Lab Tech Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Total protein =

A

albumin + globulins

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2
Q

Albumin makes up __-__% of total plasma protein in most animals

A

35-50%

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3
Q

What organ is albumin produced by?

A

liver

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4
Q

This protein binds to & transports many substances

A

Albumin

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5
Q

Albumin accounts for about ___% of osmotic activity

A

75%

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6
Q

Too little albumin in the blood

A

hypoalbuminemia

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7
Q

What can cause hypoalbuminemia?

A

Hepatic disease, malnutrition, intestinal malabsorption, renal disease, blood/plasma loss

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8
Q

Too much albumin in the blood

A

Hyperalbuminemia

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9
Q

Hyperalbuminemia is _______; decreased plasma water content due to dehydration.

A

relative

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10
Q

All proteins other than albumin are collectively called ________. This includes fibrinogen.

A

globulins

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11
Q

What tube must you use to measure fibrinogen?

A

purple top

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12
Q

Globulins vary in size, structure, function & charge. Most are produced in the _____ and ____ tissue.

A

liver

lymphoid

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13
Q

Immunoglobulins aka

A

antibodies

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14
Q

Globulins are normally estimated by determining the difference between what?

A

total protein TP - ALB (albumin)

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15
Q

What are some causes of hypoglobulinemia?

A

liver disease, malnutrition, intestinal malabsorption, renal disease, blood/plasma loss, failure of passive transfer (from dam to neonate)

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16
Q

What are some causes of hyperglobulinemia?

A

Relative (decreased plasma water content due to dehydration); inflammation (infectious & noninfectious); lymphoid neoplasms; plasma cell myeloma

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17
Q

What does hepatobiliary refer to?

A

Liver enzymes and other substances made by the liver

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18
Q

Enzymes found _____ in the cytoplasm of the cell that leak out when the cell is injured.

A

free

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19
Q

The hepatocyte can be injured by what 2 broad categories?

A

Primary liver disease

Secondary

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20
Q

These are examples of what type of liver problem: toxins, medications; inflammatory reaction; direct trauma; cholestasis (due to toxicity of bile salts and bilirubin)

A

Primary liver disease

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21
Q

These are examples of what type of liver problem: leakage of pancreatic enzymes due to anatomical location; GI disease; hypoxia from anemia or poor circulation

A

Secondary liver disease

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22
Q

Magnitude of elevation of these leakage enzymes is dependent on the ______ of cells being affected, not on the ____ of the injury to these cells.

A

Number

Severity

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23
Q

Enzyme involved in biosynthesis of alanine.

Liver specific in dogs, cats & primates (major source is hepatocyte).

A

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

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24
Q

An increase in ALT is usually seen within ___ hours of hepatocyte damage.
Peak levels seen in __-___ hours.
Levels return to normal in a few weeks unless chronic insult is present.

A

12 hours

24-48 hours

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25
Q

Moderate increases in ALT can occur by overproduction produced by what 2 medications?

A

Glucocorticoids and anticonvulsants

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26
Q

This enzyme is involved in the synthesis of aspartate.

Not liver specific

A

Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)

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27
Q

This enzyme has a short half life in dogs and cats. There is no advantage over ALT in these species.

A

AST

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28
Q

AST has a longer half life in horses & cows. However, it is also a _____ enzyme so must be interpreted in light of _____ ______.

A
Muscle
Creatine kinase (CK)
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29
Q

This enzyme is liver specific in large animals but is difficult to run because it is relatively unstable. Extremely short half life, may return to normal by time animal is presented.

A

Sorbitol Dehydrogenase (SDH)

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30
Q

This enzyme is found in high concentrations in hepatocytes of cattle, sheep, goats, and birds. No standardized test method has been developed for use in veterinary practice.

A

Glutamate Dehydrogenase (GLDH)

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31
Q

What are the Hepatocellular Leakage Enzymes? (4)

A
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
Sorbitol Dehydrogenase (SDH)
Glutamate Dehydrogenase (GLDH)
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32
Q

This type of liver enzyme is present within the cell, bound to membranes, and does not leak out of cells when there is damage.

A

Inducible (Overproduction)

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33
Q

Elevations of inducible liver enzymes are induced by an ____ in the rate of synthesis. Some escape the cell into systemic circulation.

A

increase

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34
Q

A group of enzymes present in many tissues. Ex: Alkaline Phosphatase

A

Isoenzymes

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35
Q

High concentrations of this enzyme is found in the liver, bone, intestinal mucosa, kidney and placenta.

A

Alkaline Phosphatase

ALKP, ALP, AP

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36
Q

The half life of ALP in the intestines, kidneys and placenta is ____ (____) compared to bone and liver.

A

short (hours)

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37
Q

What drugs can cause an increase in ALP? This only occurs in dogs. Do not necessarily indicate liver pathology.

