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last exam Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Extracellular fluids include all of the following except?
    a. Blood plasma
    b. Interstitial fluid
    c. Cerebrospinal fluid
    d. Lymph
    e. Cytoplasm
A

Cytoplasm

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2
Q
  1. Antidiuretic Hormone
    a. Stimulates water loss in the kidneys
    b. Stimulates water retention in the kidneys
    c. Stimulates salt loss
    d. Stimulates salt retention
    e. None of the above
A

Stimulates water retention in the kidneys

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3
Q
  1. When the fluid outside a cell becomes highly concentrated with ions, what will the result be on the cell?
    a. Water will move from inside the cell to outside
    b. Water will move from outside the cell to inside the cell
    c. No net movement of water will result
A

Water will move from inside the cell to outside

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4
Q
  1. Which location are the chemorecptors monitoring?
    a. Intracellular fluid
    b. Extracellular fluid
A

Extracellular fluid

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following hormones is released by the cardiac muscle in response to high blood volume?
    a. ADH
    b. Renin
    c. Aldosterone
    d. Natriuretic peptide
    e. None of the above
A

Natriuretic peptide

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6
Q
  1. In which case is the pH lower?
    a. After hyperventilating
    b. After hypoventilating
A

After hypoventilating

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7
Q
  1. A _________ consists of a combination of a weak acid and a dissociation product
    a. Buffer system
    b. Strong acid
    c. Strong base
    d. Weak base
    e. None of the above
A

Buffer system

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8
Q
  1. Which acid is the result of cellular metabolism?
    a. Fixed acid
    b. Volatile acid
    c. Organic acid
A

Organic acid

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9
Q
  1. In the respiratory system, the buffer utilized to regulate pH is CO2, what is the name of the volatile acid that works here?
    a. Nitric acid
    b. Hydrochloric acid
    c. Carbonic acid
    d. Pyruvic acid
A

Carbonic acid

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10
Q

The most common problems with electrolyte balance are caused by imbalances between gains and losses of which ion?

a. Calcium
b. Chloride
c. Potassium
d. Sodium
e. Magnesium

A

Sodium

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11
Q
  1. The functional unit of the kidney is called what?
    a. Glomerulus
    b. Nephron
    c. Bowman’s Capsule
    d. Loop of Henle
    e. Proximal convoluted tubule
A

Nephron

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12
Q
  1. Vasodilation of the afferent arteriole combined with vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole will result in which of the following?
    a. An increase in the glomerular filtration
    b. A decrease in the glomerular pressure
    c. A decrease in glomerular filtration
    d. An increase in the secretion of renin
    e. None of the above
A

An increase in the glomerular filtration

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13
Q
  1. The primary location(s) for hormonal regulation of water, sodium ions, and potassium ions in the nephrons is where?
    a. Distal convoluted tubule
    b. Proximal convoluted tubule
    c. Descending loop of Henle
    d. Collecting duct
    e. Both A and D
A

Both A and D

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is the primary site for nutrient reabsorption from the filtrate?
    a. Glomerulus
    b. Proximal Convoluted Tubule
    c. Ascending loop of Henle
    d. Collecting Duct
    e. Distal Convoluted Tubule
A

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

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15
Q
  1. Each of the following would be considered normal in a urine sample except?
    a. Amber coloration
    b. Ammonia scent
    c. Acidic pH
    d. Cloudy
A

Cloudy

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16
Q
  1. Urine with a glucose trace is considered what?
    a. Normal
    b. Abnormal
A

Abnormal

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17
Q
  1. The muscle in the urinary bladder is called what?
    a. Ureter
    b. PeePee Pusher
    c. Detrusor
    d. Micturator
A

Detrusor

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18
Q
  1. The higher the plasma concentration of aldosterone, the more efficiently the kidney will what?
    a. Conserve sodium ions
    b. Retain potassium ions
    c. Stimulate urinary water loss
    d. Secrete greater amounts of ADH
    e. All of the above
A

