Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Spring 2014 > Lab Tech Exam 1 > Flashcards

Lab Tech Exam 1 Flashcards

0
Q

Blood group antigens may react with what in the plasma of another animal

A

Antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Structures on the surface of erythrocytes

Genetically determined and referred to as blood group …

A

Antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

This reaction can occur with blood transfusions as a result of variation in blood group antigens between the recipient and donor

A

Antigen-antibody reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Feline blood types (3, letters)

A

A, B, AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Greater than 90% of cats in US are blood type….

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

This blood type is more common in certain purebred cats

A

Type B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

This blood type is rare in cats

A

AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Naturally occurring antibodies against other blood types are found in all cats by the time they are how old?

A

A few weeks old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cats with blood type B have strong antibodies against what type?
Type B cats can suffer fatal reactions if given this type of blood.

A

Type A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cats with type A blood have weak antibodies against what type?
Type A cats generally have a mild reaction if given this type of blood.

A

Type B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

This cat blood type lacks naturally occurring antibodies and can safely receive blood from the other 2 types.

A

Type AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

This cat blood type is a universal recipient

A

Type AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Condition that occurs if mom has antibodies against kitten’s blood type.
Ex: type A or AB kittens born to type B dams
Kitten ingests the maternal anti-A antibodies in colostrum which causes hemolysis in kitten
CX: acute death, fading kittens, tail-tip necrosis

A

Neonatal isoerythrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Canine blood types

A

DEA 1.1, 1.2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

DEA stands for what

A

Dog erythrocyte antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dogs can be ….. for either (not both) DEA 1.1 or 1.2 or they are …. for both.

A

Positive

Negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most dogs do or do not have naturally occurring alloantibodies against erythrocyte antigens like humans.

A

Do not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

These are antibodies against an antigen that exists in alternative forms.

A

Alloantibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In canines, antibodies can develop and result in a …….. transfusion reaction in as little as a week after the original transfusion.

A

Delayed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The majors antigens for dogs are which 3 blood types?

A

DEA 1.1, 1.2, & 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Transfusion reactions are more or less likely to occur if blood positive for DEA 1.1, 1.2, or 7 is transfused to negative dogs.

A

More likely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Approximately 50% of dogs are positive for ….

A

DEA 1.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

First time canine transfusion of non-cross matched or typed blood produces a reaction rate of approx…

A

15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Subsequent transfusion reaction rates for dogs show what trend?

A

Increase significantly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What should be done before transfusing any dog with a history of a blood transfusion?

A

Cross-match

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Breeds more commonly DEA 1.1 positive are (2)

A

Golden retrievers and Labradors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Blood from dogs that are DEA ….. negative is not likely to cause a problem in most dogs, but donors should be typed for all antigens.

A

DEA 1.1 negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What canine blood type is the true universal donor?

A

DEA 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

This species has no apparent blood type

A

Ferrets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

8 major blood groups in horses

A

QUACKD PT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Are there any universal blood types for horses?

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

These can be present as a result of vaccinations containing equine tissue or transplacental immunization.
They are also naturally occurring.

A

Antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Should cross matching be done before the first transfusion in horses?

A

Yes!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Transfusion reactions in horses are commonly

A

Fatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

This condition seen in nursing offspring can also occur in horses.

A

Isoerythrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

11 bovine blood groups

A

A B C F J L M R S T Z

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

This bovine blood group is polymorphic, with more than 60 different antigens

A

Group B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

These antibodies are the only common natural antibodies in cattle

A

Anti-J antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

These donors minimize transfusion reactions

A

J-negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Bovine erythrocytes have little tendency to ……., therefore lyric cross match screening is required

A

Agglutinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

7 ovine blood groups

A

A B C D M R X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

These ovine naturally occurring antibodies may be present

A

R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Ovine RBCs have little tendency to ……, similar to cattle

A

Agglutinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Bovines have antibodies against what other species RBCs?

A

Ovine - don’t bottle feed a sheep with cow colostrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

5 major blood systems in goats

A

A B C J M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

This society regulates:
Standardization of nomenclature of blood typing universally
Standardization of testing reagents for blood typing
Insure consistency in typing, testing, blood groups and other blood group research

A

International Society of Animal Genetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

This reaction may occur even when animals are administered blood of a compatible type.
This is why cross matching must be done.

A

Transfusion reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

This type of testing is used is further document compatibility between blood donor and recipient

A

Cross matching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Blood typing focuses on the …. on the surface of the RBCS.