A

Glucocorticoids and anticonvulsants

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38
Q

Increased ALP can also be caused by ______. Accelerated production of ALP is induced by increased pressure in the bile ducts during blockage of bile flow.

A

Cholestasis

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39
Q

Cholestasis may be from ______ or _____ causes.

A

intrahepatic or extrahepatic

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40
Q

Intrahepatic cholestasis can occur secondary to a wide variety of conditions that affect the biliary tree in the liver, including:

A

inflammation or infection, hepatocyte swelling, and neoplasia

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41
Q

Extrahepatic cholestasis results from occlusion of the ______, which may be caused by similar conditions affecting the gall bladder, bile duct itselt, or the area of the duodenum where the bile duct empties.

A

common bile duct

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42
Q

Pancreatitis or pancreatic neoplasia may sometimes cause

A

extrahepatic bile duct obstruction

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43
Q

Cat’s livers are capable of less ALP production than dogs, consequently an increase of only - X the URL in cats in clinically significant

A

2-3X

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44
Q

ALP is considered an inducible enzyme, but mild increases (<5X URL) have been noted following _____ - probably because of release of membrane fragments containing ALP.

A

acute hepatic necrosis

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45
Q

Is it possible to differentiate the isoforms of ALP?

A

Yes: bone (BALP); corticosteriod-induced (CALP); liver cholestasis (LALP)

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46
Q

Increased osteoblastic activity of ALP can be due to what?

A

Young growing animals
Hyperparathyroidism
Fracture healing
Osteosarcoma

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47
Q

ALP is not use in what 2 species because there are wide fluctuations in normal blood ALP levels.

A

Cattle & Sheep

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48
Q

ALP increases are usually ____ with osteoblastic activity, fracture healing, etc.

A

mild

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49
Q

This enzyme is found in many tissues but the primary source is the liver. Blood ___ level is elevated with liver disease, especially w/obstructive liver disease.

A

Gamma glutamyltransferase (GGT)

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50
Q

Cattle, horses, sheep, goats, and birds have ___ (higher or lower) blood GGT activity than dogs and cats.

A

higher

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51
Q

This enzyme is synthesized in the highest amounts in the kidneys, pancreas & liver.

A

GGT

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52
Q

Why is the blood GGT specific to the liver?

A

GGT from renal tubules is excreted in urine.
GGT from the pancreas in excreted into the GI tract.
GGT present in the serum originates from the liver.

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53
Q

Increased GGT occurs with what pathologically?

A

Cholestasis

Biliary hyperplasia

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54
Q

Similar to ALP, GGT can be induced in dogs receiving what?

A

Corticosteriods and anticonvulsants

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55
Q

Because ALP is not very sensitive in large animals, what liver enzyme would you use to test for cholestasis?

A

GGT

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56
Q

Neonates of several species have markedly increased GGT due to ingestion of

A

colostrum

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57
Q

We can measure many substances that are taken up, modified, produced, and/or secreted by the liver - these are not enzymes. What are these tests called collectively?

A

Hepatocyte Function tests

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58
Q

2 general types of tests for what?
Those that test uptake, metabolism, and clearance of a substance from the blood.
Those that test the synthetic capabilities of the liver.

A

Hepatic Function tests

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59
Q

Bilirubin is a breakdown product of what?

A

hemoglobin

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60
Q

Aged RBCs are destroyed by macrophages in the

A

spleen

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61
Q

What portion of hemoglobin is converted to bilirubin?

A

Heme

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62
Q

The protein-bound (mainly albumin) bilirubin is called

A

unconjugated bilirubin

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63
Q

Inside the hepatocyte, bilirubine attaches first to a binding protein (ligandin), which helps keep it from refluxing back into the blood. Bilirubin is then ______ (usually to glucuronic acid), making it water soluble and excreted in the bile.

A

conjugated

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64
Q

Conjuaged bilirubin is also called

A

direct bilirubin

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65
Q

Some conjugated bilirubin may become protein-bound, termed

A

delta bilirubin

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66
Q

Protein-bound bilirubin, whether conjugated or unconjugated, does not pass through the normal glomerulus, and so is not usually present in

A

urine.

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67
Q

Conjugated bilirubin that is secreted in bile ends up in the intestine, where it is converted to ____ and excreted in feces.

A

Urobilinogen

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68
Q

In health, most serum bilirubin is ______, and a small amount is ______.

A

Most: unconjugated
small: conjugated

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69
Q

Conjugated bilirubin (which is _____ soluble) is excreted as a bile pigment into intestines.

A

Water

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70
Q

Conjugated bilirubin can be converted into urobilinogen by ______ in the intestines.

A

bacteria

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71
Q

Some urobilinogen is converted to stercobilinogen and excreted in stool as

A

stercobilin

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72
Q

Total bilirubin =

A

conjugated + unconjugated

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73
Q

When there is hyperbilirubinemia to a sufficient degree, the serum will be

A

icteric.

