Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are peptide hormones

A

Chains of AA that are hydrophilic and have receptors on the cell membrane examples are calcitonin, insulin, and melatonin

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2
Q

What are steroid hormones

A

Cholesterol based so they are hydrophobic and have receptors in the cytoplasm or nucleus examples are estrogen and cortisol

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3
Q

What are monoamine hormones

A

Made of AA that can be hydrophilic such as catecholamine hormones (epi and norepi) and hydophobic such as thyroid hormones

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4
Q

What are the endocrine glands

A

Hypothalamus, pineal gland, thryoid gland, parathyroid gland, adrenal gland (cortex and medulla), pituitary gland (anterior and posterior), pancreas, ovary, and testes

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5
Q

Where is the hypothalamus and what does it regulate

A

It is part of the diencephalon and it regulates the appetite, body, temperature, and wake-sleep cycles and serves as the link btw the nervous and endocrine systems by signaling the pituitary gland and receive signals from the body

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6
Q

What is another name for the pituitary

A

Hypophysis

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7
Q

What are the different receptors in the hypothalamus and what do they sense

A

Neurons sense blood glucose and hormones (leptin causes satiety), ghrelin stimulates appetite, thermoreceptors, and osmoreceptors stimulate ADH and thirst center in the hypothalamus

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8
Q

How do neurons in the hypothalamus respond to the cold

A

By causing peripheral vasoconstriction, pilerection, and shivering

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9
Q

What is piloerection

A

Goosebumps caused by muscle contraction in a hair follicle

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10
Q

How do neurons in the hypothalamus respond to heat

A

Peripheral vasodilation, sweating, and panting

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11
Q

What are the releasing hormones produced by the hypothalamus that affect the anterior pituitary

A

Thyrotropin releasing hormone, growth hormone releasing hormone, gonadotrophin releasing hormone, prolactin releasing hormone, and alpha melanocyte stimulation hormone

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12
Q

What are the inhibitory hormones produced by the hypothalamus that affect the anterior pituitary

A

Growth hormone inhibiting hormone (somatostatin), gonadotrophin inhibiting hormone, and dopamine

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13
Q

What hormones are produced by the anterior pituitary

A

Growth hormone (GH), prolactin, thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), follicle stimulating hormone, lutenizing hormone, and melanocyte stimulating hormone

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14
Q

What is the effect of ADH

A

Water resorption in kidney

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15
Q

What is the effect of oxytocin

A

Uterine contraction and milk release from mammary gland

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16
Q

How are hormones transfered from the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary

A

The hormone are transported along nerve fibers and stored in nerve endings

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17
Q

How are hormones from the hypothalamus sent to the anterior pituitary

A

The portal vein system

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18
Q

What does ADH act on and function

A

Acts on the kidneys to reabsorb water it is released with increased osmotic pressure (dehydration) to increase the concentration of urine

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19
Q

How is urine specific gravity affected by dehydration

A

It should increase w/ dehydration if everything is working properly

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20
Q

What can inhibit the release of ADH

A

Caffeine and alcohol

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21
Q

What does ADH deficiency lead to

A

Central diabetes insipidus which causes the urine volume to increase and the USG to decrease

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22
Q

What does oxytocin cause in the body

A

Contraction of the myometrium of the uterus and contraction of the myoepithelial cells in the mammary glands

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23
Q

In what situations is injectable oxytocin good for

A

Dystocia, retained fetal membranes, post op C-cection, and if the dam has a poor milk supply

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24
Q

What does TSH do

A

It stimulates growth/development of the thyroid gland and production of its hormones so it has a potent negative feedback on TRH and TSH secretion by thyroid hormones

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25
Q

What does ACTH do

A

Stimulates the growth and development of the adrenal cortex and release of its hormone

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26
Q

What does GH (somatotropin) do

A

Promotes growth in young animals and regulates metabolism of proteins, carbs, and lipids throughout life

