevation is normally set ______ _______.

A

before takeoff

54
Q

What is the maximum cabin pressure at 51,000 ft?

55
Q

What is the normal hydraulic system pressure?

56
Q

How many pumps provide pressure to the hydraulic system?

A

2 - one on each engine

57
Q

If the hydraulic system fails what can the crew do?

A

Press the AUX HYD switch on the landing gear panel which will provide pressure from the auxiliary hydraulic pump.

58
Q

Which systems are hydraulically operated on the Lear 45?

A

Flaps, Spoilers, Thrust Reversers, Brakes, Emergency parking brake, landing gear

59
Q

How many times can the emergency brakes be cycled based on the accumulator pressure?

A

6 times - the parking brake will hold for approximately 48 hours

60
Q

If a main gear green down position light does not illuminate what is an alternative way to confirm it is down?

A

Illumination of the taxi lights on the main gear since the power for the lights is routed through the main gear down and lock switches.

61
Q

How long does it take for the gear to extend or retract?

A

11 seconds

62
Q

How long does the gear take to freefall?

A

No more than 1 minute

63
Q

How many degrees can the nose wheel be turned?

A

60 degrees at slow speed which lessens in proportion to speed down to 7 degrees at lift off speed

64
Q

Cabin/cockpit, smoke, fire, fumes

A
  1. Mask on
  2. Goggles on.
  3. EMER DEPRESS
  4. pilot and copilot mic/mask
  5. INPH on
65
Q

Loss of both generators and main batteries

A
  1. L&R battery On one at a time
  2. L&R generator CB set
  3. Engine N2 80%
  4. L&R gen on one at a time
66
Q

Oxygen system limits

A

Masks not approved above 40,000ft

67
Q

Rudder boost

A

On for takeoff

68
Q

Spoiler limits

A

Do not extend when flaps are extended

69
Q

Thrust Reverser limits

A
  1. Do not use for backing up
  2. Do not use for touch and go landings
  3. Max reverse useable down to 40 its
  4. Limited to idle when in MANual mode
70
Q

Emergency evacuation checklist

A
  1. Emergency parking brake on
  2. Thrust lever to cutoff
  3. Emergency lights on
  4. Emer Batt, L&R batteries off
71
Q

Engine failure above V1 checklist

A
  1. Rotate at V1
  2. Gear up
  3. Climb at V2 to 1500 AGL or obstacle clearance altitude.
  4. Accelerate to V2 +25
  5. retract flaps
    6 accelerate to 200 KIAS
72
Q 
Weight Limits
Ramp weight
Take off weight
Minimum flight weight
Zero fuel weight
Landing weight
A 
Ramp                 21,750
Take off             21500
Min FLT weight   14000
Zero Fuel           16500
Landing               19200
73
Q

Takeoff limits

A

Pressure altitude 14000 ft

tailwind component max 10 kts

74
Q

Landing limits

A

Pressure altitude 14000 ft
tailwind component 10 kts
max 3/4 inch water on runway
wing fuel within 200 lbs

75
Q

Airspeed limits with Primary display
Vmo
Mmo

A

Vmo 330 kts
Mmo .81 mach
- mach trim and autopilot inop above 23000 to 42,000 mach .76-.78. Above 42,000 - Mach .78

76
Q

Auto Spoilers must be ________ for takeoff and landing

77
Q

Roll or Yaw axis uncommanded motion

A
  1. Control Wheel Master - Depress and hold

2. Attitude Control - as required

78
Q

Emergency braking

A

Pull Smoothly as it does not activate anti lock braking

79
Q

Nose Wheel Steering malfunction

A
  1. Control Wheel Master (MSW)- Depress and release

2. Thrust levers - idle

80
Q

“Stall”

A
  1. Lower pitch attitude to reduce angle of attack
  2. Thrust Levers - T/O or APR if required
  3. Level wings
  4. Accelerate out of stall
81
Q

Aborted takeoff

A
  1. Brakes

2. Thrust levers - idle

82
Q

Left or Right TR unsafe below V1

A
  1. Brakes

2. Thrust levers - idle

83
Q

Left or Right TR unsafe above V1

A
  1. Rotate at Vr
  2. Gear Up
  3. Climb at V2 to 1500 all or obstacle clearance alt
  4. Then V2 + 25
  5. Flaps up
  6. Climb at 200kts (cruise climb)
84
Q

“Overspeed”

A
  1. Thrust Levers to idle
  2. Auto pilot - disengage
  3. Spoiler - extend
85
Q

Pitch axis uncommanded motion

A
  1. Control Wheel Master (MSW) - Depress and hold
  2. Attitude Control - As required
  3. Thrust levers - as required
86
Q

