Law Exam Concise Deck Flashcards

1
Q

The ……….. at each installment of an installment prescription must be stated.

A

The quantity at each installment of an installment prescription must be stated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What must a pre-reg technician complete before registration with the GPhC?

A

A pre-reg technician must complete a 2 year level 3 GPhC approved knowledge + vocational course before registration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What records must be kept for CD schedule 4 part 1 drugs?

A

Invoices must be kept for 2 years for CD schedule 4 part 1 drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What schedule control drugs can be supplied on a repeat prescription?

A

Schedule 4 & 5 control drugs can be supplied on a repeat presription.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does CCG stand for?

A

CCGs are clinical commissioning groups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the main functions of the GPhC?

A
  1. maintain register of pharmacy professionals and premisses
  2. publish 9 standards we work to
  3. publish & monitor CPD framework
  4. approve qualifications, education & training for pharmacy professionals
  5. investigate fitness to practice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the maximum number of days/doses able to be supplied on an installment prescription?

A

14 days/doses can be supplied over a maximum 28 day period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the additional prescription requirements for CD schedule 4 part 1 drugs?

A

There are no additional prescription requirements for CD schedule 4 part 1 drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why is clinical effectiveness (in relation to clinical audits) important?

A
  • working to best practice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why are SOPs important?

A
  • set of instructions
  • safe working practices
  • everyone working to the same standards
  • avoid errors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the roles of the responsible pharmacist?

A
  1. display sign with name & registration number on it.
  2. complete pharmacy record daily
  3. oversee day-to-day running of the pharmacy
  4. ensure SOPs are up-to-date
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the role of health and wellbeing boards?

A

Health and wellbeing boards promote integration between different NHS bodies, public health & local government.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What % alcohol is industrial denatured alcohol (IDA)?

A

Industrial denatured alcohol (IDA) is 70% alcohol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How might clinical audits (in relation to clinical governance) be implemented in pharmacy?

A
  • CD audits - both in pharmacy and on the ward
  • chief exec audit
  • chief of nursing audit
  • clinical audits
  • CQC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the employer responsibilities relating to HASAWA?

A
  • safe environment
  • implement & update SOPs
  • have a health and safety representative
  • have a first aider
  • provide training
  • risk assessments
  • provide correct PPE equipment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the legal prescription requirements?

A
  1. Name of the patient
  2. Address of the patient
  3. Age of the patient (DOB if under 12)
  4. Indelible ink
  5. Date of prescription
  6. Address of the prescriber
  7. Doctors signature
  8. Prescriber’s registration (eg GMC number)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How are schedule 2 controlled drugs destroyed?

A

Schedule 2 drugs are denatured with authority witness.

Must remember to update CD register if destroying own stock.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the uses of the drug tariff? (6)

A
  1. rules for NHS dispensing and endorsing
  2. fees & allowances
    • extra money for dispensing CDs or unlicensed
  3. disallowed products
  4. prices for commonly used generic medicines
  5. specifications and prices for appliances
    • (size and shape allowed on NHS prescription)
  6. appliances and reagents allowable on NHS prescription
    • glucose and protein sticks, stoma products, hosiery, dressings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What information needs to be on a veterinary label

A
  1. name and address of the owner
  2. name and species of animal
  3. name of prescribing vet
  4. name & address of pharmacy that supplied the medicine
  5. name of drug (quantity, form, strength)
  6. directions + dosage instructions
  7. date medicine supplied
  8. storage instructions
  9. expiry date of medicine
  10. any warnings (ie after food)
  11. withdrawal period (if applicable)
  12. for veterinary use only
  13. keep out of the reach of children
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a GSL?

A

A general sales license (GSL) medicine are those which in the opinion of the appropriate minister can with reasonable safety be sold or supplied otherwise than by or under the supervision of a pharmacist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Who can supervise a dose for an MDA prescription?

A

Anyone who has had the relevant training can supervise a supervised dose being taken.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does the NPSA stand for?

A

National Patient Safety Agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the additional prescription requirements for schedule 5 drugs?

A

There are no additional prescription requirements for schedule 5 drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the uses of completely denatured alcohol (CDA)?

A
  • cleaning
  • heating
  • lighting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Who regulates pharmacy technicians?

A

The GPhC regulates pharmacy technicians.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where do CD schedule 4 part 1 drugs need to be stored?

A

CD schedule 4 part 1 drugs can be stored on the regular shelves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are CD inv P or CD inv POMs?

A

CD inv P or CD inv POMs are schedule 5 drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does the person supplying the part III and part IV regulated substance need to be sure of to supply it?

