Lab Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What method of ventilation use requires us to provide more extensive monitoring and nursing care for our patients

A

Mechanical ventilation

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2
Q

What is the true first step of resuscitation

A

Alerting other team members to the crisis and move the patient to a centralized area where the crash cart and oxygen are accessible

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3
Q

What can be used as a good indicator of effective chest compressions

A

End tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) and it should be above 10-15 mmHg

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4
Q

T/F it is acceptable to pause chest compressions for catherization and intubation

A

FALSE chest compressions should not be stopped for any reason

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5
Q

What does excessive ventilation of the patient during cardiopulmonary resuscitation cause

A

Cerebral vasoconstriction and decreased blood flow to the brain

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6
Q

What drugs are safe to administer via the endotracheal tube

A

Naloxone, atropine, vasopressin, epinephrine, lidocaine (NAVEL)

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7
Q

What should be monitored in patients that survived CPR

A

Assessments for neurologic signs and for developing organ failure

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8
Q

Why should patients be monitored more closely when anesthizied w/ sevoflurane

A

It can cause hypotension and it has a more rapid response time

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9
Q

What are general rules of thumb when handling compressed gas cylinders

A

Never leave an unattended compressed gas cylinder unsupported or lying on its side, never attempt to remove the valve or index pins, keep skin and eyes clear of the valve port when opening a tank, and do not use oxygen near any ignition source

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10
Q

How much liquid anesthetic should be in the vaporizer for the vaporizer to function properly

A

The quantity of the liquid anesthetic should fill between the upper and lower lines of the window but should be at min 1/2 full at all times

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11
Q

What will overfilling the vaporizer w/ liquid anesthetic result in

A

Anesthetic overdose

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12
Q

What will underfilling the vaporizer w/ liquid anesthetic result in

A

The inability to keep the patient anesthetized

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13
Q

What should be checked if there is a sudden elevation in the patients ETCO2

A

The unidirectional valves

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14
Q

What should be checked prior to placing an ET tube

A

The length, diameter, cuff, if the connector is loose, if the tube is damaged, or blocked w/ dried mucus

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15
Q

What is anesthesia used for in most veterinary practices

A

To provide anxiolysis, sedation, tranquilization, immobility, muscle relaxation, unconsciousness, and pain control

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16
Q

What are the benefits of balanced anesthesia

A

Minimizes adverse effects and gives the anesthetist the ability to produce anesthesia w/ the degree of CNS depression, muscle relaxation, analgesia, and immobilization

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17
Q

What must an anesthetist approach every anesthetic procedure w/

A

A genuine willingness to take personal responsibility for the well being of the patient

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18
Q

What can decrease unforseen problems during anesthetic procedures

A

Scheduling an appointment several days before the procedure to accumulate a patient database so problems can be addressed before hand

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19
Q

What type of questions are the most important when obtaining a patient history

A

Open ended questions

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20
Q

WHat are the 4 questions that should be asked when gathering historical information about signs of illness

A

The duration, the volume/severity, the frequency, and the character/appearance

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21
Q

What should you always confirm when checking in a patient undergoing an anesthetic procedure

A

The nature of the scheduled procedure

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22
Q

What type of patients respond differently to anesthetic procedures

A

Very large, very small, <8 weeks old, or older patients that are >75% of their lifespan

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23
Q

What should be collected from every owner prior to the anesthetic event occurs

A

A written estimate of the expected charges and signed consent for the procedure

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24
Q

What are the 2 reasons for monitoring our patients under anesthesia

A

To keep the patient safe and to regulate anesthetic depth

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25
Q

What is anesthetic monitoring based off of

A

That in the average patient there is a parameter for what is expected to show to predict the response at any given anesthetic depth

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26
Q

What marks the border between anesthetic stages 1 and 2

A

Loss of consciousness

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27
Q

What marks the border between anesthetic stages 2 and 3

A

Loss of spontaneous muscle movement

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28
Q

What marks stage 4 of anesthesia

A

Loss of all reflexes, widely dilated pupils, flaccid muscle tone, and cardiopulmonary collapse

