Law-Criminal Damage Flashcards
Where is the basic offence set out?
In s 1(1) Criminal Damage Act 1971
What does s 1(1) Criminal Damage Act 1971 state?
That “a person who without lawful excuse destroys or damages any property belonging to another indenting to destroy or damage any such property or being reckless as to whether any such property would be destroyed or damaged shall be guilty of an offence”
What is ‘destroy or damage’?
It is not defined in the Act. However the same phrase was used in the law prior to the 1971 Act, and old cases ruled that even slight damage was sufficient to prove damage; eg in Gayford v Chouler, trampling down grass was held to be damage. The cases prior to the Criminal Damage Act 1971 are no longer binding but they may still be used as persuasive precedent
How are destroy and damage different?
Destroy is a much stronger word than damage and it includes where the property has been made useless even though it is not completely destroyed. Damage covers a wide range of situations, as shown by Roe v Kingerlee, Hardman v Chief Constable of Avon and Somerset Constabulary, Blake v DPP and Fiak
What happened in Roe v Kingerlee?
Divisional court said whether property had been damaged was ‘matter of fact and degree’. In case the defendant had smeared mud on walls of police cell which cost £7 to be cleaned off. Was held this could be damage even though it was not permanent
What happened in Hardman v Chief Constable of Avon and Somerset Constabulary?
CND protestors painted silhouettes on pavement with water soluble paint, to mark 40th anniversary of dropping of atomic bomb on Hiroshima. Local council removed paintings with water jets. Defendants argued the damage was only temporary, the paintings would have quickly been erased by weather and people walking on them, and so no need for council to go to expense of removing them by high pressure water jets. Court held this was damage
What happened in Blake v DPP?
Defendant wrote biblical quotation on concrete pillar. Needed to be cleaned off so held to be criminal damage. Same decision reached in Roe v Kingerlee where costs were incurred in removing mud from cell wall
What happened in Fiak?
The ‘temporary impairment of value or usefulness’ was key factor’. Defendant was in police station and placed in cell. He put blanket in cell toilet and flushed it several times causing water to overflow and flood the cell, plus the two adjoining cells. Blanket was not visibly ruined but had to be cleaned and dried before it could be used again. Cell had to be cleaned. This was held to be criminal damage
What happens if there are no costs or efforts in clearing up, and the property can continue to be used?
There is no offence, as in A (a juvenile) v R. Defendant spat at policeman, on his uniform. It was held not to be damage as it could be wiped off with a wet cloth with very little effort. It it possible a different decision would have been reached if the spit had landed on a light coloured T-shirt and left a stain, so it needed washing/dry cleaning. As cost would have occurred in those circumstances it could have been criminal damage
What was considered in Morphitis v Salmon?
Type and purpose f property may be relevant. It was held a scratch on a scaffolding pole was not damage. Scaffolding poles are likely to get quite scratched in the ordinary course of use and it does not affect their usefulness or integrity. However a scratch on a car would almost certainly be considered damage
What is ‘property’ for criminal damage?
Defined in s 10(1) Criminal Damage Act 1971. It means property of a tangible nature, whether real or personal, including money. It includes wild creatures which have been tamed or are ordinarily kept in captivity. Also includes other wild creatures or their carcasses if in someone’s possession. Personal property covers all items which can be owned by people so is a very wide term. Real property means land and buildings/other structures attached to the land. However property does not include mushrooms, flowers, fruit or foliage growing wild on any land
What is ‘belonging to another’ in criminal damage?
Definition set out in s 10(2). Property is treated as belonging to any person 1. having custody or control of it; or 2. having in it any proprietary right or interest; or 3. having a charge on it. For criminal damage it is not restricted to the owner. In fact a co-owner can be guilty of criminal damage as the other co-owner has a proprietary right in the property
What happened in the case of Smith?
Defendant removed some electrical wiring, which he had earlier fitted in the flat he rented. In doing this he damaged some of the fixtures he had put in. In civil law these fixtures belong to landlord and this was property ‘belonging to another’. However, defendant was found not guilty because he lacked necessary mens rea
Can own property be classed as criminal damage?