Conserve sodium ions

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19
Q
  1. A drop in the GFR will result in which of the following?
    a. Juxtaglomerular cell production of renin
    b. Increase in Angiotensin I plasma levels
    c. Increase in Angiotensin II plasma levels
    d. Increase in Aldosterone plasma levels
    e. All of the above
A

All of the above

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20
Q
  1. The kidney not only removes waste products from the blood, they also assist in the regulation of what?
    a. Blood volume
    b. Blood pH
    c. Blood pressure
    d. Blood ion levels
    e. All of the above
A

All of the above

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21
Q
  1. The countercurrent multiplication is important to the nephron for what reason?
    a. Decreases the water reabsorption
    b. Decreases sodium reabsorption
    c. Decreases potassium reabsorption
    d. All of the above
    e. None of the above
A

None of the above

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22
Q
  1. The openings for the ureters and the urethra on the interior surface of the bladder are called what?
    a. Renal sinus
    b. Hilus
    c. Renal pelvis
    d. Trigone
    e. Internal urethral sphincter
A

Trigone

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23
Q
  1. The glomerular hydrostatic pressure is significantly less than the pressures in the rest of the circuit.
    a. True
    b. False
A

False

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24
Q
  1. If the GFR drops, which of the following will occur?
    a. Efferent arteriole will constrict
    b. Afferent arteriole will dialate
    c. Erythropoietin will be released
    d. Renin will be released
    e. All of the above will occur
A

All of the above will occur

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25
Q
  1. The perception of the Micturition reflex begins when the bladder hits what level?
    a. 1000 ml
    b. 200 ml
    c. 2000ml
    d. 500ml
    e. 100ml
A

500ml

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26
Q
  1. The sum of all of the biochemical processes going on within the human body at any given time is called?
    a. Glycolysis
    b. Oxidative phosphorylation
    c. Catabolism
    d. Anabolism
    e. Metabolism
A

Metabolism

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27
Q
  1. Cell synthesis of new chemicals from basic building blocks is called?
    a. Glycolysis
    b. Oxidative phosphorylation
    c. Catabolism
    d. Anabolism
    e. Metabolism
A

Anabolism

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28
Q
  1. The pyruvic acid molecule as it is in the transition phase of the TCA cycle is undergoing what type of chemical reaction?
    a. Glycolysis
    b. Oxidative phosphorylation
    c. Decarboxylation
    d. All of the above
    e. None of the above
A

Decarboxylation

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29
Q
  1. Which phase gives off CO2?
    a. Glycolysis
    b. TCA
    c. ETC
    d. All of the above
A

TCA

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30
Q
  1. What is the first thing that happens to a glucose molecule as it enters the nutrient pool?
    a. Phosphate is attached
    b. Pyruvic acid is formed
    c. Decarboxylation occurs
    d. Lactic acid is formed
A

Phosphate is attached

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31
Q
  1. Which of the following is a true statement regarding glycolysis?
    a. Requires oxygen
    b. Yields two ATP net gain
    c. Yeilds two pyruvic acid
    d. Yields two NADH
    e. All but A
A

All but A

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32
Q
  1. Which nutrient undergoes Beta-Oxidation?
    a. Carbohydrates
    b. Lipids
    c. Amino Acids
    d. Nucleic acids
A

Lipids

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33
Q
  1. What chemical reaction is occurring in the ETC?
    a. Beta –oxidation
    b. Glycolysis
    c. Decarboxylation
    d. Oxidative-phosphorylation
    e. None of the above
A

Oxidative-phosphorylation

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34
Q
  1. In the ETC every time one compound is reduced, what happens to a paired compound?
    a. It is reduced also
    b. It is oxidized
    c. Nothing
A

It is oxidized

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35
Q
  1. What is the name of the process by which ATP is created in the ETC?
    a. Beta-oxidation
    b. Oxidative-Reduction
    c. Decarboxylation
    d. Chemiosmosis phosphorylation
    e. ATP-synthase
A

Chemiosmosis phosphorylation

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36
Q

What is the primary role of the TCA cycle in the production of ATP?

a. break down glucose
b. create hydrogen gradient
c. phosphorylate ADP
d. transfer electrons from substrates to coenzymes

A

d. transfer electrons from substrates to coenzymes

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37
Q

What is the electron transport system’s role in the generation of ATP?

a. It creates a steep concentration gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
b. It manufactures 36 ATP.
c. It facilitates formation of coenzymes.
d. It prevents substrate-level phosphorylation.