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29
Q

What is stage 1 of anesthesia

A

The period of voluntary movement

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30
Q

What is stage 2 of anesthesia

A

Period of involuntary movement

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31
Q

What is stage 3 of anesthesia

A

Period of surgical anesthesia

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32
Q

What is stage 4 of anesthesia

A

Period of anesthetic overdose

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33
Q

What are the 3 subdivied stages of the 3rd anesthetic stage

A

Light, surgical, and deep

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34
Q

What words are used to describe the status of reflexes verbally or written

A

Present, decreased, depressed, and absent

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35
Q

What is the main indicator of determining when it is safe to remove the ET tube

A

The swallowing reflex (response to the presence of saliva or food in the pharynx

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36
Q

What reflex should be absent in small animals under surgical anesthesia

A

The palpebral reflex (blink in response to a light tap on the medial or lateral canthus)

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37
Q

What reflex is present during light stage 3 anesthesia

A

The pedal reflex (flexion or withdrawal of the limb in response to vigorous squeezing and twisting or pinching of a digit or pad)

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38
Q

When is monitoring for the pedal reflex important

A

In patients undergoing masked induction

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39
Q

What reflex is lost when the anesthetic depth is excessive but is unreliable in small animals

A

The corneal reflex (retraction of the eyeball w/in the orbit and/or blink in response to stimulation of the cornea)

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40
Q

What is the laryngeal reflex

A

Immediate closure of the epiglottis and vocal cords when the larynx is touched

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41
Q

What is the pupillary light reflex

A

The PLR is a constriction of the pupils in response to shining a bright light onto one of the retinas

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42
Q

What is the dazzle reflex

A

A blink response to shining a bright light on the retinas

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43
Q

How can an anesthetist falsely interpret the muscle tone of an induced patient

A

If the open the patients mouth too wide causing a force of resistance

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44
Q

What is the position of the patients eye during light stage 3 anesthesia

A

Central

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45
Q

What is the position of the patients eye during surgical anesthesia

A

Ventromedial

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46
Q

What is the position of the patients eye during deep stage 3 anesthesia

A

Central

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47
Q

T/F HR, RR, Vt, and BP are NOT accurate indications that their is a conscious perception of pain in my patient

A

True other signs have to be present to indicate a perception of pain

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48
Q

What are the objectives of surgical anesthesia

A

The patient does not move, is not aware, does not feel pain, has no memory of the procedure afterward, and does not have dangerous depression of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems

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49
Q

What are the major effects and adverse effects of halogenated inhalation anesthetics

A

Dose related CNS depression, hypothermia, paddling, excitement, and muscle fasciculations during recovery, variable effect on HR, vasodilation, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, tissue perfusion, dose dependent respiratory depression, hypoventilation, retention of CO2, respiratory arrest, adequate to good muscle relaxation, depression of respiration in neonates, and production of CO when exposed to desiccation CO2 absorbent

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50
Q

What type of anesthetics are generally considered safe to give most patients

A

Halogenated

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51
Q

What does the safety of anesthetics depend on

A

The degree of the care at which the agents are administered and the vigilance in the monitoring of the patient

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52
Q

What is vapor pressure

A

A measure of the tendency of a liquid anesthetic to evaporate in the vaporizer

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53
Q

What does the vapor pressure level (number) mean

A

The higher the vapor pressure the more easily the liquid evaporates the lower the pressure the harder it is for the liquid to evaporate

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54
Q

What is the blood gas coefficient

A

A measure of the solubility of an inhalant anesthetic in the blood as compared w/ alveolar gas

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55
Q

What does the blood gas coefficient valuse (number) represent

A

The lower the blood gas partition coefficient the faster the patients induction and recovery the higher the number the slower their induction and recovery

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56
Q

What does MAC stand for

A

Minimum alveolar concentration

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57
Q

What is MAC

A

The lowest concentration at which 50% of patient show no response to a painul stimulus such as a surgical incision

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58
Q

What is MAC useful for

A

Meausring the potency of the agent used and to determine the average vaporizer setting that must be used to produce surgical anesthesia