A

The person supplying a part III or part IV regulated substance needs to be sure that the request is genuine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does NICE do?

A
  • provides evidence-based advice
  • provides quality standards and performance metrics
  • reccommends first-line treatments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What records must be kept for CD schedule 4 part 2 drugs?

A

The invoices must be kept for 2 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What must an accuracy checking technician undertake?

A

An accuracy checking technician must undertake an approved GPhC checking course.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How is research & development (in relation to clinical governance) implemented in pharmacy?

A
  • clinical trials
  • keeping up-to-date with new research developments
  • patient surveys
  • how things can be implemented in pharmacy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What additional prescription requirements are there for CD schedule 4 part 2 drugs?

A

There are no additional prescription requirements for CD schedule 4 part 2 drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are CD Anab POMs also known as?

A

CD Anab POMs are known as schedule 4 part 2 drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are CD Benz POMs also known as?

A

CD Benz POMs are schedule 4 part 1 controlled drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What must be on a hospital requisition for controlled drugs?

A
  • signature of the person requesting
    • which must also feature on approved signature list
  • total quantity to be supplied
    • (should also specify name, strength and form)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Why are clinical audits (in relation to clinical governance) important?

A
  • fresh pair of eyes
  • external audit - list of criteria need to meet
  • check CD stock levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which schedule control drugs cannot be supplied on a repeat prescription?

A

Schedule 2 & 3 control drugs cannot be prescribed on a repeat prescription.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What must be written in the CD register when supplying controlled drugs? (7)

A
  1. ward/ patient address delivered to
  2. name of staff who ordered/prescribed
  3. quantity dispensed
  4. amount still in CD cupboard (running balance)
  5. date supplied - in chronological order
  6. details of person collecting
  7. was ID asked for? was ID shown?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

POM-V and POM-VPS prescription legal requirements

A
  1. name of owner
  2. address of owner
  3. name & species of animal
  4. name of prescribing vet
  5. address of veterinary practice
  6. signature of prescriber
  7. vets qualification/registration
  8. if it is a repeat prescription
  9. date of prescription
    • 6 months regular, 28 days CD
  10. applicable warnings
  11. for veterinary use only - if schedule 2 or 3
  12. withdrawal period
  13. drug name (quantity & directions)
  14. prescribed under the veterinary cascade
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the requirements for a CD prescription? (12)

A
  1. date of prescription (28 days)
  2. strength must be stated
  3. form (at least 3 letters)
  4. name and address of recipient
  5. age if under 12
  6. address of prescriber
  7. signature of prescriber (handwritten)
  8. registered body number
  9. total quantity to be supplied in words and figures
  10. “for dental use only”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the roles of a medicines counter assistant?

A
  • retail counter
  • customers
  • OTC
  • take in and issue prescribed items
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How must CD schedule 4 part 1 drugs be destroyed?

A

CD schedule 4 part 1 drugs must be denatured.

It is best practice to have a witness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the audit cycle?

A
  1. identify a problem or issue
  2. set criteria and standards
  3. observe practice/data collection
  4. compare performance with criteria and standards
  5. implement change
  6. come & reaudit after change
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the employee reponsibilities relating to HASAWA?

A
  • follow SOPs
  • wear correct PPE
  • report anything unsafe - near misses
  • work within your role
  • attend training
  • maintain a safe environment
46
Q

Who are members of CCGs?

A

Doctors, dentists, community nurses & midwives

47
Q

What must a prescribing pharmacist complete before prescribing?

A

A prescribing pharmacist must undertake an additional GPhC approved prescribing course.

48
Q

How are schedule 3 controlled drugs destroyed?

A

Schedule 3 controlled drugs are denatured.

It is best practice to have a witness although not required.

49
Q

What does HASAWA stand for?

A

HASAWA is the Health and Safety at Work Act (1974).

50
Q

What is a POM?

A

A prescription only medicine (POM) is a medicine or medicinal product which may only be sold or supplied by retail in accordance with a prescription given by an appropriate practitioner.

51
Q

Where must CD schedule 4 part 2 drugs be kept?

A

CD schedule 4 part 2 drugs can be stored on the regular shelves.

52
Q

Who can prescribe?

A
  • doctors
  • dentists
  • nurses (if done prescribing course)
  • pharmacists (if done prescribing course)
  • physiotherapists (if done prescribing course)
  • midwives
  • optometrists
  • podiatrists
  • veterinary surgeons
  • rehabilitation centres
53
Q

How is the dispensing of schedule 2 controlled drugs monitored?

A

Legally the dispensing of schedule 2 controlled drugs has to be recorded in a register.

54
Q

What additional records must be kept for schedule 5 drugs?