A

Antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Cross matching focuses on ….. in the plasma.

A

Antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Blood typing: if the patient sample shows agglutination in the well marked Type A, the cat tested has blood group …

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Blood typing: if the patient sample shows agglutination in both patient wells, the cat tested has blood group….

A

AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Dogs can be checked for DEA …. In house using commercially available card

A

DEA 1.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

To fully blood type dogs, bloods needs to be….

A

Sent to outside lab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Blood typing for large animals is ……..for routine analysis before transfusion.

A

Impractical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Large animal blood can be typed by

A

Sending to outside lab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Blood typing does not eliminate the need for this test

A

Cross matching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

There are other undetectable factors that can cause incompatibility (3)

A

Immune-mediated diseases
RBCS diseases
Previous transfusions from 4 days prior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

A blood cross match (BCM) is performed to detect ……… Imcompatibility. (Remember: use red top tube for cross matching)

A

Serological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

This type of cross match tests the recipient’s serum for antibodies to the donor’s RBCs.
Since the main aim of the transfusion is to provide the recipient with RBCs, it is most important that the recipient’s serum antibodies do not destroy these cells and in doing so evoke a reaction.

A

Major cross match

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

This type of cross match assesses the risk of recipient cell destruction by the donor serum.
Much smaller risk because volume of transfused serum will comprise only a small volume of the recipient’s total serum.

A

Minor cross match

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How much blood is needed for a cross match?

What type of tube should it be placed in?

A

1 ml from both donor and recipient

Both in EDTA tubes (purple top)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

After obtaining blood from the donor and recipient, what is the next step in a cross match?

A

Separate the plasma from the red cells via centrifugation of both tubes, at blood speed (very slow) for 10 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

For cross match: after blood has been centrifuged, what is the next step?

A

Separate plasma and packed red cells into 4 separate plastic tubes, labeled donor plasma, recipient plasma, donor RBCs, recipient RBCs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Cross match: after the serum and RBCs are in separate tubes, what is the next step?

A

Suspend 0.2 mls of donor and recipient RBCs into 4.8 mls of 0.9% saline in separate syringes and gently mix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Cross match: what is the next step after rinsing the RBCs of the donor and recipient?

A

Prepare 4 slides: donor and recipient controls, minor and major cross matches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What do the control slides contain for the cross match?

A

Donor control: 1 drop of donor plasma, 1 drop of donor rinsed RBCs
Recipient control: 1 drop of recipient plasma, 1 drop of recipient rinsed RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is on the minor cross match slide?

A

1 drop recipient rinsed RBCs

1 drop donor plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is on the major cross match slide?

A

1 drop recipient plasma

1 drop donor rinsed RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

After slides have been made for cross matching, what should be done?

A

Mix gently and examine both grossly and microscopically (high dry) for hemolysis and agglutination. Rouleaux formation is normal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

If the recipient control is auto-agglutinating, should a cross match be performed?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which control slide will allow you to look for auto-agglutination?

A

Recipient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The cross match is what type of agglutination reaction?

A

Type 1 hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which control will allow you to observe the unit for RBC viability, bacteria, hemolysis, etc?

A

Donor control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is involved in the rapid method for cross matching?

A

1 drop donor blood (EDTA), 1 drop of recipient SERUM, 2 drops saline
Place on glass slide and swirl
Equal volumes needed for accuracy

75
Q

Agglutination must be differentiated from what by microscopic analysis?

A

Rouleaux formation

76
Q

When RBCs look like cluster of grapes, what is this?

A

Agglutination

77
Q

When RBCs are stacked like coins, this is

A

Rouleaux formation

78
Q

These are characteristics are true of what?
Thorough PE, CBC, comprehensive chemistry, serology, nutritionally sound, parasite free, fully vaccinated, on monthly hep and flea/tick prevention

A

Blood donors

79
Q

What is the ideal weight for a dog blood donor?

A

At least 60lbs

80
Q

What blood type is best to have for a dog blood donor?

A

DEA 4, or DEA 1.1 and DEA 1.2 negative

81
Q

These tests are used as additional screening for what?
Thyroid profile, distemper, parvovirus, rv titer, brucellosis, trypanosomiasis, vWD, babesia canis and babesia gibsoni, leishmania

A

Additional screening for a blood donor

82
Q

What is the ideal weight for a cat blood donor?

A

Over 10 lb

83
Q

Should the cat be an indoor or outdoor cat or does it matter?

