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E&E Exam 4 > Large Animal/Equine Disease > Flashcards

Large Animal/Equine Disease Flashcards

Covers: Equine thyroid dz, Obesity in horses, Ketosis and Equine metabolic syndrome, Disorders of the pituitary gland, Equine chronic weight loss, and Equine and Caprine urolithiasis lectures

1
Q

What do you expect to result from a TSH stimulation test in a horse without hypothyroidism?

A

(Thyroid hormones should be increased on the post-test)

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2
Q

What age of horse has a normally elevated T3 and T4?

A

(Foals)

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3
Q

What are two causes of congenital hypothyroidism?

A

(Too little/much iodine in dam’s diet or dam ingesting goitrogenic plants)

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4
Q

(T/F) A benign adenoma should be at the very top of your differential list in a horse with an enlarged thyroid.

A

(T)

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5
Q

(T/F) Benign adenomas of the thyroid gland typically cause a fluctuation in thyroid hormones.

A

(F, are typically non-functional meaning they do not affect the function of the thyroid gland)

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6
Q

What is the point system used for body condition scoring in horses?

A

(9-point system)

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7
Q

What is the lowest score that is considered overweight in a horse?

A

(7 and greater)

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8
Q

What is the ideal body condition score range for a horse?

A

(4-6)

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9
Q

What is the horse term for the area that should be evaluated in a horse to assess muscle condition?

A

(The topline which is along the back)

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10
Q

(T/F) You should base your diet plan for a horse on their ideal body weight i.e. you’ll multiply their ideal body weight by 2% and that will give you the dry matter weight they should be fed.

A

(F, should be based on current body weight, otherwise, you are restricting their calories too quickly)

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11
Q

What type of forage should be avoided when feeding a horse that is losing weight because it is more energy dense than grass?

A

(Alfalfa hay)

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12
Q

Do you want the NDF of the feed you are feeding to an over-conditioned horse to be high or low?

A

(High)

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13
Q

If you assessed a 620 kg horse to have a body condition score of 7/9:

How much weight does that horse need to lose in kgs to reach a body condition score of 5/9?

A

(45.5 kgs)

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14
Q

If you assessed a 620 kg horse to have a body condition score of 7/9:

What is the ideal weight of this horse in pounds? x

A

(1,264 lbs)

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15
Q

If you assessed a 620 kg horse to have a body condition score of 7/9:

In pounds, how much dry matter should this horse be fed?

A

(27.3 lbs)

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16
Q

If you assessed a 620 kg horse to have a body condition score of 7/9:

In pounds, how much hay should be fed ‘as fed’?

A

(30.3 lbs)

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17
Q

If you assessed a 620 kg horse to have a body condition score of 7/9:

Ideally, how long should it take this horse to lose the desired weight?

A

(2-4 months)

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18
Q

What is the term for ‘the collection of risk factors highly associated with an increased risk of hyperinsulinemia-associated laminitis and other morbidities’?

A

(Equine metabolic syndrome)

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19
Q

What are the two main risk factors associated with equine metabolic syndrome?

A

(Obesity and insulin dysregulation)

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20
Q

What condition may EMS co-exist with in older horses?

A

(PPID)

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21
Q

What type of conditions leads to the selection of genes that improve a horse’s metabolic efficiency, promote obesity, and increase appetite when food is plentiful; i.e. genes that predispose a horse to equine metabolic syndrome?

A

(Famine conditions)

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22
Q

What do adipocytes secrete, because they are an active endocrine organ, that has local and systemic effects that can induce a chronic inflammatory state in a horse with regional or generalized adiposity?

A

(Adipokines)

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23
Q

What effect does either resting or postprandial hyperinsulinemia have on insulin resistance in a horse?

A

(Hyperinsulinemia worsens insulin resistance by down-regulating insulin receptors)

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24
Q

What does having either resting or postprandial hyperinsulinemia predispose a horse to developing?

A

(Laminitis)

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25
Q

What is the primary insult related to endocrine laminitis whereas most other causes of laminitis are related to inflammation?

A

(The primary insult is the alteration of form and function of vasculature)

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26
Q

What are the triggers for laminitis in EMS? Two answers.

A

(A high carbohydrate meal and any other normal cause of laminitis in a horse)

27
Q

How long should concentrate/grain not be fed prior to taking a resting insulin measurement?

A

(4 hours)

28
Q

If resting insulin is normal in a horse you suspect might have EMS (based on signalment), what other tests can be performed?

A

(Oral sugar test and combined glucose-insulin test)

29
Q

(T/F) A combined glucose-insulin test/insulin tolerance test should be performed on a fasted horse.

A

(F, this test is performed on horses in fed conditions, horse should not be fasted)

30
Q

Does pain and/or exercise increase or decrease an animal’s resting insulin?

A

(Decrease)

31
Q

(T/F) The initial dietary management of a horse with EMS should include removing all concentrate from their diet, removing high-sugar treats from their diet, and turning them out on pasture as much as possible.