For the basic offence, the property affected must belong to another. A person cannot be guilty of the basic offence if the property he destroys or damages is his own. However, for the aggravated offence a person can be guilty even it it is their own property
What is the mens rea of the basic offence?
The defendant must do the damage or destruction either intentionally or recklessly. The law commission meant for the previous principles of mens rea used in criminal damage cases to continue to apply
What is intention for criminal damage?
Defendant myst intend to destroy or damage property belonging to another. Proving the act is not enough there must be intention to do the damage, as was seen in case of Pembilton-who was not guilty of criminal damage (transferred malice case). The case of Seray-White is an example where the defendant was shown to have intended the act. The second point is the need to intend to damage property ‘belonging to another’ which was illustrated in Smith
What happened in Seray-White?
Dr wrote with black marker pen on 2 parking notices, which had been placed by management company in estate he lived. Said he didn’t intend to cause damage and wasn’t reckless as to whether damage was caused. He was convicted and appealed first to the Crown Court and from there to the Divisional Court. Crown court found writing to be damage and this was confirmed by Court of Appeal. As defendant intended to do the writing, they held he had intention to cause criminal damage. They held that no question of recklessness arose as the case concerned an act with an intended result
What happened in Smith?
Defendant mistakenly believed the property he was damaging was his own. His conviction was quashed by Court of Appeal who said: “Honest belief, whether justifiable or not, that the property is the defendant’s own negatives the element of mens rea”
What is recklessness for criminal damage?
Initially courts used meaning of subjective recklessness, as in Stephenson, however in Caldwell the House of Lords changed it to an objective and subjective test known as Caldwell recklessness. The objective test was harsh in its application, particularly where the defendant was young or had learning difficulties, as seen in Elliott v C. The objective test was used up to 2003 when in Gemmell and Richards, the House of Lords quashed their convictions and overruled Caldwell and reinstated the subjective test for recklessness, and said the Law Commission intended there to be no change in mens rea so were only replacing the old expression ‘maliciously’ by more familiar expression of ‘reckless’
What was the effect of the decission in G and R?
‘Reckless’ in s 1 Criminal Damage Act 1971 is now clearly subjective in its meaning. The defendant can only be guilty if he realised the risk of the damage
What is ‘without lawful excuse’?
The Act defines two lawful excuses in s5. These are only available for the basic offence and apply where defendant honestly believes either that: the owner (or other person with rights in the property) would have consented to the damage; or other property was at risk and in need of immediate protection and what he did was reasonable in all the circumstances. The defendant must honestly believe one of these, it doesn’t matter whether the belief is justified or not, provided it was honestly held
What is belief in consent?
In Denton, the defendant, who worked in a cotton mill, thought that his employer had encouraged him to set fire to the mil so the employer could make an insurance claim. Court of Appeal quashed his conviction as he had a defence under s 5(2)(a)
What is intoxicated mistake?
The combination of s 5(2) (a) and s 5(3) allows a defence of mistake to be used, even where the defendant makes the mistake because they were intoxicated as in Jaggard v Dickinson, where drunk defendant broke into a house window she thought was her friends as she believed (accurately) she would have consented to this. However it was someone else’s house. Conviction was quashed as ‘specifically required court to consider defendant’s actual state of belief, not the state of belief which ought to have existed’. Pointed out that belief may be honestly held whether it is caused by intoxication, stupidity, forgetfulness or inattention
What happens when there is belief that other property was in immediate need of protection?
Section 5(2)(b) could give defence in situations where trees are nut down or building demolished to prevent spread of fire. A case that was successful in this was Greenpeace who damaged GM crops in order to prevent non-GM crops in neighbouring fields from being contaminated with pollen from GM crops. Judge allowed defence to go to jury, but were unable to agree on verdict so retrial was ordered and jury acquitted defendants. If the defendant has another purpose in doing the damage, then the court may rule that the defence is not available, as in Hunt