A

Strictly indoors

84
Q

These additional screening tests are used for what?

Thyroid profile, FIP, toxoplasmosis, cytauxzoon, hemotrophic feline mycoplasma, bartonella spp.

A

Cat blood donor

85
Q

For blood collection, does the donor need to be sedated?

A

Donor sedated if necessary, not necessary in most dogs once used to routine

86
Q

Does the site of collection for blood need surgically prepped?

A

Yes

87
Q

What vein is used as the collection site in dogs and cats?

A

Jugular

88
Q

Blood collection should be performed rapidly and without interruption. True or false?

A

True

89
Q

Using a single vein puncture of vein during blood collection avoids what?

A

Excessive activation of clotting cascade and damage to RBCs.

90
Q

This blood collection set has an evacuated blood collection bottle. Separate collection set is needed.

A

Acid citrate dextrose, ACD

91
Q

This blood collection set has plastic blood pack units, and attached needle should be used.

A

Citrate phosphate dextrose, CPD

92
Q

Vacuum bottles: care is taken not to lose ……… at time of venipuncture.

A

Vacuum

93
Q

A 19 ga butterfly needle and large syringe containing desired anticoagulant is used for blood collection in what species?

A

Cat

94
Q

If using one of these two anticoagulants, blood must be used within 24-48 hours.
They lack RBC preservative resulting in marked increase in pH, decrease in RBC adenosine triphosphate.

A

Heparin or sodium citrate

95
Q

Heparin and sodium citrate lack RBC preservative. What does this do to the blood? (2 things)

A

Marked increase in pH

Decrease in RBC adenosine triphosphate.

96
Q

Which 2 blood collection kits would you use for blood being stored over 48 hours?

A

Acid citrate dextrose, ACD

Citrate phosphate dextrose, CPD

97
Q

When using acid citrate dextrose, ACD, or citrate phosphate dextrose, CPD, what temp should the blood be stored at?

A

1-6 degrees C

98
Q

Storage temperature for blood cannot vary by more than

A

2 degrees C

99
Q

During storage of blood, what should be done?

A

Gently mixed periodically

100
Q

What anticoagulant effectively stores whole blood for 21 days?

A

ACD

101
Q

What anticoagulant stores whole blood for 21 days?

A

CPD

102
Q

CPDA-1 with added RBC preservative adenosine effectively stores whole blood for how long?

A

35-45 days

103
Q

What are the components of blood?

A

Erythrocytes
Leukocytes
Platelets
Plasma

104
Q

Anemia, need antibodies, thrombocytopenia, clotting disorder, hypoproteinemia (hypoalbuminemia) are all indications for what?

A

Blood transfusion

105
Q

Severe anemia, severe bleeding, thrombocytopenia, coagulopathies (DIC, warfin), factor deficiencies, severe hypoproteinemia are all indications that the patient needs what component of blood for a transfusion?

A

Fresh whole blood

106
Q

This can be collected in house inexpensively

A

Fresh whole blood

107
Q

Finding a donor is time restrictive if needed for an emergency situation
Not ideal for conditions where volume overload is a concern
These are cons for which what type of transfusion?

A

Fresh whole blood

108
Q

These are indications for what type of transfusion?
Need RBCs, increase O2 delivery
Need plasma proteins (oncotic volume expansion)
Need stable coagulation factors (fibrinogen)

A

Stored whole blood

109
Q

These type of component for transfusions:
Can be kept on hand for emergencies
Shelf life approx 35 days
Roughly 45 min to properly bring to room temp

A

Stored whole blood

110
Q

These are indications to use what component for a transfusion?
Anemia with normal plasma volume
Major indication is decreased O2-carrying capability
It is administered rapidly with less risk of creating volume overload

A

Stored packed RBCs

111
Q

This component for transfusions:
Reduces the frequency of transfusion reactions
Supplies RBCs only
Has a shelf life of roughly 35 days

A

Stored packed RBCs

112
Q

These are characteristics of what type of transfusion component?
Frozen within 6 hrs of collection
Supplies plasma proteins (oncotic volume expansion)
Supplies all coagulation factors
Does not supply via platelets
Lass chance of causing a transfusion reaction than whole blood
Shelf life 1 yr
Roughly 1 hr to thaw

A

Fresh frozen plasma

113
Q

Is cross matching or blood typing required for plasma products?