A

a. It creates a steep concentration gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.

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38
Q

How does a decrease in the level of cytoplasmic NAD affect ATP production in mitochondria?

a. ATP production increases.
b. ATP production decreases.
c. Pyruvic acid supplies increase.
d. Unused glucose molecules allow for production of ATP through other mechanisms.

A

b. ATP production decreases

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39
Q

NADH produced by glycolysis in skeletal muscle fibers leads to production of two ATP molecules in mitochondria, but NADH produced by glycolysis in cardiac muscle cells leads to production of three ATP molecules. Why?

a. different systems
b. different pH
c. different intermediaries
d. more efficient enzymes in cardiac muscle

A

c. different intermediaries

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40
Q

Why is oxidative phosphorylation the most important mechanism for generating ATP?

a. It requires less energy than other mechanisms.
b. It requires fewer steps to produce ATP molecules.
c. It produces more than 90% of ATP used by body  	    cells.
d. It allows the release of a tremendous amount of 	    energy.
A

c. It produces more than 90% of ATP used by body cells.

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41
Q

What contributes to the increased amount of urea in blood during the postabsorptive state?

a. protein digestion
b. lipolysis
c. glycolysis
d. glycogenesis

A

a. protein digestion

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42
Q

What consequence(s) is (are) the result of a dietary deficiency of one or more essential amino acids?

a. Protein deficiency disease occurs.
b. The body produces the missing amino acids by amination.
c. Protein synthesis comes to a halt.
d. Both A and C are correct

A

d. Both A and C are correct.

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43
Q

Why are proteins an impractical source of quick energy, a “last ditch” source of energy?

a. Proteins are more difficult to break apart than are carbohydrates or lipids.
b. NH4, a by-product of protein catabolism, is toxic.
c. Protein catabolism threatens homeostasis.
d. All of the above are correct.

A

d. All of the above are correct

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44
Q

Why do athletes in intensive training try to maintain a positive nitrogen balance?

a. They must excrete more N than they take in.
b. They must keep the amount of N absorbed in 	    balance with what is lost in urine and feces.
c. They actively synthesize N compounds, so 		    must absorb more than they secrete.
d. None of the above are correct.
A

c. They actively synthesize N compounds, so must absorb more than they secrete.

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45
Q

Why does a diet that is deficient in pyridoxine (vitamin B6) affect protein metabolism?

a. B6 deficiency sets up a cascade of events 		    leading to premature breakdown of lipases.
b. The first step in amino acid catabolism 		    requires a coenzyme derivative of B6.
c. B6 deficiency is critical to later steps of amino 	    acid catabolism.
d. Pyridoxine is not involved in protein 			    metabolism.
A

b. The first step in amino acid catabolism requires a coenzyme derivative of B6.

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46
Q

Why are high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) considered beneficial?

a. They increase lipid metabolism.
b. They decrease blood pressure.
c. They increase blood pH.
d. They reduce fat and cholesterol in the bloodstream.

A

d. They reduce fat and cholesterol in the bloodstream.

47
Q

Why is catabolism of dietary carbohydrates and proteins considered “not as productive” as catabolism of lipids?

a. In lipids, many carbon and hydrogen atoms 		    are already bound to oxygen.
b. Digestion of dietary protein creates toxins.
c. Lipids release almost twice the energy of 		    proteins or carbohydrates.
d. Carbohydrates and proteins have fewer 		    health benefits than lipids.
A

c. Lipids release almost twice the energy of proteins or carbohydrates

48
Q

Why are LDLs considered “bad cholesterol”?

a. They take cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver.
b. They deliver cholesterol to peripheral tissues.
c. They often end up in arterial plaques.
d. Both B and C are correct.