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59
Q

Why is isoflurane the inhalation agent of choice for patients w/ heart disease

A

Because it has the fewest adverse cardiovascular effects

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60
Q

Why is sevoflurane the inhalant agent of choice for mask and chamber inductions

A

Because of its high controllability of anesthetic depth

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61
Q

Why is desflurane considered the one breath anesthesia

A

Because the blood gas parition coefficient is significantly lower than other anesthetic agents used it appears the patient becomes anesthetized or wakes up after taking one breath

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62
Q

What does 1 drop of doxapram equal

A

1 mg

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63
Q

What quantity of doxapram is required to stimulate respiration from a neonate

A

1-5 drops under the tongue of a puppy and 1-2 drops under the tongue of a kitten depending of the size of the patient and the degree of depression

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64
Q

What should be done at the beginning of the day by the anesthetist

A

The primary and secondary oxygen tanks should be evaluated to ensure they are full, operational, and turned on

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65
Q

What are things to remember when handling compressed gas cylinders

A

Avoid contact w/ flames, sparks, or other sources of iginition, turn the tank on only when it is attached to the yoke or pressure regulator, store tanks only attached to a yoke, secured in a cart, or rack (specified for this), or chained to a wall, never attempt to attach a tank to a yoke that does not fit, and never tamper w/ the safety system on a tank, line, or pressure reducing valve

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66
Q

How can the volume of an oxygen tank be calculated

A

By multiply the psi of an E tank by 0.3 and an H/J tank by 3

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67
Q

How should one turn off a flowmeter

A

Turn the knob until the bobbin or ball reaches 0

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68
Q

What should occur if a bottle of liquid anesthetic accidentally breaks

A

Vacate the room until it has completely evapoated

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69
Q

What is important to do after using a non rebreathing system

A

Reattaching the port in the common gas outlet

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70
Q

What happens to the pop off valve before and after giving a manual breath

A

Before giving a breath it is closed and is opened immediately after giving a breath

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71
Q

How full should the reservoir bag be during a procedure

A

3/4 of the way full at peak expiration

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72
Q

What are the signs of needing to change CO2 granules

A

Hard/brittle granules, color change to 1/3 to 1/2 of the granules, CO2 level greater than 0 during peak inspiration (measured w/ a capnograph), after 6-8 hrs of use, after 14-30 days, and if oxygen flowmeter was left on overnight or for any equivalent period of time

73
Q

What are the maximum measurements on a pressure manometer that are considered safe

A

0-3 cm H20 when the patient is breathing spontaneously and 20 cm H2O in small animal swhen positive pressure ventilation is provided

74
Q

When are pediatric tubes recommended for use on a rebreathng system

A

When the patient weights 15-30 lbs

75
Q

What does the patients body weight determine when setting up the anesthetic machine

A

The choice of machine, reservoir bag size, breathing tubes, oxygen flow rates, and breathing circuit

76
Q

Why do we increase the flow rate when changing the anesthetic depth w/ a partial or minimal rebreathign system

A

Do change the depth quicker

77
Q

How often should a qualified repair professional examine all of the parts on an anesthetic machine

A

Every 4-12 months

78
Q

Why should technicians double check their CRI calculations regardless of how they were obtained w/ either the CRI calculator provided by the VAPM via website or app

A

Due to the high risk associated w/ giving drugs via CRI incorrectly

79
Q

Why should a patients ET tube be temporarily disconnected when turning the patient

A

Because rollowing or twisting the animal while it is still connected may cause the endotracheal tube to twist or collapse resulting in an airway obstruction, or traumatizing/lacerating the trachea

80
Q

How often should a technician administer artifical tear solution to the cornea of a patient

A

Every 2-4 hrs because general anesthesia decrease tear secretion for up to 24 hrs post op

81
Q

When is the most dangerous period for complicaitons for animals that experienced no problems during induction or maintenance

A

During recovery

82
Q

Why should a recovering patient be watched continuously at close range

A

Because they may develop hypoxemia, cardiac arrhythmias, or other complications w/o any signs

83
Q

When should recovering patients be supplemented w/ oxygen

A

If shivering occurs

84
Q

Why should a patients head be positioned w/ the nose slightly lower than the neck

A

When the patient is undergoing a COHAT or other oral surgery in which blood or fluids are present in the oral cavity to prevent any from draining in the trachea