Elevator Control Jam

A
  1. Attitude control - as required use pitch trim and thrust as necessary
  2. ELEV DISC - pull and rotate
  3. Determine elevator without the jam and transition flight control to that pilot.
  4. Do not use pitch trim bias
87
Q

Immediate engine airstart

A
  1. Thrust lever - idle (ignition will automatically activate)
  2. STBY (fuel) - On
88
Q

Engine Failure during takeoff - below V1

A
  1. Brakes

2. Thrust levers - idle

89
Q

“Right or left engine fire”

A
  1. Thruster to idle
  2. If fire continues for more than 15 seconds - thrust lever to cutoff
  3. FIRE button - push
  4. EXTINGUISHER button - push
90
Q

“Cabin Altitude”

A
  1. Crew Masks on
  2. Thrust levers - idle
  3. Auto Pilot - off
  4. Spoiler - extend
  5. Descend at Vmo or Mmo
  6. DEPLOY - pax oxygen masks
  7. Crew Mic/Mask button - Mask
  8. Crew INPH - INPH
91
Q

External power (GPU) max amperage

92
Q

Generator Limit output

A

300 amps - higher transient loads allowed for cross starts and battery charging

93
Q

APU operations is ______ during gravity refueling and deicing/anti-icing.

A

prohibited

94
Q

If the APU amber CAS message is illuminated you may not _________-.

95
Q

If the APU automatically shuts down before takeoff what must be done?

A

Flight is not permitted until a visual inspection of the APU is conducted.

96
Q

What is the limitation of the APU generator?

A

300 amps continuous output

97
Q

What are pressurization limitations?

A

+9.9 psid to -0.5 psid

98
Q

What are the main tire speed limits?

99
Q

What is the fuel imbalance limit for takeoff?

100
Q

What are starter cooling limitations?

A

First attempt - wait 1 minute
Second attempt - wait 2 minutes
Third attempt - wait 30 minutes

101
Q

What are the altitude limits of the autopilot/flight director?

A

Climb/enroute cruise - 500 ft AGL

Landing - 200 feet AGL

102
Q

How many minutes wait are required between landing touchdown and takeoff thrust for next takeoff?

A

15 minutes

103
Q

What is gear operating speed and gear extended speed?

A

200 kts - Vlo

260 kts - Vle

104
Q

What are flap operation speed and angles?

A

Flaps 8º - 250 kts
Flaps 20º - 200 kts
Flaps 40º - 150 kts

105
Q

What is the flap operation altitude limit?

106
Q

What is the gear operation altitude limit?

107
Q

Intentional stalls are prohibited above _________ ft.

108
Q

The EICAS or MFD must be set to the _____ or _____ pg for takeoff and landing.

A

SUMRY or FLT

109
Q

Service ceiling/max pressure altitude limit

110
Q

Fuel load I’mbalance in cruise can be no more than ________ lbs.

111
Q

What is the minimum control speed on the ground?

A

Rudder boost on, APR on - 105 kts

Rudder boost on, APR off - 100 kts

112
Q

What are the airspeed/mach limits on standby instruments?

A

Vmo - 325 KIAS

Mmo - .75 Mach

113
Q

Power Plant ITT limitation BR engines.

A 
APR - 1013
T/O - 991º
MCT - 991º
MCR - 974º
START - 991º
114
Q

Engine failure final approach

A
  1. Control Wheel Master (MSW) - Depress and release
  2. Thrust lever operative engine - increase as necessary
  3. Flaps - 20º
  4. Airspeed - Vref + 5
115
Q

Aileron Control jam

A
  1. Attitude Control - Use rudder and thrust as necessary
  2. Roll DISC - Pull
    • pilot side only has control
    • do not use aileron trim
116
Q

Rudder control jam

A
  1. Use roll control and Thrust as necessary
117
Q

What would cause an amber” L/R ESS BUS VOLTS” CAS message? In other words, what is the lower and upper limit of normal voltage.

A

bus voltage below 22 VDC and above 29.5 VDC

118
Q

AirSpeed/ Mach limits standby instruments

A

325 kias/ .75 M

119
Q

When the FWSOV is pressed which systems are disconnected?

A
  1. Bleed air shut off valve
  2. Main fuel shut off valve
  3. Alternator turned off
  4. Hydraulic shut off
  5. TR isolation valve
  6. Ignition
  7. Arms engine fire extinguisher
  8. Generator shut off.
120
Q

What lights are activated when the emergency lights are turned on?

A
  1. 5 lighted exit signs, 2 per exit
  2. 4 reading lights
  3. 8 floor proximity lights
  4. main door egress lights
  5. External emergency exit egress light
  6. lavatory light

Lear45 TCAS (15 decks)

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