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74
Q

By the time the serum bilirubin reaches ___mg/dL, icterus can also be detected in the mucous membranes & sclera.

A

3 mg/dL

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75
Q

What are the three general causes of hyperbilirubinemia?

A

Pre-hepatic
Hepatic
Post-hepatic

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76
Q

Excess extravascular hemolysis red blood cell breakdown. One cause of hyperbilirubinemia.

A

Pre-hepatic

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77
Q

Liver disease that prevents liver from conjugating the normal amount of unconjugated bilirubin presented to it. One cause of hyperbilirubinemia.

A

Hepatic

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78
Q

Bile duct obstruction so that the conjugated bilirubin can’t be passed with bile into the intestines and backs up into the bloodstream and into the tissues. One cause of hyperbilirubinemia.

A

Post-hepatic

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79
Q

The enzymes induced by cholestasis (___ & ____) are generally more sensitive indicators of cholestasis than is increased serum bilirubin (particularly true in dogs & cattle, doesn’t always hold true for cats & horses).

A

ALP & GGT

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80
Q

The combination of increased induction enzymes (ALP & GGT) plus increased serum bilirubin supports

A

Cholestasis

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81
Q

Combination of regenerative anemia (typical of hemolysis) and increased serum bilirubin suggests a

A

pre-hepatic icterus

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82
Q

Leakage enzymes (ALT, AST) may be increased (indicating hepatocellular injury) from hepatic causes of icterus, but also from ______ because bile is an irritating substance that can solubilize membranes and cause hepatocyte injury.

A

post-hepatic causes

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83
Q

_____ and ______ causes of icterus cannot be reliably differentiated based on laboratory data. Additional diagnostic tests such as ultrasound, liver biopsy, or sx are usually required.

A

Hepatic and post-hepatic

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84
Q

Bilirubin in these 2 species is only elevated if significant liver disease is present.

A

Dog and cat

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85
Q

Increased bilirubin in this species can be seen in non-hepatic conditions such as anorexia.

A

Horse

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86
Q

Increased bilirubin in this species can be elevated in a variety of diseases. Increase due to liver disease is less than other species.

A

Cattle

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87
Q

Bile acids are synthesized by ______ from cholesterol.

A

hepatocytes

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88
Q

Bile acids are secreted in the ____ and stored in the _____.

A

bile

gallbladder

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89
Q

Bile acids are released into the ____ following a meal.

A

duodenum

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90
Q

Bile acids aid in ____ absorption.

A

fat

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91
Q

Bile acids get transported back to the _____ via portal circulation.

A

liver

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92
Q

Normally, there is a ____ level of bile acids in systemic circulation.

A

very low

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93
Q

What are 3 reasons for an elevation in bile acids?

A

Decreased hepatic function
Portosystemic shunt
Cholestatic disease

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94
Q

An elevation in bile acids because they are not effectively cleared from the blood is caused by what?

A

decreased hepatic function

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95
Q

When blood bypasses the liver and enters systemic circulation, this is called a

A

portosystemic shunt

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96
Q

Bile acids that get regurgitated to the liver and enter systemic circulation is caused by what?

A

cholestatic disease

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97
Q

These are techniques for what test: fast patient for 12 hours; draw blood sample; feed patient; draw blood sample 2 hours later; only fasting sample is taken in animals without a gallbladder.

A

Bile acids test

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98
Q

These 4 tests evaluate hepatic synthetic function.

A

Albumin, glucose, BUN, cholesterol

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99
Q

Albumin is synthesized in the ____, so hepatic insufficiency can result in hypoalbuminemia.

A

liver

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100
Q

Albumin has a long serum half-life (7-10 days), and so decreases are associated with ______ liver disease.

A

chronic

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101
Q

There are other causes besides chronic liver disease for hypoalbuminemia such as

A

urinary loss, blood loss, intestinal loss

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102
Q

The ____ is central to glucose metabolism, converting glucose to glycogen for storage, releasing stored glucose via glycogenolysis, and synthesizing glucose via gluconeogenesis.

A

Liver

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103
Q

Because of the liver’s reserve capacity, __-__% of hepatic function must be lost before glucose abnormalities and low albumin levels are seen.

A

60-80%

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104
Q

Typically, we think of hepatic insufficiency as causing hypoglycemia, but a prolonged ______ following a meal is also possible due to decreased glucose uptake by hepatocytes.

A

hyperglycemia

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105
Q

Urea is synthesized from ____ in the liver.

A

ammonia

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106
Q

Markedly decreased hepatic mass is result in ____ (increased or decreased) urea synthesis and therefore a _____ serum BUN, while blood ammonia levels increase.

A

decreased

decreased

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107
Q

Cholesterol is synthesized in the ____ and undergoes enterohepatic circulation via the bile.

A

liver

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108
Q

Cholesterol my be normal, decreased, or increased with liver disease, depending upon the balance between ____ and ____ ______.