A

No, not since RBCs are not present in plasma

114
Q

These are indications to use what type of transfusion component?
Deficit of coag factors ( warfarin toxicity, DIC, inherited coag factors deficiencies - vWD)
Deficit of plasma proteins
Need to expand fluid volume
Need antibodies

A

Fresh frozen plasma

115
Q

Characteristics of what type of transfusion component?
Frozen after 6 hours of collection
Supplies plasma proteins
Does not contain some of the unstable clotting factors
Roughly 1 hr to thaw
Can be stored up to 5 yrs

A

Frozen plasma

116
Q

These are indications to use what transfusion component?
Hypoproteinemia
Colostrum replacement
Volume expansion

A

Frozen plasma

117
Q

These are characteristics of what transfusion component?
Supplies high concentration of Factor VIII, vWD, and fibrinogen per ml than Fresh frozen plasma
Does not supply viable platelets
Roughly 2 hrs to thaw

A

Cryoprecipitate

118
Q 
Indications to use what transfusion component?
Severe coagulopathy
VWD
Hemophilia
DIC
A

Cryoprecipitate

119
Q

Characteristics of what transfusion component:
Collected through plateletpheresis
Contains 1.0 x 10^11 platelets
Contains fresh frozen plasma as holding solution
Contains DMSO as a preservative
Shelf life 6 months

A

Frozen platelet concentrate

120
Q

This is used for the treatment of bleeding due to thrombocytopenia

A

Frozen platelet concentrate

121
Q

When warming blood for transfusion, it should be placed in a

A

Ziplock bag

122
Q

Start with a water bath at what temp when warming blood

A

Room temp

123
Q

Is it ok to microwave blood?

A

No

124
Q

Can blood be immediately placed in hot water?

A

No

125
Q

The temperature of the blood should not exceed what temp? Going above this can cause hemolysis?

A

50 degrees C

126
Q

What routes are acceptable for blood administration?

A

IV, IP, IO

127
Q

What routes are acceptable for neonatal blood administration?

A

IP, IO

128
Q

What should be used during administration for all blood components?

A

Blood filter

129
Q

Where should the blood filter be placed along the line?

A

As close to IV as possible.

130
Q

Why should IV fluid pumps that close the line in the door not be used?

A

They can crush or lyse RBCs.

131
Q

Strict asepsis is not essential during collection, storage, and administration of blood and blood products.
True or false?

A

False, strict asepsis is essential during all

132
Q

Blood transfusions should be administered in ….. hours or less to reduce chances of contaminant bacterial growth.

A

4 hours or less

133
Q

Administer … ml/lb of whole blood to raise the patient hematocrit by 1%.

A

1 ml/lb

134
Q 
These factors increase or reduce transfusion complications?
Choosing the right blood product
Recognize the signs of a reaction
Use proper administration rates
Blood typing and cross matching
A

Reduce transfusion complications

135
Q

Any transfusion reaction means that the transfusion is ….. doing its intended job and has burdened an already compromised patient.

A

Not done its job

136
Q

While receiving a transfusion, vital signs should be monitored how often?

A

Every 15 min

137
Q

Should the desired rate of blood component being transfused be started that way?

A

No, slowly increase rate of delivery until desired rate - over 1 hr period

138
Q

Pruritis, urticaria, restlessness, anxiety, tachypnea, tachycardia are signs of what?

A

Early transfusion reactions

139
Q

Nausea, vomiting, fever, shock, coma, death are signs of what?

A

Late transfusion reactions

140
Q

Cutaneous erythema is also a sign of a

A

Transfusion reaction

141
Q 
Can be seen after as little as 1 ml of administered blood
Vocalization, salivation, urination, defecation
Depression to recumbency
Brachycardia or arrhythmias
Seizures or apnea
Death
Clinical signs of what?
In cat
A

Transfusion reaction

Type a blood to type b cat

142
Q

What is the very first thing you should do if you suspect your patient is having a reaction?

A

Stop the transfusion

143
Q

Patient is having a transfusion reaction and dyspnea is present, what should you do?

A

Administer O2

144
Q

Patient is having a transfusion reaction, what injection can you give them?

A

Diphenhydramine IM

145
Q

Tx with what approximately 30 min prior transfusion may reduce reaction

A

Antihistamines

146
Q

Immunologic reactions result from transfusion of

A

Incompatible blood

147
Q

Incompatible RBCs in previously unsensitized recipient will be destroyed how many days after the transfusion?

A

7-10 days

148
Q

Clinical consequences of ……… transfusion reaction include rapid development of tachycardia, hypotension, vomiting, salivation, and muscle tremors.