A

There are no additional record requirements for schedule 5 drugs.

55
Q

Why is openness (in relation to clinical governance) important in pharmacy?

A
  • can analyse own poor performance and see areas need to imporve upon
56
Q

What is the purpose of HASAWA (1974)?

A
  • ensures a safe environment
  • protects employees
  • protects employer
  • protects public
  • framework for compensation
57
Q

What is the use of industrial denatured alcohol (IDA)?

A
  • alcohol hand gel
  • aseptics disinfectant
58
Q

Why is research and development (in relation to clinical governance) important in pharmacy?

A
  • improving
  • new research
  • up-to-date
59
Q

TRUE or FALSE

to supply a part III or part IV regulated substance you need a home office license.

A

FALSE!

You do not need a home office license to obtain supply of a part III or part IV regulated substance.

60
Q
A
61
Q

How often is the drug tariff published?

A

The drug tariff is published monthly.

62
Q

What learning must a dispensing assistant undertake?

A

A dispensing assistant must undertake a level 2 GPhC approved qualification; it takes approximately 12 months to complete.

63
Q

What are the key principles of COSHH? (8)

A
  1. assess the risks
    * use safety data sheet
  2. decide what precautions are needed
    • locked away, wear PPE
  3. prevent or adequately control exposure
  4. ensure that control measures are used and maintained
    • reinforce
  5. monitor the exposure
  • could be an audit, further risk assessments
    1. carry out appropriate health surveilance
  • occupational health check ups
  1. prepare plans and procedures to deal with accidents, incidents and emergencies.
    • spillage - harmful
  2. ensure employees are properly informed, trained and supervised
64
Q

What are the other types of services that can be offered by community pharmacies alongside essential services?

A

Advanced services and enhanced and locally commissioned services.

65
Q

Why is education and training (in relation to clinical governance) important in pharmacy?

A
  • processes change - important to keep up-to-date
  • CPD
  • how are we maintaining skills & gaining knowledge
66
Q

What must the dispenser do at the collection of each installment on an installment prescription?

A

The dispenser must initial for each collection of an installment prescription.

67
Q

What must a pre-reg pharmacist do before GPhC registration?

A

A pre-reg pharmracist must complete their 1 year work placement and the exam before GPhC registration.

68
Q

Why is risk management (in relation to clinical governance) important in pharmacy?

A
  • identify the biggest danger in our service and how it can be managed/avoided/minimised,
69
Q

When can a pharmacist make an amendment to a prescription for controlled drugs?

A
  • if they are sure that the prescription is genuine
  • must put their name, the date and GPhC number by the amendment
  • ie spelling mistake or forgetting to put quantity in words/figures
70
Q

What records must be kept for schedule 3 controlled drugs?

A

Registers do not legally have to be kept.

Invoices must be kept for 2 years.

71
Q

What are the essential services that must be provided in the pharmacy contract?

A
  • dispensing
  • repeat dispensing
  • disposal of unwanted medicines
  • signposting patients to other healthcare providers
  • clinical governance
  • promotion of healthy lifestyles
  • support for self care
72
Q

What does NICE stand for?

A

NICE is the National Institute for Health & Care Excellence.

73
Q

What is COSHH?

A

Control of Substances Hazardous to Health.

74
Q

How long in a 24 hour period can the responsible pharmacist be off site for?

A

The responsible pharmacist can be off-site for 2 hours in a 24 hour period

75
Q

What is the role of the superintendent pharmacist?

A

The superintendent pharmacist has overall responsibility and ensures the safe sale and supply of medicines.

76
Q

What will be stated on a pharmacists HMRC notification authorising their purchase of industrial denatured alcohol (IDA)?

A
  • what they are entitled to receive
  • what it can be used for
  • legislation for supplying it
77
Q

What are some examples of advanced services that might be offered in a community pharmacy setting?

A
  • medicines use review (MUR) & prescription intervention service
  • new medicine service
  • appliance use review service
  • stoma appliance customisation service
78
Q

How would a pharmacist obtain industrial denatured alcohol?

A
  • pharmacist must be authorised by HMRC - except if bought in a readily prepared product
79
Q

What are the uses of trade specific denatured alcohol (TSDA)?

A
  • cosmetics
  • perfumes
80
Q

Where must schedule 5 drugs be stored?

A

Schedule 5 drugs can be stored on the regular shelves.

81
Q

How would a pharmacist obtain completely denatured alcohol (CDA)?

A

Completely denatured alcohol (CDA) is obtained from wholesalers in any quantity.

82
Q

How is clinical effectiveness (in relation to clinical governance) implemented in pharmacy?