A

cholestasis

hepatic insufficiency

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109
Q

What are 3 exocrine pancreatic enzymes?

A

Amylase, lipase & trypsin

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110
Q

What 2 pancreatic enzymes are measured directly?

A

amylase & lipase

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111
Q

_____ is an exocrine pancreatic enzyme that is measured using antibodies to detect it.

A

trypsin

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112
Q

What are the 2 endocrine pancreas tests?

A

Glucose

Fructosamine

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113
Q

Inflammation of the pancreas. The result of activation of the digestive enzymes (amylase, lipase & proteases) within the pancreas instead of activation in the intestine.

A

Pancreatitis

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114
Q

CSX of what disease?

vomiting, abdominal pain, systemic inflammation (leukocytosis, fever). Occurs in dogs and cats

A

Pancreatitis

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115
Q

The result of an absolute or relative lack of insulin production.

A

Diabetes mellitus (DM)

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116
Q

CSX of what disease?
polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia & weight loss. Dogs: sudden blindness due to cataract formation can occur. Cats: decreased interaction, unkempt hair, rear limb weakness

A

Diabetes mellitus (DM)

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117
Q

____ and _____ are used to aid in the diagnosis of pancreatitis. Not useful for detection of pancreatic insufficiency because they are produced in other places.

A

Amylase and lipase

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118
Q

Pancreatitis occurs much more commonly in the ___ than other species.

A

dog

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119
Q

Pancreatitis occurs in ____ but is more difficult to diagnose.

A

cats

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120
Q

Pancreatitis is rarely diagnosed in ____ and ____.

A

horses & cattle

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121
Q

The primary source of ____ is the pancreas, but it is also produced in the salivary glands and small intestine.

A

Amylase

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122
Q

This enzyme breaks down starches and glycogen.

A

Amylase

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123
Q

Pancreatic duct ____ results in a backup of digestive enzymes into peripheral circulations.

A

inflammation

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124
Q

Amylase rises rapidly (w/in 12-48) with ____ and remains elevated for more than one ____.

A

pancreatitis

week

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125
Q

Normal amylase and lipase does not rule out _______

A

pancreatitis

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126
Q

Renal tubular cells normally degrade ______. Renal failure may cause elevations in _______.

A

Amylase

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127
Q

Some ____ and ____ diseases may cause elevations in amylase.

A

liver and intestinal

128
Q

Manipulation of the ____ during sx may also cause elevations in amylase.

A

pancreas

129
Q

In general, the higher the amylase, the more likely it is to indicate ______.

A

pancreatitis

130
Q

The degree of amylase activity is not directly ____ to the severity of pancreatitis.

A

proportional

131
Q

Nearly all serum lipase is derived from the ______.

A

pancreas

132
Q

This enzyme breaks down the long-chain fatty acids of lipids.

A

Lipase

133
Q

Interpretation of lipase is similar to that of ______

A

amylase

134
Q

Lipase activity usually does not increase in ____ patients with pancreatitis and is not a reliable indicator.

A

feline

135
Q

Lipase may be elevated in non-pancreatic disesases such as:

A

renal disease, hepatic disease, exploratory sx, corticosteroids (unlike amylase)

136
Q

What test is species specific for an enzyme produced by the pancreas?

A

Species-specific pancreatic-lipase immunoreactivity (PLI)

137
Q

Limited to the _____ cells (exocrine portion) of the pancreas, and thus is a specific marker indicating damage to the pancreas.

A

acinar

138
Q

Abdominal ultrasonography is also a useful aid in the diagnosis of the canine _____

A

pancreatitis

139
Q

This test uses antibodies to detect trypsin and trypsinogen. It is species specific. A 12 hour fasted serum sample is sent to a reference lab on gel ice pack

A

Serum trypsinlike immunoreactivity

140
Q

This disease is hereditary in German Shepherds. It is secondary to reccurent bouts of pancreatitis.

A

Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency (EPI)

141
Q

Which test is most often used to detect exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI)?

A

Trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI)

142
Q

This disease is a lack of digestive enzymes resulting in malassimilation of ingested food (food is not transformed to absorbable forms). Intestinal bacteria overgrowth often occurs in dogs. Secondary changes occur in intestinal mucosa.

A

Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency

143
Q

Csx of what disease? Chronic diarrhea, weight loss or failure to gain weight, pica & coprophagia may occur.

A

EPI

144
Q

These cells in the pancreas release glucagon in response to hypoglycemia.

A

Alpha cells

145
Q

These cells in the pancreas release insulin in response to hyerpglycemia.

A

Beta cells

146
Q

We can measure _____ to help assess the beta cell function of the pancreas.

A

glucose

147
Q

Diabetes mellitus, stress, and glucocorticoids are causes of what?