A

(F, turning out on pasture is strongly discouraged)

32
Q

What are the four time frames in which nonstructured carbohydrates will be high in grazing pastures (so turning horses with EMS out onto pastures during these times is a no-no)?

A

(When grass is growing quickly i.e. spring, just prior to summer droughts, after a heavy rain, and when grass is entering winter dormancy)

33
Q

What drug is used, concurrently with a restricted diet, to ramp up a horse’s metabolic rate to help them lose weight?

A

(Levothyroxine)

34
Q

What drug has a local effect in a horse’s gut that prevents hyperinsulinemic responses to food?

A

(Metformin)

35
Q

(T/F) All dairy cows are in negative energy balance during the first 8 weeks of lactation.

A

(T)

36
Q

What results from the late gestation demands of a fetus, lactation causing sudden and drastic increases in energy demands, and the concurrent decrease in feed intake of early gestation cattle? Two answers.

A

(Negative energy balance and high demand for glucose)

37
Q

How are non-esterified fatty acids processed in the liver? Three answers.

A

(Complete oxidation for energy (gets overwhelmed quickly), incomplete oxidation into ketone bodies, and re-esterification into fatty acids)

38
Q

What are the acceptable screening tests for subclinical ketosis?

A

(Testing for BHB in milk and urine ketones but they have to be at least in the ‘small’ category (bc urine ketones can be falsely positive in normal animals))

39
Q

What is the mainstay treatment for ketosis?

A

(Limit mobilization of fat by providing glucose source → IV dextrose, propylene glycol enterally, glucocorticoids, insulin, get cow to eat)

40
Q

In a normal horse, dopaminergic neurons in the hypothalamus have an inhibitory or stimulatory (choose one) effect on the breakdown of POMC in the pars intermedia.

A

(Inhibitory)

41
Q

In a normal horse, thyrotropin-releasing hormone stimulates or inhibits (choose one) the breakdown of POMC in the pars intermedia and distalis.

A

(Stimulates)

42
Q

What age of horse is associated with PPID?

A

(Older)

43
Q

How can you tell the difference between a horse with PPID and hypertrichosis and a Bashkir Curly horse (besides the owner telling you 15 times)?

A

(Curly horses typically have a curly mane and tail as well while horses with PPID-induced hypertrichosis only have curly hair on their body)

44
Q

Why are horses with PPID at risk for chronic infections?

A

(They are immunosuppressed due to the excess POMC breakdown products)

45
Q

Why might a horse with PPID present with ataxia and blindness?

A

(That indicates there is an extension of the enlarged pituitary gland that is compressing the brain)

46
Q

What are the two endocrine tests with proven utility in the diagnosis of PPID?

A

(Basal ACTH and thyrotropin-releasing hormone stimulation test)

47
Q

What is the mechanism of action of pergolide that makes it useful in the treatment of PPID?

A

(It is a dopamine agonist)

48
Q

What are the normal results from the glucose absorption test (which is used to help in diagnosing a malabsorptive disease)?

A

(Blood glucose should double by the 90-120 minute mark and should return to resting values by 360 minutes)

49
Q

How long should you take to transition a horse to a new diet?

A

(7-10 days)

50
Q

What is the causative agent of proliferative enteropathy in foals?

A

(Lawsonia intracellularis)

51
Q

What do you expect to see on ultrasound of a foal with proliferative enteropathy?

A

(Thickened but not distended small intestines with normal to slow motility)

52
Q

What is the preferred treatment for proliferative enteropathy of foals?

A

(Injectable oxytetracycline)

53
Q

(T/F) Equine patients tend to develop a single, large bladder stone.

A

(T)

54
Q

Equine urolithiasis is more common in males or females (choose one).

A

(Males)

55
Q

What are the most common uroliths in equine patients?

A

(Calcium carbonate uroliths → bc they excrete so much calcium in their urine and their alkaline urine favors crystal formation)

56
Q

(T/F) Urolithiasis is the single most common urinary tract disease in small ruminants.

A

(T)

57
Q

What type of stones are associated with high grain diets that typically have a low calcium:phosphorus ratio and alkaline urine in small ruminants? Two answers.

A

(Struvite and apatite stones)

58
Q

What type of stones are associated with legume diets and alkaline urine in small ruminants?

A

(Calcium carbonate stones)

59
Q

What about the small ruminant penis prevents effective urohydropulsion?

A

(The fact that it is fibroelastic, it will clamp down and not let the water flush through appropriately)

60
Q

What is used to dissolve small ruminant stones?

A

(Walpole’s solution)

61
Q

What is the appropriate calcium to phosphorus ratio to prevent formation of struvite/phosphate stones?

A

(2:1)

62
Q

What is the purpose of increasing dietary roughage in the prevention of phosphate stones?

A

(Dietary roughage increases salivation and will increase excretion of phosphate with the saliva)

63
Q

What is administered to small ruminants to acidify their urine?

A

(Ammonium chloride)

E&E Exam 4 (10 decks)

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