A

Hemolytic

149
Q

Delayed …….. reactions suspected if PCV drops unexpectedly 2-21 days after transfusion.

A

Hemolytic

150
Q

This can also be caused by immunologic reactions to leukocyte, platelet, or plasma protein incompatibilities
Reactions between antigens and antibodies activate complement system
Release vasoactive substances responsible for trembling, vomiting, urticaria
Prior transfusion not required for these reactions to occur

A

Transfusion reactions

151
Q

This type of transfusion reaction is principally due to vascular overload

A

Non-immunologic

152
Q

Coughing, increased respiratory rate, respiratory distress, vomiting are signs of what?

A

Vascular overload

153
Q

For non-immunologic transfusion reactions, the transfusion rate is reduced to approximately

A

1 ml/kg/hr

154
Q

Should food, water, and medications be withheld during transfusion?

A

Yes

155
Q

Transfusion induced fever is due to

A

Foreign proteins

156
Q

Initial step of controlling transfusion induced fever is …… rate of transfusion.

A

Slow

157
Q

This hemostatic disorder is a result of low platelet numbers caused by bone marrow injury or dysfunction.

A

Thrombocytopenia

158
Q

Causes for what hemostatic disorder: estrogen toxicity, immune mediated, late stages of chronic viral, bacterial, or rickettsial diseases, myeloproliferative disorders, infectious, neoplasia, toxins

A

Thrombocytopenia, affects bone marrow

159
Q

Adherence between platelets and collagen is mediated by what factor?

A

Von Willebrand’s factor

160
Q

vWF disease is a hereditary deficiency or abnormality of vWF causing what to fail?

A

Platelet function

161
Q

What breed is vWF disease most common in?

A

Dobermans

162
Q

What human disease is similar to vWF disease?

A

Hemophilia

163
Q

Clinical signs of vWF disease usually appear before what age?

A

6 months

164
Q

Theses are clinical signs of what disorder?

Petechia, ecchymoses, hemorrhage in the retina, blood in urine or feces, epistaxis

A

Mechanical hemostasis disorder

165
Q

What organ is the primary site for synthesis of most coag factors?

A

Liver

166
Q

Production of coag factors is maintained at close to normal until >….. Of the normal liver mass is nonfunctional

A

80%

167
Q

This vitamin is required for synthesis of factors II, VIII, IX, X

A

Vit K

168
Q

Inadequate consumption or malabsorption of Bit K causes what?

A

Bleeding disorders

169
Q

These toxins inhibit what?
Rodenticides that contain warfarin, indanediones or brodifacoum
Sulfaquinoxaline (a coccidiostat)
Dicumarol (fungal metabolite in sweet clover)

A

Vit K absorption

170
Q

This hemostatic disorder can be due to therapeutic heparin administration, making it iatrogenic

A

Heparinization

171
Q

This hemostatic disorder could be secondary to massive release of endogenous heparin from mast cell tumor degranulation.

A

Heparinization

172
Q

DIC stands for what?

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

173
Q

The formation of numerous tiny clots throughout the body which deplete platelet availability causes this hemostatic disorder

A

DIC

174
Q

In this hemostatic disorder, fibrin degradation products coat the platelets and interfere with adherence to collagen

A

DIC - disseminated intravascular coagulation

175
Q

What adult parasite would be described as having a slender anterior end with its mouth at the tip and a thickened posterior extremity?

A

Trichuris vulpis

176
Q

In puppies, transplacental transmission is the primary route of infection for

A

Toxocara canis

177
Q

The tapeworm that releases its eggs in packets is

A

Dipylidium caninum

178
Q

Which of the following parasite ova is collected using a scotch tape technique?

A

Oxyuris equi

179
Q

Which factors are part of the intrinsic pathway of the coag cascade?

A

XII, XI, IX, VIII

180
Q

Coag factors are primarily synthesized in which organ?

A

Liver

181
Q

Which test of the coag system requires a blood tube containing diatomaceous earth?

A

ACT

182
Q

In an emergency situation, thrombocytopenia can quickly be detected by estimating the platelet count on a blood smear. Approximately how many platelets should be seen per oil immersion field in a normal animal for most species?

A

8-10

183
Q

What are the coag factors involved in the common pathway of the coag cascade?

A

X, V, II, I

184
Q

What is the universal donor blood group of dogs?

A

DEA 4 positive only

Spring 2014 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions