Lab Final Flashcards

1
Q

What are characterisitics of monofilament sutures

A

I strand, less traumatic, more memory, porrest knot security, and little capillarity

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2
Q

What are characteristics of multifilament sutures

A

> I strand, braided, twisted, sheathed, more traumatic, capillary action, flexible, no memory, good handing, and knot security

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3
Q

What are characteristics of natural suture material

A

Strongest tissue reaction, silk is very reactive, cotton, and chromic

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4
Q

What are characteristics of synthetic sutures

A

Not inflammatory and little tissue reaction

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5
Q

What are brands of synthetic sutures

A

Vicryl, Dexon, PDS, and Prolene

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6
Q

What are the characteristics of non-absorbable sutures

A

Not broken down by body, constant tensile strength, and can remain intact for 2 years

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7
Q

What are the types of non absorbable sutures

A

Nylon, polypropylene, and steel

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8
Q

What are characteristics of absorbable sutures

A

Broken down by the body and tensile strength decreases w/in 60 days

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9
Q

What are the 2 types of absorbable sutures

A

Phagocytosis and hydrolysis

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10
Q

What is the phagocytosis absorbable sutures

A

Natural material that is the strongest tissue reaction due to inflammation

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11
Q

What is the hydrolysis suture

A

Synthetic material that is less reactive due to a small inflammatory response

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12
Q

What is Pao2

A

Partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood

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13
Q

What is Spo2

A

Oxygen saturation of peripheral blood

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14
Q

What is SO2

A

Measuring the percentage of oxygen-carrying hemoglobin in the blood

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15
Q

What is PO2

A

Represents the pressure of oxygen dissolved in the blood, indicating the effectiveness of the lungs in oxygenating the blood

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16
Q

How should monitoring instruments be used

A

As a supplement to a conscientious anesthetist for careful physical monitoring

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17
Q

How can a heartbeat be obtained in a patient in lateral recumbency and why

A

On the side of the dependent lung because of the gravitational effect

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18
Q

How can an anesthetist differentiate a sinus arrhythmia from another abnormal rhythm

A

By listening for the decrease in HR during expiration and an increase in HR during inspiration

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19
Q

Why should any change in cardiac rhythm be reported to the vet

A

Because even benign arrhythmias can quickly degenerate into a dangerous rhythm if not recongized

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20
Q

What is the best indicator of the blood perfusion of internal organs

A

The MAP

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21
Q

What is the mean arterial pressure

A

MAP is the average arterial pressure through the cardiac cycle

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22
Q

What does a MAP of 60-70 mmHg indicate

A

That blood perfusion of internal organs is reduced and tissues may become hypoxic

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23
Q

What is the appropriate MAP range in dogs and cats

A

60-90 mmHg but ideally it is above 70 mmHg

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24
Q

What Psys pressure should we strive to maintain in small animals when using a doppler blood flow detector and sphgyometer

A

80-90 mmHg

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25
Q

What is the difference between direct and indirect BP monitoring

A

Direct involves monitoring through a catheter inside the artery w/ a pressure transducer while indirect occurs on the outside of the body using an external sensor and cuff

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26
Q

What are the two indirect methods for acquiring BP

A

Doppler and oscillometric

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27
Q

How does the doppler and oscillometric methods for acquiring BP differ

A

While they both use a cuff to occlude and release blood flow they differ in how pressure is measured

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28
Q

What percentage of the circumference of the extremity should be covered by the cuff when obtaining BP

A

30-50% ideally 40%

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29
Q

In what plane should indirect BP be obtained

A

At the same horizontal plane as the heart

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30
Q

What do pale mucous membranes indicate

A

Intraoperative blood loss, anemia of any cause, or poor capillary perfusion

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31
Q

What does cyanotic mucous membranes indicate

A

Very low blood oxygen concentration

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32
Q

Why is oxygen saturation not a good indication of oxygen availability in anemic patients

A

Because their decrease in oxygenation is not due to a lack of the amount of oxygen molecules in the blood but from a decrease in the material that transports the oxygen

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33
Q

Why do Pao2 and Spo2 not give a good indication of oxygen availability

A

Because the carrying capacity of the blood is severely decreased due to the decrease in number of hemoglobin binding sites

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34
Q

What should oxygen saturation be if the patient is receiving 100% O2

A

Greater than 95%

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35
Q

What does a pulse ox of 90-94% indicate

A

Hypoxemia in the patient

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36
Q

What does a pulse ox of less than 90% indicate

A

Serious hypoxemia that is in need of therapy

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37
Q

What does a pulse ox of less than 85% for longer than 30 seconds indicate

A

A medical emergency

38
Q

What does bagging or sighing the patient prevent/treat

A

Atelectasis

39
Q

How often do most anesthetists bag their patients during surgery

A

Every 5-10 minutes

40
Q

What 3 factors go into determining the blood CO2 levels

A

Rate of production by the cells, rate of transport to the lungs, and the rate of elimination from the lungs

41
Q

What is a normal ETco2 in a nonanesthetized patient

A

35-45 mmHg

42
Q

What is the acceptable limit of ETco2 in an anesthetized patient

A

Up to 60 mmHg but typical is 40-55 mmHg

43
Q

What are the 4 aspects of evaluating a capnogram

A

The baseline value, the ETco2 value, the waveform shape, and the rate at which changes occur

44
Q

What is the normal Paco2 value in anesthetized patients

A

45-60 mmHg

45
Q

What does a Paco2 value greater than 60 indicate

A

Hypoventilation is significant and requires intervention

46
Q

When is body temperature loss greatest during an anesthetic event

A

In the first 20 mins

47
Q

What body temperature range prolongs anesthetic recovery and a decreased anesthetic dose is required

A

89.6-93.2 F

48
Q

What are the 3 techniques for warming hypothermic patients

A

External passive warming, external active rewarming, and core rewarming

49
Q

What is external passive warming

A

Helps minimize hypothermia by using various methods to conserve body heat such as towels and blankets

50
Q

What is external active rewarming

A

Raises body temperature by using external heat producing devices

51
Q

What is core rewarming

A

Use of various devices and practices to either warm the patient internally or prevent excessive heat loss from the respiratory tract

52
Q

What are the 3 ways blood oxygen is measured

A

Calculated oxygen content, partial pressure of oxygen, and percent oxygen saturation

53
Q

What are the 3 groups vitals are separated into

A

Circulation, oxygenation, and respiration

54
Q

What are the principles of patient monitoring

A

Monitor patients frequently using your hands, eyes, and ears, always check multiple parameters, never depend on instruments alone, and do not attempt to judge depth of anesthesia on the basis of drug doses or dial settings

55
Q

What type of drape folding always for easy unfolding and placement on the patient

56
Q

What is sterilization

A

Elimination or destruction of all living organisms from a material

57
Q

What is disinfection

A

Destruction of vegetative forms of bacteria but not spores

58
Q

What are the different degrees of surgical aseptic maintenance

A

Clean, clean-contaminated, contaminated, and dirty

59
Q

What are the two categories of sterilization

A

Physical and chemical

60
Q

What are the 3 forms of physical sterilization

A

Filtration, radiation, and heat

61
Q

What is filtration sterilization

A

Use of a filter to separate particular material from liquids or gases

62
Q

What is radiation sterilization

A

Destroys microorganisms w/o causing significant temperature elevation

63
Q

What are the 2 forms of heat sterilization

A

Wet and dry

64
Q

What is dry heat sterilization

A

Sterilizing materials that cannot tolerate moisture but can withstand high temperatures avoiding rust or corrode but is more difficult to control

65
Q

What is moist heat sterilization

A

Accomplished by boiling water or by steam under pressure

66
Q

What position should instruments w/ hinges or box locks be left in when in the autoclave

A

In the unlocked position

67
Q

What is the minimum standard for autoclave sterilization

A

121 degrees C for 20 minutes

68
Q

What is flash sterilization

A

Emergency sterilization that is at 131 degrees C for 3 minutes

69
Q

Why should packs be left to cool slowly

A

To reduce condensation

70
Q

What are the 4 types of sterilization indicators

A

Autoclave tape, melting pellet glass, culture tests, and chemical sterilization indicators

71
Q

Why is hydrogen peroxide replacing ethylene oxide

A

Due to the high toxicity of ethylene oxide

72
Q

Why is chlorhexidine a popular antimicrobial

A

Because of its rapid onset and long residual activity

73
Q

What tools should never be sterilized

A

Arthroscope/laparoscope, fiberoptic light cable, and the camera

74
Q

Why is it important that CidexPlus is rinsed thoroughly from laparoscopic instruments

A

Because glutaraldehyde is carcinogenic and can lead to chemical synovitis and injuries to chondrocytes

75
Q

How should operating room cleaning be maintained

A

W/ daily and weekly schedules

76
Q

How many times should the surgical site be scrubbed and rinsed

77
Q

How long is the contact for sterile scrub like povidone-iodine

A

At least 5 minutes

78
Q

Why are one step preps beneficial

A

They are easy to apply, faster than traditional scrubbing, effective for antimicrobial kill, rapid onset, and a long residual effect if used properly

79
Q

What is the most common position for surgical patients

A

Dorsal recumbent

80
Q

What should anyone entering the OR be wearing

A

Cap, mask, booties, and scrub suit

81
Q

What are the requirements of hand scrub

A

Contact w/ the surfaces of the fingers, hand, and forearm and contact time for 5 minutes

82
Q

Can waterless hand antiseptics replace or supplement surgical hand scrubbing

A

Supplement because it is easy to apply, effective against microorganisms, and nonirritating to the skin

83
Q

What are the 2 methods for putting sterile gloves on

A

Closed gloving and open gloving

84
Q

Can nonsterile personnel lean or reach across sterile fields

85
Q

What is the sterile region after gowning and gloving

A

The front of the gown between the waist, just below the shoulders, and the sleeves

86
Q

What is the optimal approach to draping a surgical site

A

2 drape layers the first being the four quarter drapes and a large drape that covers the entire animal

87
Q

What drapes can be added to improve antiseptic techniques

A

Incisional drapes or antiseptic-impregnated adhesive drapes

88
Q

What is important to remember when opening a surgical pack

A

Make sure the opening faces away from you

89
Q

Why should drapes that get splashed w/ saline or blood be replaced and removed

A

Because they are no longer impermeable to bacteria known as strike through

90
Q

What is open gloving

91
Q

What is closed gloving