A

d. Both B and C are correct.

49
Q

Why does hypervitaminosis more commonly involve fat-soluble vitamins?

a. Water-soluble vitamins rapidly degenerate into their component parts.
b. Excess fat-soluble vitamins are stored in body lipids.
c. Fat-soluble vitamins participate in more important reactions than do water-soluble vitamins.
d. All of the above are correct.

A

b. Excess fat-soluble vitamins are stored in body lipids.

50
Q

What characteristic of lipoproteins allows them to be made water-soluble?

a. They are small enough to pass through 	    the plasma membrane.
b. They have a superficial coating of 		    phospholipids and proteins.
c. They form compact granules.
d. They provide more energy than a 	 	    comparable amount of glucose
A

b. They have a superficial coating of phospholipids and proteins.

51
Q

Which of the following vitamins can be synthesized inside the body?

a. vitamins D and K
b. vitamins B12 and C
c. vitamins A and E
d. vitamins B6 and C

A

a. vitamins D and K

52
Q

How would a decrease in the amount of bile salts in the bile affect the amount of vitamin A in the body?

a. It would increase vitamin A.
b. It would decrease vitamin A.
c. It would have no effect, since the two 		    are not related.
d. It depends on the absorptive
         state.
A

b. It would decrease vitamin A.

53
Q

How would the BMR of a pregnant woman compare with her own BMR before she became pregnant?

a. higher when pregnant
b. lower when pregnant
c. no difference during pregnancy
d. depends on her pre-pregnancy weight

A

a. higher when pregnant

54
Q

What effect does vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels have on an individual’s body temperature on a hot day?

a. an increase in body temperature
b. a decrease in body temperature
c. no difference
d. depends on the individual’s hydration level

A

a. an increase in body temperature

55
Q

In cold conditions, how does blood flow change to restrict heat loss?

a. Blood is diverted to the skin to decrease 	 	    surface-to-volume ratio.
b. Heat transfer from warm blood in arteries 		    warms cooler venous blood.
c. Blood flows through the superficial venous 	    network.
d. Vasomotor centers are inhibited and 		    respiration increases in depth.
A

b. Heat transfer from warm blood in arteries warms cooler venous blood.

56
Q

Which of the following is a true statement?

a. Gluconeogenesis is the reverse biochemical process of glycolysis.
b. Glycogenesis will facilitate the storage of glucose in cells.
c. Gluconeogenesis uses amino acids and lactate ions to produce glycogen.
d. Both A and B are true.

A

b. Glycogenesis will facilitate the storage of glucose in cells.

57
Q

What is NOT true with regard to glycolysis?

a. It is an anaerobic process that occurs in the cytoplasm.
b. The first step of glycolysis phosphorylates glucose and traps it in the cell.
c. The breakdown of glucose can lead to lactic acid accumulation.
d. All of the above are correct.

A

d. All of the above are correct.

58
Q

What process in the liver increases after you have eaten a high-carbohydrate meal?

a. glycolysis
b. glycogenesis
c. lipolysis
d. beta-oxidation

A

b. glycogenesis

59
Q

In infants, the highly vascularized tissue between the shoulder blades is referred to as ______ fat and contains adipocytes that have many ______.

a. brown; nuclei
b. brown; mitochondria
c. tan; nuclei
d. tan; mitochondria

A

b. brown; mitochondria

60
Q

In training for competitive sports, what might increase athletic performance?

a. increased carbohydrates in the diet 3 days prior to an event
b. increased protein in the diet 3 days prior to the event
c. carbohydrate depletion/loading 3 days prior to the event
d. none of the above