A

Hyperglycemia

148
Q

Insulinoma, fasting, liver disease, and artifact are causes of what?

A

hypoglycemia

149
Q

This represents the irreversible reaction of glucose bound to protein, particularly albumin.

A

Fructosamine

150
Q

When glucose is persistently elevated, fructosamine is ______

A

elevated

151
Q

Half-life of albumin in dogs & cats is 1-2 weeks. Therefore, _____ provides an indication of the average serum glucose over that period.

A

fructosamine

152
Q

Production of these hormones increases with exposure to cold and then increases metabolic rate to generate more heat.

A

thyroid hormones

153
Q

These hormones affect metabolism of proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids much.

A

Thyroid hormones

154
Q

These hormones encourage synthesis of proteins if there are adequate energy sources.

A

Thyroid hormones

155
Q

Thyroid hormones ____(encourage or discourage) the breakdown of lipids for energy

A

encourage

156
Q

Thyroid hormones ______ (encourage or discourage) using carbs as energy source.

A

discourage

157
Q

Deficiency of thyroid hormone

A

hypothyroidism

158
Q

Lethargy, weight gain, cold intolerance, alopecia are clinical signs of

A

hypothyroidism

159
Q

Diagnostic tests for hypothyroidsim

A

Free T4 by ED, T4, TSH

160
Q

Tx for hypothyroidism

A

thyroid hormone supplement

161
Q

Excessive thyroid hormone

A

hyperthyroidism

162
Q

Etiology for what disease? lymphocytic throiditis & idiopathic atrophy of the thyroid gland

A

Hypothyroidism

163
Q

Etiology for what disease? hyperplasia or neoplasia of thyroid gland typically in middle aged to older cats

A

Hyperthyroidism

164
Q

Clinical signs of what diease? PU/PD, polyphagia, weight loss, v/d, tachycardia, hyperactive

A

Hyperthyroidism

165
Q

Diagnostic tests for hyperthyroidism

A

T4, free T4 by ED

166
Q

TX for hyperthyroidism

A

antithyroid drugs, sx, radioactive iodine

167
Q

This thyroid assay monitors hypothyroid & hyperthyroid patients; aids in diagnosis of hyper & hypothyroidism

A

Total T4

168
Q

___% of T4 is protein bound

A

99

169
Q

Total T4 thyroid assay is affected by (2 things). “Euthyroid-sick”

A

Drugs and non-thyroid illnesses

170
Q

This thyroid assay is more accurate than T4. It measures unbound, biologically active T4.

A

Free T4 by Equilibrium Dialysis

171
Q

Free T4 by ED should be interpreted in conjunction with (2 things)

A

TSH & clinical signs

172
Q

This thyroid assay differentiates primary hypothyroidism from secondary/tertiary.

A

TSH

173
Q

TSH should be interpreted in conjunction with

A

T4 or free T4 and clinical signs

174
Q

Total T4 should be interpreted in conjunction with (3 things)

A

TSH, free T4 by ED & clinical signs.

175
Q

Total T4 assay uses what?

A

serum or plasma

176
Q

If monitoring total T4, draw sample - hours post pill.

A

4-6

177
Q

Can Total T4 be sent out or run in house?

A

Both

178
Q

Can Free T4 by ED be sent out or run in house?

A

Sent out

179
Q

Can TSH be sent out or run in house?

A

sent out

180
Q

When should a UA be performed? (time of day)

A

morning

181
Q

increased urine production

A

Polyuria

182
Q

frequent urination

A

pollakiuria

183
Q

decrease in daily urine output

A

oliguria

184
Q

absence of urine

A

anuria

185
Q

painful urination

A

dysuria

186
Q

High WBC count in urine

A

pyuria

187
Q

RBC in urine

A

hematuria

188
Q

hemoglobin in urine

A

hemogloinuria

189
Q

4 methods of urine collection

A

free-catch, manual expression, cystocentesis, catheterization

190
Q

What collection method? Urine collected in clean container free of disinfectants. Mid-stream sample preferred.

A

Free-catch

191
Q

Disadvantages of free catch method?

A

WBC, bacteria & protein can be added as contaminants from distal urethra, genital tract & external skin

192
Q

Free catch samples that are negative for WBC, bacteria & protein are ____ results.

A

valid

193
Q

Free catch samples that are positive for WBC, bacteria, protein will necessitate sampling via

A

cystocentesis

194
Q

This method of urine collection is cleaner than samples collected by free catch, but urine sample may still contain contaminants.

A

Catheterization

195
Q

What should be done before cathing an animal for a UA?

A

External area is generally cleaned w/a surgical skin method

196
Q

When cathing, there is the possibility of causing an ____ UTI.

A

iatrogenic (secondary)

197
Q

This method of urine collection is likely to add RBC’s & transitional cells to the urine sample. This is due to mild trauma to the urethra.

A

Catheterization

198
Q

This is the preferred method of urine collection when evaluating the significance of cells or bacteria in the urine.