A
  • trying something that has worked elsewhere
83
Q

What are CD No Reg POMs also known as?

A

CD No Reg POMs are schedule 3 controlled drugs.

84
Q

What are CD POMs known as?

A

Schedule 2 drugs

85
Q

What pieces of legislation correspond to the supply of non-medicinal poisons (part I & II of the deregulations act)?

A
  • need a license from the home office stating allowed that poison for the person requesting the poison.
  • part II poisons must be supplied by a pharmacy under supervision of a pharmacist.
86
Q

What are the main roles of the RPS?

A

Educated all healthcare professionals and the public about safe and effective use of medicines. They are the expert for medicines governance, information & management.

87
Q

What are the main roles of APTUK?

A
  • improve educational standards
  • support advanced roles for pharmacy techniciams
  • provide CPD and professional development
  • how to advance in the role
  • networking
88
Q

How might education and training (in relation to clinical governance) be implemented in pharmacy?

A
  • mandatory training
  • mentor
  • ongoing training
  • shadowing
89
Q

How much of the NHS budget is given to CCGs?

A

2/3 of the NHS budget is allocated to CCGs.

90
Q

How must schedule 5 controlled drugs be destroyed?

A

Schedule 5 controlled drugs can be destroyed in the normal manner.

91
Q

What additional prescription requirements are there for schedule 3 controlled drugs?

A
  • the total quantity must be written in words & figures
  • form
  • strength
  • dose + frequency
92
Q

How many CCGs are there in England?

A

There are 195 CCGs in England.

93
Q

What are the principles of clinical governance? (6)

A
  1. education and training
  2. clinical audit
  3. clinical effectiveness
  4. research and development
  5. openness
  6. risk management
94
Q

How is openness (in relation to clinical governance) implemented in pharmacy?

A
  • huddles - how we can improve
  • PDRs
  • datix/reporting near misses
95
Q

What are some examples of enhanced and locally commissioned services that might be offered in a community pharmacy setting?

A
  • out of hours services
  • medicines assessment & compliance support
  • services to schools
  • head lice management services
  • palliative care services
  • care home services
  • minor ailments management
  • gluten free food supply services
  • supplementary and independent prescribing by pharmacists
96
Q

What does part I & II of the deregulations act cover?

A

Part I & II covers the supply of regulated substances - non-medicinal poisons.

97
Q

What year is HASAWA?

A

HASAWA (1974)

98
Q

What did the NPSA do?

A

The NPSA monitored patient safety incidents, including prescribing errors. It encouraged a no-blame culture among doctors and other staff.

99
Q

How must CD schedule 4 part 2 drugs be destroyed?

A

CD schedule 4 part 2 drugs can be stored in the normal manner.

It is best practice to have a witness.

100
Q

What year was the deregulations act?

A

The Deregulations Act (2015)

101
Q

Where is the drug tariff used?

A

In community pharmacy in England and Wales.

102
Q

What is a P medicine?

A

A pharmacy (P) medicine or medicinal product is one which is not a prescription only medicine and is not on the general sales list. It can only be sold in a retail pharmacy business under the supervision of a pharmacist.

103
Q

What are the roles of pharmacy tenchicians?

A
  • dispensary
  • stock
  • manufacturing
  • selling OTC
  • supervising
104
Q

How is risk management (in relation to clinical governance) implemented in pharmacy?

A
  • providing breaks
  • risk registers (staffing levels
105
Q

What are the roles of a dispensing assistant?

A
  • dispense and take in prescriptions
  • deal with stock
  • work in a manufacturig environment
  • deal with customers
106
Q

Where are schedule 2 controlled drugs stored?

A

Schedule 2 controlled drugs are stored in the CD cupboard.

107
Q

What are the classes of denatured alcohol?

A
  • Industrial denatured alcohol (IDA)
  • Completely denatured alcohol (CDA)
  • Trade specific denatured alcohol (TSDA)
108
Q

What does part III & IV of the deregulations act cover?

A

Part III & IV covers the supply of reportable substances.

109
Q

Where are schedule 3 controlled drugs stored.

A

Regular shelf, except for temazepam & buprenorphine which are locked in the CD cupboard.

110
Q

What additional prescription requirements are there for schedule 2 drugs?

A
  • total quantity in words and figures
  • form
  • strength
  • dose + frequency
111
Q

What is the role of CCGs?

A

CCGs commission locakl (primary) healthcare services. They assess the needs of the local population and buy services on this basis. They are responsible for referring to secondary care (planned hospitak care, not emergency).

112
Q

What learning must a medicines counter assistant undertake?

A

A medicines counter assistant must undertake a distance learning course.