A

a. increased carbohydrates in the diet 3 days prior to an event

61
Q

What happens during the process of transamination?

a. An amino group and hydrogen atom 	    are removed.
b. The toxic compound ammonium (NH4) 	    is created.
c. A keto acid is converted into an amino 	    acid that can leave the mitochondria.
d. The liver breaks down internal 		    proteins.
A

c. A keto acid is converted into an amino acid that can leave the mitochondria

62
Q

What is the composition of the filtrate in the capsular space?

a. like urine, only more concentrated
b. similar to water
c. like urine, only less concentrated
d. similar to plasma, only no proteins
A

d. similar to plasma, only no proteins

63
Q

What part of the nephron is involved with obligatory water, ion, and organic nutrient reabsorption?

a. PCT
b. DCT
c. glomerular capillaries
d. nephron loop

A

a. PCT

64
Q

Why don’t plasma proteins pass into the capsular space under normal circumstances?

a. Glomerular capillary pores are too small.
b. Glomerular blood pressure is too low.
c. Glomerular filtration rate is too low.
d. Glomerular blood flow is too slow.

A

a. Glomerular capillary pores are too small

65
Q

What is the major driving force behind filtrate production?

a. capsular hydrostatic pressure
b. the osmotic pressure of the blood
c. hydrostatic pressure in the afferent arteriole
d. hydrostatic pressure in the efferent arteriole

A

c. hydrostatic pressure in the afferent arteriole

66
Q

Why are glomerular pressures higher than pressure in other capillaries?

a. The efferent arteriole has a smaller diameter 	    than the afferent arteriole, increasing 	  		    resistance.
b. Sodium content of the filtrate increases 		    pressure.
c. E and NE cause increased glomerular 		    pressure.
d. The length of the afferent arteriole is longer 		    than the  efferent arteriole.
A

a. The efferent arteriole has a smaller diameter than the afferent arteriole, increasing resistance.

67
Q

What effect does renin have on the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

a. It will decrease the GFR and vasoconstrict the efferent arteriole.
b. It will increase the GFR and vasoconstrict the efferent arteriole.
c. It will raise the GFR and vasoconstrict the afferent arteriole.
d. None of the above are correct.

A

b. It will increase the GFR and vasoconstrict the efferent arteriole

68
Q

Why is the presence of microvilli important to the epithelial tissue of the PCT?

a. because most reabsorption occurs at 		    the PCT
b. because filtration is taking place
c. because secretion of toxins and ions are 	    actively secreted to waste at the PCT
d. because hormonally controlled 			    reabsorption of water and sodium     		    occurs in the PCT
A

a. because most reabsorption occurs at the PCT

69
Q

Why does the filtrate dilute all along the ascending loop?

a. A glycoprotein here restricts water from leaving the filtrate.
b. Water reabsorption has taken place at the descending loop.
c. Water channels allow it to mix with the filtrate.
d. None of the above are correct.

A

a. A glycoprotein here restricts water from leaving the filtrate

70
Q

A decrease in Na+ in the blood leads to an increase in blood pressure because:

a. it increases aldosterone secretion.
b. it increases renin production.
c. it increases ADH secretion.
d. All of the above are correct.
A

d. All of the above are correct

71
Q

Why does osmotic concentration decrease in the thick ascending limb of the nephron loop?

a. Urea is transported out of the tubule.
b. Na+ and CI– are actively transported out of the tubular fluid.
c. The thick ascending limb is permeable to water.
d. Both A and B are correct.

A

b. Na+ and CI– are actively transported out of the tubular fluid.