A

Cystocentesis

199
Q

Which method of collection should be used when obtaining urine for culture?

A

Cystocentesis

200
Q

Mild blood contamination may be seen in ____ obtained sample.

A

cystocentesis

201
Q

What are the 4 UA assays?

A

Gross examination
Specific gravity (USG)
Chemical analysis
Sediment

202
Q

Analyzing urine sample should be done in what time frame?

A

15-30 min

203
Q

Why should urine be analyzed within 30 min?

A

Dissolution of casts & deterioration of cells present in urine.
Increase in urine pH due to loss of CO2
Formation of dissolution of crystals depending on type.
Bacteria will overgrow

204
Q

Urine samples sent to an outside lab for cytologic exam are sent in a ____ tube.

A

EDTA

205
Q

If urine cannot be examined w/in 30 min, it can be refrigerated & sealed to slow rate of artifactual changes. It will be valid for about ___ hours

A

6

206
Q

Horse urine is normally what turbidity?

A

cloudy

207
Q

Normal USG for dogs is what if hydration status is normal

A

1.025

208
Q

Normal USG for cats is what if hydration status is normal

A

1.030

209
Q

This UA assay indicates renal function in maintaining hydration; can kidneys concentrate urine?

A

Urine specific gravity

210
Q

No normal results for USG, only appropriate values for a given _____ state.

A

hydration

211
Q

In health, the pH of urine is dependent on

A

diet.

212
Q

Diets high in animal protein produce a ____ urine pH.

A

lower (more acidic)

213
Q

Diets that are plant/vegetable based result in ___ urine pH.

A

Higher (alkaline)

214
Q

Carnivores/omnivores have more ___ urine.

A

acidic

215
Q

Herbivores have more ___ urine

A

alkaline

216
Q

In illness, the urine pH can be affected by the ____ status of the patient.

A

acid/base

217
Q

An animal with academia should have more ___ urine as the kidneys excrete excess ____.

A

Acidic

H+

218
Q

An animal with alkalemia should have more ____ urine as the kidneys retain ____.

A

basic

H+

219
Q

UTI’s, with urease positive bacteria (which convert urea to ammonia) may result in an ____ in pH.

A

increase

220
Q

Increase in urine pH/alkaline urine, WBC & bacteria in urine sediment are indications of

A

Urinary tract infections

221
Q

The most common cause of an increase in urine pH in small animals is

A

artifactual, letting it set out for too long

222
Q

Protein is normally present in ___ quantities in the urine.

A

low

223
Q

The protein pad on the urine stick is influenced by the ___ of the urine

A

pH

224
Q

Positive protein readings should be re-checked by a separate method, such as

A

Sulfosalicylic acid turbidity (SSA)

225
Q

This type of urine can occur with stress, temp extremes (envir or fever) or strenuous exercise.

A

Proteinuria

226
Q

The more common proteinuria is

A

renal proteinuria

227
Q

____ is normally not present in the urine in quantities detectable on dipsticks. The dipstick pad detects this using the enzyme glucose oxidase.

A

Glucose

228
Q

This enzyme activity on the urine dipstick glucose pad is limited and outdated strips may give false neg reactions & temp can affect enzyme activity (refrigerated samples should be warmed to room temp before testing).

A

glucose oxidase

229
Q

_____ will occur with any condition that causes blood glucose levels to exceed the renal threshold for re-absorption.

A

Glucosuria

230
Q

____ is a common cause of glucosuria due to excessive blood glucose concentrations.

A

Diabetes mellitus

231
Q

____ are formed during fat metabolism. ____ indicate an excessive shift from carb metabolism to fat metabolism.

A

Ketones

Ketonuria

232
Q

The occult blood reagent on the urine dipstick measures what 2 things?

A

myoglobin or hemoglobin

233
Q

Positive occult blood reading is most commonly associated with ____ rather than hemoglobinuria.

A

Hematuria

234
Q

____ may occur after rhabdomyolysis. Animals will usually have elevations in muscle enzymes & signs of muscle pain.

A

rhabdomyolysis

235
Q

____ is a breakdown product of hemoglobin.

A

Bilirubin

236
Q

Which tests on the dipstick are not reliable for animals?

A

USG, urobilinogen, nitrites, WBCs

237
Q

What should be used to measure USG?

A

refractometer

238
Q

What should be observed at 40X for microscopic exam of urine sedimentation?

A

epithelial cells, RBC, WBC, bacteria

239
Q

What should be observed at 10X for microscopic exam of urine sedimentation?

A

casts, crystals

240
Q

What misc findings can be on the microscopic exam of urine sedimentation?

A

mucus, fat, sperm, parasites

241
Q

What are the five main types of casts?

A

Hyaline, cellular, granular, waxy, fatty

242
Q

What are the 2 types of Calcium oxalate crystals and what do they look like?