85
Q

How often should a recovering patient be turned

A

Every 10-15 mins to prevent hypostatic congestion

86
Q

What is hypostatic congestion

A

Pooling of blood in dependent lung and tissues

87
Q

What is the goal of inhalant anesthesia

A

To deliver a safe concentration of an anesthetic agent w/ oxygen to the patient along w/ providng a method for assisting ventilation

88
Q

What are the different oxygen tank sizes

A

E tank (660 liters) and H/K tanks (6,600 liters)

89
Q

What color represents oxygen

90
Q

What color represents nitrous oxide

91
Q

What is the direct safety soure used for compressed gas sources

A

The pin index safety system that only allows one type of tank to be attached to the yoke

92
Q

What is the central safety source for gas lines

A

The diameter index safety system only allows for a certain plug shape and diameter to be entered into the wall

93
Q

What is the pressure regulator

A

Attached to the compressed gas source it reduces pressure from the tank to constant pressure of 50 PSI

94
Q

What is the pressure gauge

A

It reflects the amount of gas remaining in the tank

95
Q

What is the flowmeter

A

It controls the rate the oxygen or nitrous is being delivered to the patient’s breathing system, takes the pressure from 50 PSI to 15 PSI, is meausred by a bobbin or ball, and is also color coded

96
Q

What is specially about the knob on the flowmeter

A

It is very sensitive so turn it carefully and ONLY until the bobbin/ball reaches 0 when turning it off

97
Q

What is the oxygen flush valve

A

It delivers fresh oxygen into the system at 35-75 L/min bypassing the vaporizer and delivers the oxygen directly to the common gas outlet

98
Q

What must happen prior to using the oxygen flush valve

A

The patient HAS to be detached from the breathing circuit

99
Q

What is the vaporizer

A

It holds liquid anesthetic and coverts it into a breathable gas these are also color coded (purple = iso and yellow = sevo)

100
Q

What is the difference between a precision and non precision vaporizer

A

A precision vaporizer has a dial to give a consistent anesthetic rate to the patient while a non precision vaporizer functions based on the patients breathing so it is not consistent

101
Q

How often should a vaporizer have maintenance done

102
Q

What is the common gas outlet

A

The fresh gas outlet is the point of exit from the oxygen and anesthetic gas to enter the patient breathing circuit this is where a non rebreathing system is attached

103
Q

What comprises the breathing circuit

A

Common gas outlet, inhalation valve, inhlation hose, ET tube, exhalation hose, exhalation valve, reservoir bag, poop off valve, and scavenging

104
Q

What are the parts of the 3 way stop

A

Pop off valve/scavenging, CO2 absorbent cainster, and reservoir bag

105
Q

What is the pop off valve

A

The pressure releasing valve allows for the release of excess pressure from the system into the scavenging system this is for our safety

106
Q

What are the 2 types of scavenging systems

A

Passive and active

107
Q

What is the passive scavenging system

A

Uses gravity/pressure of gas in the system by using F-air canisters that are filled w/ charcoal and it is the most common type

108
Q

What is the active scavenging system

A

A vacuum system that pulls the air outside it is significantly more expensive

109
Q

What is the CO2 absorbent canister

A

It removes the CO2 from the exhaled gases before returing it to the patient and it contains soda lime granules

110
Q

How do we calculate the reservoir bag size

A

Weight in lbs x 30 = amount in mls then convert to liters

111
Q

What is the pressure manometer

A

Monitors the pressure w/in the breathing system this is very useful when giving positive pressure

112
Q

What is the PPV range

A

15-30 average is 20 mmHg to prevent barotrauma

113
Q

What is the rebreathing system

A

Used for 15+ lb patients it allows for safe rebreathing of exhaled gases, it is more common yet more complicated, it utilizes unidirectional valves, contains more dead space, but is better at maintaining a patient’s temperature

114
Q

How do we calculate the oxygen requirement of patients when using a rebreathing system

A

20ml/lb/min + 250 mls

115
Q

How do we calculate the oxygen requirement of patients using a non rebreathing system

A

100mls/lb/min

116
Q

What is the non rebreathing system

A

recommend for patients 15lbs and under, no rebreathing of gases, utilizes a higher oxygen rate, minimizes dead space, allows for a rapid change in depth, wastes more oxygen and anesthetic agent, and has a higher rate of drying out the mucosa and respiratory tract

117
Q

What prevents the risk of increase CO2 in patients using an NRS

A

A high oxygen flow rate

118
Q

Why is the non rebreathing system better for smaller patients

A

Because there is a lower resistance of breathing and less effort for the animal to get gas exchange

119
Q

What are the differences between having a pop off valve open or closed

A

An open pop off valve is more expensive using more oxygen but is safer while a closed pop off valve only uses enough oxygen to meet the patients needs, it is cheaper, but risks an unsafe build up of nitrogen leading ot hypoxia

120
Q

What is the difference between the VOC and VIC system

A

The vaporizer out of cicle uses a precision vaporizer that is more expensive but much more common while an vaporizer in circle uses a non precision vaporizer which is more dangerous but inexpensive

121
Q

What things on an anesthetic machine should be checked prior to anesthetizing a patient

A

Flow meter, quantity of iso, oxygen, and soda lime

122
Q

What do you multiple the MAC by to find the approximate vaporizer setting

A

1.5-2 but things like age, premeds, and body condition can affect this

123
Q

What are the typical properties of isoflurane

A

Higher vapor pressure, lower solubility, and medium MAC

124
Q

How does isofluarne tend to affect the patients body

A

Causes vasodilation leading to hypotension, can be irritating causing dry mm (respiratory depression, and metabolisim occurs in the respiratory system so it is safest for liver patients

125
Q

What are the properties of sevoflurane

A

Higher vapor pressure, lower solubility, and highest MAC

126
Q

What is the primary difference w/ how sevoflurane affects the patients body

A

It does not typically dry out/irritate the mm

127
Q

How can nitrous gas affect our patient

A

It doesn’t irritate the respiratory tract, can provide analgesic effects, and can cause CO2 poisoning

128
Q

What is the weight range for a pediatric y tube

129
Q

What are signs of compensatory shock

A

Increase HR, inrease in RR/depth, decrease in BP, vasoconstriction, bounding pulse, CRT >1sec, and red mm

130
Q

What are signs of decompensatory shock signs

A

Pale mm, weak threading pulse, decrease in HR, decrease in RR, and vasodilation

131
Q

Which comes first respiratory arrest or cardiac arrest

A

Respiratory arrest

132
Q

What are signs of respiratory arrest

A

Dyspnea, apnea, abnormal CRT, abnormal HR, abnormal pulses, and cyanosis

133
Q

What are signs of cardiac arrest

A

No palpable pulse, no palpable or audible heartbeat, no muscle tone, dilated pupils, lack of PLR, cyanosis or pale mm, and prolonged CRT

134
Q

What is the equation for a patient needing compression

A

Unresponsive + apneic = compression

135
Q

What is the difference between BLS and ALS

A

ALS involves drugs and electrical cardioversion

136
Q

What things can be monitored during CPR

A

ECG, doppler BP, ETCO2, and blood gas analysis

137
Q

How are you positioned when giving CPR to cats

A

Fingers on the down side and thumb on the up side

138
Q

What is different about giving a large dog CPR

A

You compress at the widest portion of chest

139
Q

What is different about giving a barrel chested dog CPR

A

They are in dorsal recumbency, the anatomy limits the direct effect of compressions, and place your hands 1-2” above the xiphoid process

140
Q

What is the thoracic pump method

A

When you increase intrathoracic pressure during compression results in forward blood flow

141
Q

How do you evaluate the effectiviness of compressions

A

Palpable pulse and doppler placed on the cornea

142
Q

What is the preferred method for administer medication during a code

A

Central line

143
Q

How many tubes should you have ready for intubation

A

At least 3

144
Q

How do you measure the length of the ET tube

A

From the tip of the nose to the thoracic inlet

145
Q

What are indications that a patient is ready for intubation

A

Unconsciciouness, lack of voluntary movement, absent pedal reflex, sufficient muscle tone relaxation to allow the mouth to be held open, and no swallowing reflex

146
Q

What can placing the ET tube in the esophagus and not catching it potentially lead to