72
Q

Which structures exit at the hilum of the kidney?

a. renal artery and vein
b. renal ureters
c. renal capsule and renal sinus
d. both A and B

A

d. both A and B

73
Q

An obstruction of a ureter by a kidney stone limits the flow of urine between which two points?

a. ureter and urethra
b. renal medulla and renal pelvis
c. renal medulla and urethra
d. renal pelvis and urinary bladder
A

d. renal pelvis and urinary bladder

74
Q

The ability to control the micturition reflex depends on the ability to control which muscle?

a. urogenital diaphragm
b. internal urinary sphincter
c. external urinary sphincter
d. coccygeus

A

c. external urinary sphincter

75
Q

Mary has had a urinalysis that indicates a high level of bilirubin. What condition may she have?

a. liver disease
b. anorexia
c. ketonuria
d. renal infection

A

a. liver disease

76
Q

What effect does eating a high-protein diet have on the composition of urine?

a. increased urea
b. increased potassium
c. increased fluid volume
d. both A and C

A

d. both A and C

77
Q

Which portion of a nephron is NOT in the renal cortex?

a. proximal convoluted tubule
b. distal convoluted tubule
c. collecting duct
d. nephron loop

A

d. nephron loop

78
Q

Damage to which part of the nephron interferes with hormonal control of blood pressure?

a. Bowman’s capsule
b. juxtaglomerular apparatus
c. PCT
d. nephron loop

A

b. juxtaglomerular apparatus

79
Q

What event occurs when the plasma concentration of a substance exceeds its tubular maximum?

a. Glomerular blood pressure increases.
b. Filtration shuts down.
c. Excess is excreted in urine.
d. Glomerular osmotic pressure 			    decreases.
A

c. Excess is excreted in urine.

80
Q

How would the absence of juxtamedullary nephrons affect the volume of urine and its osmotic concentration?

a. decrease volume; decrease osmotic	    		    concentration
b. decrease volume; increase osmotic 			    concentration
c. increase volume; decrease osmotic 			    concentration
d. increase volume; increase osmotic 			    concentration
A

c. increase volume; decrease osmotic concentration

81
Q

The concentration of filtrate is greatest in _____. This is because ______.

a. the PCT; the PCT is where most reabsorption occurs
b. the bottom of the nephron loop; solutes are concentrated
c. the DCT; water diffuses out
d. the glomerulus; it has highest concentration of solutes

A

b. the bottom of the nephron loop; solutes are concentrated

82
Q

Where does urine production begin?

a. renal artery
b. minor calyces
c. nephron
d. collecting duct

A

c. nephron

83
Q

How are cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons structurally different?

a. Cortical nephrons are surrounded by 		    vasa recta.
b. Cortical nephrons have very short 		    PCTs.
c. Juxtamedullary nephrons have longer 	    nephron loops.
d. All of the above are correct.
A

c. Juxtamedullary nephrons have longer nephron loops.

84
Q

What effect does an increased amount of aldosterone have on K+ concentration of urine?

a. K+ Increases
b. K+ decreases
c. no effect
d. impossible to predict

A

a. K+ Increases

85
Q

All of the following EXCEPT _______ are effects of angiotensin II.

a. elevation of glomerular pressures and 	    GFR
b. inhibition of ADH release
c. elevation of arterial pressure throughout 	    the body
d. stimulation of Na+ reabsorption in the 		    DCT
A

b. inhibition of ADH release

86
Q

What is the role of the vasa recta in the urinary system?

a. increasing specific gravity of urine
b. increasing the osmotic concentration of 	    urine
c. returning water and solutes to general 	    circulation
d. cleansing blood before it re-enters 		    systemic circulation
A

c. returning water and solutes to general circulation

87
Q

What direct effect does sympathetic activation have on GFR?

a. produces powerful vasoconstriction of 	    the afferent arteriole
b. produces powerful vasoconstriction of 	    glomerular capillaries
c. produces dilation of the afferent arteriole
d. produces dilation of glomerular 			    capillaries and constriction of the 		    efferent arteriole
A

a. produces powerful vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole

88
Q

Why are effects of diet more profound and immediate in infants compared with adults?

a. Infants’ energy sources and mineral reserves are smaller.
b. Infants have less body water, making fluid shifts more profound.
c. Infants have a much higher bicarbonate content in their ECF.
d. None of the above are correct