A

Monohydrate: picket fence
Dihydrate: square w/x or back of an envelope

243
Q

Factors that may increase urine pH

A

sample sits out, UTI, high-fiber diets, certain drugs, alkalosis, urine rentention

244
Q

Factors that may decrease urine pH

A

high-protein diet, fever, starvation, acidosis, excessive muscular activity, certain drugs

245
Q

What type of bilirubin cannot pass through the glomerulus?

A

unconjugated, because it is usually bound to albumin

246
Q

Only ____ bilirubin will be excreted in the urine.

A

conjugated

247
Q

Bilirubinuria & hyperbilirubinemia are caused by the same 3 diseases which are

A

hemolytic disease
hepatic insufficiency
cholestasis

248
Q

Bilirubinuria should prompt you to look for other evidence of (2 things)

A

liver disease or hemolysis

249
Q

Dogs, especially males, have a ___ renal threshold for bilirubin.

A

lower

250
Q

Many normal cattle have ___ amounts of bilirubin in their urine.

A

small

251
Q

Any amount of ___ in cats, pigs, sheep & horses is significant.

A

bilirubinuria

251
Q

This type of cast is clear, colorless, and somewhat transparent structures composed only of protein.

A

Hyaline

252
Q

Increased numbers of this type of cast indicate the mildest form of renal irritation. There numbers are also increased with fever, poor renal perfusion, strenuous exercise, or general anesthesia.

A

Hyaline

253
Q

This type of cast is a hyaline cast containing granules. It is the most common type of cast seen in animals.

A

Granular casts

254
Q

This type of cast is seen in large numbers with acute nephritis and indicate more severe kidney damage than do hyaline casts.

A

Granular casts

255
Q

This type of cast consists of epithelial cells from the renal tubules imbedded in a hyaline matrix

A

Epithelial casts

256
Q

This type of cast is seen in acute nephritis or other conditions that cause degeneration of the renal tubular epithelium

A

Epithelial casts

257
Q

This type of cast contains WBC, mostly neutrophils, which indicates inflammation in the renal tubules.

A

Leukocyte casts

258
Q

This type of cast is deep yellow to orange in color. RBC membranes may or may not be visible.

A

Erythrocyte casts

259
Q

This type of cast indicates renal bleeding.

A

Erythrocyte casts

260
Q

This type of cast resembles hyaline casts but are usually wider, with square ends rather than rounded ends and a dull, homogenous, waxy appearance

A

Waxy casts

261
Q

This type of cast indicates chronic, severe degeneration of the renal tubules.

A

Waxy casts

262
Q

This type of cast contains many small droplets of fat that appear as refractive bodies.

A

Fatty casts

263
Q

This type of cast is seen in cats with renal disease, occasionally in dogs with diabetes mellitus. A large number of these casts suggest degeneration of the renal tubules.

A

Fatty casts

264
Q

This type of crystal is a 6-8 sided prism with tapering sides and ends. Typically described as coffin lids, occasionally they may be fern-leaf shaped.

A

Struvite crystals

265
Q

This type of crystal is found in alkaline to slightly acidic urine

A

Struvite

266
Q

This type of crystal is common in alkaline urine and appear as a granular precipitate.

A

Amorphous phosphate

267
Q

This type of crystal is commonly seen in urine of horses and rabbits. They are round, with many lines radiating from their centers, or appear as large granular masses. They may also have a dumbbell shape. They have no clinical significance.

A

Calcium carbonate.

268
Q

This type of crystal is similar to Amorphous phosphate crystals in that they appear as granular precipitate. Unlike amorphous phosphate, they are found in acidic urine.

A

Amorphous urates

269
Q

This type of crystal is found in acidic, neutral, or alkaline urine. They are brown in color and round with long, irregular spicules (thorn apple shaped)

A

Ammonium biurate

270
Q

This type of crystal is most common is animals with severe liver disease, such as portocaval shunts.

A

Ammonium biurate

271
Q

Calcium oxalate crystals come in what 2 types?

A

Dihydrate and monohydrate.

272
Q

This type of crystal generally appears as small squares, containing an X across the the crystal, resembling the back of an envelope.

A

Calcium oxalate dihydrate

273
Q

This type of crystal may be small and dumbbell shaped or elongated and pointed at each end (picket fence).

A

Calcium oxalate monohydrate

274
Q

This type of calm oxalate crystal is found in acidic and neutral urine. It is commonly seen in small numbers in dogs and horses

A

Calcium dihydrate

275
Q

The urine of animals poisoned with ethylene glycol (antifreeze), often contains large numbers of ………, especially which one?

A

Calcium oxalate crystals

Monohydrate

276
Q

Animals with oxalate urolithiasis may have large numbers of ………. …….. Crystals in their urine, and large numbers of these crystals may indicate predisposition to oxalate urolithiasis.

A

Calcium oxalate

277
Q

This type of crystal is seen in animals being treated with sulfonamides.

A

Sulfonamide crystals

278
Q

This type of crystal is round, usually dark, with individual crystals radiating from the center. They are less likely to be seen in alkaline urine.

A

Sulfonamide crystals

279
Q

This type of crystal takes on a variety of shapes but are usually diamond or rhomboid. They appear yellow or yellow-brown and are not commonly found in dog or cat urine except Dalmatians

A

Uris acid crystals

280
Q

This type of crystal is wheel or pincushion shaped and are yellow or brown in color. Animals with liver disease may have this type of crystal in their urine.

A

Leucine

281
Q

This type of crystal is dark, with needlelike projections, and are highly refractive. They are often found in small clusters. They are not a common finding in dog and cat urine. Animals with liver disease may have these in their urine.

A

Tyrosine

282
Q

This type of crystal appears flat and is 6-sided (hexagon) colorless and thin. They can be associated with renal tubular dysfunction or cystine urolithiasis.

A

Cystine

283
Q

The bladder worm of dogs and cats

A

Capillaria plica

284
Q

Kidney worm of dogs

A

Dioctophyma renale

285
Q

What may be seen in the urine sediment of dogs with adult heartworms?

A

Microfilaria

286
Q

Occurrence of uroliths in the urinary tract

A

Urolithiasis

287
Q

What are the primary serum chemistry tests for kidney function?

A

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Creatinine (CREA)

288
Q

Increased concentrations of BUN and/or CREA are referred to as

A

azotemia

289
Q

During protein catabolism, ____ is formed.

A

ammonia

290
Q

The liver converts ammonia to

A

urea

291
Q

Urea is soluble in plasma and is freely filtered through the glomerulus. Some urea is normally reabsorbed through the tubules. There, ___ amount of BUN is maintained.

A

some

292
Q

Serum creatinine is produced from the breakdown of

A

phosphocreatine

293
Q

Protein in muscle tissue is referred to as

A

phosphocreatine

294
Q

The day to day rate of creatinine production is relatively constant in any animal and is dependent on

A

muscle mass

295
Q

Creatinine is cleared primarily by the

A

kidney

296
Q

Creatinine is ____ reabsorbed through the tubules.

A

minimally

297
Q

Even though ___ is the result of breakdown of muscle protein, alterations in muscle metabolism rarely affect it enough to cause elevations above normal.

A

creatinine

298
Q

What are 2 general causes of azotemia?

A

Decreased glomerular filtration of blood. (glomerular filtration rate GFR)
Increased rate of protein catabolism

299
Q

This is a characteristic of what cause of azotemia? Decreased number of functioning nephrons.

A

Decreased GFR (glomerular filtration rate)

300
Q

This is a characteristic of what cause of azotemia? Shut down of filtration due to obstruction causing backpressure into the ureter and kidneys.

A

Decreased GFR

301
Q

This is a characteristic of what cause of azotemia? Decreased blood flow to the kidneys: 1) reduced blood volume from dehydration, hypotension, 2) reduced circulating volume due to cardiac insufficiency.

A

Decreased GFR

302
Q

These are characteristics of what cause of azotemia? High protein diet. Increased muscle breakdown.

A

Increased rate of protein catabolism

303
Q

This is a characteristic of what cause of azotemia? Bleeding in the GI tract (results in digestion of serum proteins).

A

Increased rate of protein catabolism

304
Q

Pre-renal azotemia can result from the rate of formation of nitrogenous waste _____ and _____ renal clearance.

A

increases and exceeds

305
Q

Pre-renal azotemia can result from ___ blood flow to the kidneys.

A

decreased

306
Q

The kidneys are normal but there is reduced blood flow to the kidneys resulting in reduced clearance of waste products. This results in ____ azotemia.

A

pre-renal

307
Q

With decreased blood flow to the kidneys, the degree of azotemia may be

A

very high

308
Q

You cannot ever rule out pre-renal azotemia due to poor perfusion simply based on the magnitude of the

A

azotemia

309
Q

Decreased GFR due to lack of functioning renal tissue (reduced number of functioning nephrons) will result in ____ azotemia.

A

renal

310
Q

Because of the excess reserve capacity of the kidney, renal azotemia does not occur until approximately __% of the nephrons are nonfuncitonal.

A

75%

311
Q

Decreased GFR secondary to urinary obstruction is related to

A

postrenal azotemia

312
Q

Blockage of urine flow eventually causes enough backpressure into the ureters and kidneys to shut down

A

renal filtration

313
Q

If you can rule out post-renal azotemia based on clincal exam, then ___ can be used to differentiate pre-renal from renal azotemia.

A

USG

314
Q

If the urine is adequately concentrated, the animal has a ____ azotemia.

A

pre-renal

315
Q

The ability to concentrate urine is lost when __% of the nephrons are non-functional.

A

66%