A

Inability to keep the patient anesthetized, airway blockage, and hypoxemia

147
Q

How do you inflate the cuff w/ cats

A

Use a 3 ml syringe and add air in 0.5mls increments until no leak is heard

148
Q

Why are we extra careful when intubating cats

A

They have a narrower glottis and random laryngospasms when the larynx is irritated

149
Q

What are tips to intubating a cat successfully

A

Ensure that the patient is adequately anesthetized, wait for the glottis to open before attempting placement, and try to get it in the first time

150
Q

What are life threatening complications that can occur in a cat if you try and force an intubation

A

Tracheal rupture, pneumothorax, and pneumomediastinum

151
Q

Why should owners be informed that it is not uncommon for animals to cough 1-2 days post intubation

A

Because some patients will always develop minor irritation of the trachea or larynx

152
Q

What could happen if a patient is intubated w/ an ET tube that is too long

A

They could be oxygenated w/ only one lung or the mechanical dead space could be increased both leading to hypoxemia

153
Q

What can be used during the recovery period if an animal is caught chewing or traumatizing various areas

A

parethesia or e collars

154
Q

What route can bupivacaine not be given

155
Q

What is the max dose of 2% iso given to a 4 kg cat SQ or IV

A

0.8 mls SQ and 0.1 IV

156
Q

What is the max dose of 0.5% bupivacaine to a 4 kg cat SQ

157
Q

What is the respiratory volume

A

The amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs in one minute

158
Q

How can you roughly find the respiratory volume

A

By taking the Vt and multiplying it by the RR

159
Q

Why do some alveoli in dependent regions of the patients lungs completely or partially collapse

A

Due to a decreased Vt

160
Q

How can we keep alveoli expanded during a procedure

A

Giving sighs or manual ventilation every 2-10 minutes

161
Q

What are the principles of patient monitoring

A

Monitor the patient frequently using your hands, eyes, and ears, always check multiple parameters, never depend on an instrument alone, and do not try to determine the plane of anesthesia based on the drug dose

162
Q

Why do we intubate patients

A

To maintain an open airway, decrease anatomic deadspace, transportation of the gas to the patient to prevent WAG, prevent aspiration of foreign material into pulmonary system, and monitor and control respiration during anesthesia

163
Q

What are the different things to take into considering when choosing a tube

A

Clean and dry, cracks, flexibility, cuff or no cuff, sizing, diameter, and construction

164
Q

What are the different materials ET tubes are made of allowing for varying flexibility

A

PVC (most common), red rubber tubes (most prone to kinking), and silicone (most expensive)

165
Q

What is the ID on the ET tube

A

The internal diameter is referred to as oral this is the larger bolder of the too numbers

166
Q

What is the OD on the ET tube

A

The outer diameter is referred to as the nasal this is the small of the too numbers

167
Q

What is the very tip of the ET tube that goes into the patient called

168
Q

What piece of the tube greatly makes up the ET tube

A

The radiopaque line

169
Q

What is the one way valve

A

Where you screw in the syringe to inflate the cuff

170
Q

What follows the one way valve on the ET tube

A

The pilot balloon

171
Q

What transports the air from the pilot balloon to the cuff

A

The pilot line

172
Q

How do you determine the diameter of the ET tube

A

It should fill the area below the nares w/ the whole of the connector of the tube

173
Q

What are characteristics of the murphys ET tube

A

Beveled end, side hole known as the murphys eye, and +/- cuff

174
Q

What are the characteristics of the cole ET tube

A

No side hole, decreased diameter at the patient end, and used in animals that have complete tracheal rings such as birds

175
Q

What are the steps of intubating

A

Open mouth to visualize the larynx, located the epiglottis, insert tube through the larynx and trachea, tie the tube in place, inflate the cuff, connect to anesthetic machine, and verify placement by auscultation

176
Q

What is the maximum amount of air to place in the cuff of a dog or cat

A

5 cc for dog and 3 cc for cat

177
Q

What are operator error complications of intubation

A

Trauma, laryngospasm, and over inflation of cuff

178
Q

What are the steps for extubation

A

Discontinue inhalant, leave on oxygen for 5 mins, loosen gauze tie, deflate cuff immediately before extubation, remove the tube once the swallow reflex has returned, and inspect tube