A

a. Infants’ energy sources and mineral reserves are smaller

89
Q

What is the primary cause of hypercalcemia?

a. hyperparathyroidism
b. excessive consumption of vitamin D supplements
c. chronic renal failure
d. alcoholism

A

a. hyperparathyroidism

90
Q

How does a prolonged fast affect the body’s pH?

a. pH increases after a fast
b. pH decreases after a fast
c. no effect on pH
d. impossible to predict

A

b. pH decreases after a fast

91
Q

What effect does a decrease in the pH of body fluids have on respiratory rate?

a. The respiratory rate increases.
b. The respiratory rate decreases.
c. The rate of respiration remains the same, but depth of respiration increases.
d. It is impossible to predict.

A

a. The respiratory rate increases

92
Q

Wayne’s cardiac muscle cells have been releasing ANP in response to overstretching of his heart walls. What is the effect of the release of ANP?

a. ANP release could cause a heart attack.
b. ANP blocks the release of ADH and aldosterone.
c. Water is conserved at the kidneys.
d. Blood volume and blood pressure increase.

A

b. ANP blocks the release of ADH and aldosterone.

93
Q

Which of the following are the primary ions present in ECF?

a. Na+, Cl–, and HCO3–
b. Na+, K+, Mg2+, and SO42–
c. Na+, K+, and HPO42–
d. none of the above

A

a. Na+, Cl–, and HCO3–

94
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the processes essential to stabilizing body fluid volumes, solute concentration, or pH of the ECF?

a. fluid balance
b. acid–base balance
c. hormone balance
d. electrolyte balance

A

c. hormone balance

95
Q

If the osmotic concentration of ECF increases, which of the following happens?

a. ICF volume increases.
b. Metabolic generation of water decreases.
c. ECF becomes hypotonic to ICF.
d. Water moves from cells into ECF.

A

d. Water moves from cells into ECF.

96
Q

Why do homeostatic mechanisms that adjust composition of body fluids respond to changes in the ECF, rather that ICF?

a. The receptors monitoring electrolytes are only found in ECF.
b. A change in one ECF component rapidly affects all body cells.
c. ECF is contained within cells, which are physically and chemically isolated.
d. Both A and C are correct.

A

b. A change in one ECF component rapidly affects all body cells.

97
Q

Mr. Proctor has high blood pressure. As his physician, why do you counsel him to limit his intake of sodium?

a. Sodium causes ICF volume to increase and increased ADH secretion.
b. Sodium causes an increase in fat storage and increased ECF osmolarity.
c. Sodium causes an increase in blood volume and blood pressure, and decreased ADH secretion.
d. Sodium causes loss of other electrolytes and decreased blood volume.

A

c. Sodium causes an increase in blood volume and blood pressure, and decreased ADH secretion

98
Q

What situation would contribute to an acute episode of respiratory acidosis?

a. a drowning accident
b. the development of a lung tumor
c. cigarette smoking
d. chronic pulmonary obstruction disorder

A

a. a drowning accident

99
Q

Which of the following is true concerning metabolic generation of water?

a. Breaking down 1 g of lipid generates more water than breaking down 1 g of carbohydrate.
b. Metabolic generation of water is the result of overhydration.
c. Metabolic generation of water generates about 1200 mL per day.
d. Metabolic generation of water occurs when you lose water, but not electrolytes.

A

a. Breaking down 1 g of lipid generates more water than breaking down 1 g of carbohydrate.

100
Q

What is a possible reason for the development of metabolic acidosis?

a. strenuous exercise due to lactic acid accumulation
b. choking on food
c. diabetics who are noncompliant with their insulin
d. both A and C

A

d. both A and C

101
Q

What effect would drinking salt water have on the intracellular concentration?

a. The intracellular solute concentration would rise.
b. The intracellular solute concentration would decline.
c. no effect on water concentration in the cell
d. impossible to predict because of previous hydration level

A

a. The intracellular solute concentration would rise.

102
Q

What effect does drinking a pitcher of distilled water have on ADH secretion?

a. Secretion of ADH increases.
b. Secretion of ADH decreases.
c. Increased ADH secretion prompts secretion of renin in the kidney.
d. It is impossible to predict.

A

b. Secretion of ADH decreases.

103
Q

Although disturbances in _____ balance are more common, a disturbance in _____ balance is much more dangerous because of the effect on cardiac function.

a. sodium; potassium
b. potassium; sodium
c. calcium; sodium
d. potassium; magnesium

A

a. sodium; potassium

104
Q

Which hormone affecting electrolyte balance is responsible for determining the rate of Na+ absorption and K+ loss along the DCT?

a. the natriuretic peptides (ANP and BNP)
b. ADH
c. aldosterone
d. all of the above

A

c. aldosterone

105
Q

Which of the following is the major buffer system of the ECF?

a. phosphate buffer system
b. potassium buffer system
c. carbonic acid–bicarbonate buffer system
d. protein buffer system

A

c. carbonic acid–bicarbonate buffer system

106
Q

Which of the following is (are) true of the hemoglobin buffer system?

a. It is the only intracellular buffer system that has an immediate effect on the pH of ECF.
b. It helps prevent drastic changes in pH when plasma PCO2 is rising or falling.
c. It prevents changes in pH caused by organic acids and fixed acids in the ECF.
d. Both A and B are correct.

A

d. Both A and B are correct

107
Q

Why does the tubular fluid in nephrons need to be buffered?

a. Buffers allow for tubular modification of fluids.
b. Lacking buffers, the kidneys would secrete too much acid.
c. Buffers prevent increasing respiratory rate.
d. Buffers keep the pH high enough for H+ ion secretion to continue.

A

d. Buffers keep the pH high enough for H+ ion secretion to continue.

108
Q

Which of the following characteristics distinguishes a strong acid from a weak acid?

a. Weak acids dissociate completely in solution.
b. Weak acids have more profound effect on the pH of a solution.
c. Strong acids dissociate completely in solution.
d. Both A and B are correct.

A

c. Strong acids dissociate completely in solution.

109
Q

What is the effect of acidosis on the circulatory system?

a. cardiac arrhythmias
b. peripheral vasoconstriction and rise in BP
c. peripheral vasodilation and drop in BP
d. cardiomyopathy

A

c. peripheral vasodilation and drop in BP

110
Q

Hyperventilation produces which of the following effects?

a. respiratory alkalosis
b. respiratory acidosis
c. metabolic alkalosis
d. metabolic acidosis

A

a. respiratory alkalosis

111
Q

What change in an elderly person’s body contributes to poor acid–base balance?

a. reduction in ability to concentrate urine
b. reduction in total body water content
c. reduction in GFR and reduction in number of functional nephrons
d. reduction in ADH and aldosterone sensitivity

A

c. reduction in GFR and reduction in number of functional nephrons

112
Q

Why can prolonged vomiting produce metabolic alkalosis, while prolonged diarrhea produces metabolic acidosis?

a. Diarrhea causes loss of HCO3– in the ECF, while vomiting causes increase of HCO3– in the ECF.
b. Diarrhea causes H+ ions to be replenished from bloodstream, while vomiting generates HCl.
c. Both A and B are correct.
d. None of the above is correct.

A

a. Diarrhea causes loss of HCO3– in the ECF, while vomiting causes increase of HCO3– in the ECF.

113
Q

During an asthma attack, Kristen’s bronchioles constrict, reducing pulmonary exchange. Which of the following scenarios will result?

a. increased breathing rate, increased plasma pH, and metabolic acidosis
b. decreased breathing rate, increased plasma pH, and hypocapnia
c. decreased breathing rate, increased plasma pH, and respiratory alkalosis
d. increased breathing rate, decreased plasma pH, and hypercapnia

A

d. increased breathing rate, decreased plasma pH, and hypercapnia

A and P 2 (14 decks)

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