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27
Q

How does GH regulate the metabolism of proteins

A

Uses the anabolism of proteins for ongoing repair in the body

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28
Q

How does GH regulate the metabolism of lipids

A

It mobilizes lipids from fat with catabolism for energy production

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29
Q

How does GH regulate the metabolism of carbs

A

Discourages cells from using carbs in case of a hyperglycemic event

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30
Q

What does FSH do in females

A

Stimulates growth/development of follicles in ovaries (oogenesis) and stimulates estrogen production from the follicles

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31
Q

What does FSH do in males

A

Causes spermatogenesis

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32
Q

What does LH do in females

A

Completes follicle development that FSH started, increases w/ estrogen, and supports the corpus luteum that develops after ovulatio

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33
Q

What does LH do in males

A

Stimulates the interstitial cells in the testes to produce testosterone

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34
Q

What does prolactin do

A

Triggers and maintains milk production and in order for this hormone to continue to be produced nursing must be occuring

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35
Q

What does MSH do

A

It is responsible for the pigment/color change in melanocytes of reptiles, fish, and amphibians

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36
Q

What is the pineal gland

A

A pine cone shaped gland just rostral to the cerebellum

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37
Q

What is the function of the pineal gland

A

Informs the rest of the body about environmental light utilized for biological rhythms (circadian rhythm) and reproductive cycles

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38
Q

What can melatonin be used for

A

Pattern baldness and seasonal flank alopecia, canine cognitive dysfunction, and immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA) for cytokine production and immune-mediated thrombocytopenia (ITP) for an increased platelets

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39
Q

What is the parathyroid gland

A

It is closely associated w/ the thyroid gland that produces parathyroid hormone

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40
Q

What does PTH do in the body

A

It is involved in blood calcium homeostasis by preventing hypocalcemia and it causes kidneys to retain calcium that the intestines absorb from food, and withdraws it from bone

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41
Q

What might be connecting the thyroid glands

A

The isthmus

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42
Q

What comprises the thyroid gland on a microscopic level

A

Follicles and parafollicular cell (c cell)

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43
Q

What are the 2 parts of the follicles of the thyroid gland

A

The colloid and the follicular cell

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44
Q

What is the active form of thyroid hormone

A

T3 triiodothronine

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45
Q

What is the precursor of T3

A

T4 that is converted to T3 by the liver, kidney, and muscle

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46
Q

What are the affects thyroid hormone has on the body

A

Calorigenic effect, protein/carb/lipid metabolism, and growth/development of juveniles

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47
Q

What is the calorigenic effect of thyroid hormone

A

It maintains body temp by regulating metabolism

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48
Q

What can inhibit the thyroid hormones calorigenic effect

A

Emotional or physical stress

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49
Q

How does thyroid hormone affect protein, carb, and lipid metabolism

A

Anabolism of protein, hyperglycemic effect, and catabolism lipids

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50
Q

What growth/development is affected by the thyroid hormone

A

CNS, muscle, and bone

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51
Q

What produces calcitonin in the thyroid gland

A

C cells

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52
Q

What does calcitonin do in the body

A

It prevents hypercalcemia by inhibiting the breakdown of bone by osteoclasts and decreases reabsorption by kidney

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53
Q

What species is more likely to have hypothyroidism

A

Dogs

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54
Q

What are the 2 primary causes of hypothryoidism

A

Autoimmune or idiopathic atrophy of the thyroid gland

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55
Q

What are clinical signs of hypothryoidism

A

Lethargy, seeking warmth, weight gain w/o increasing consumption/appetite, alopecia around trunk or tail, tragic expression, discoloration of skin, and chronic ear/skin infections

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56
Q

What are common breeds that we see hypothryoidism

A

Golden retrievers, doberman pinschers, irish setters, dachshunds, cocker spaniels, and airedale terriers

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57
Q

What are the 2 tests that we use to primarily test for hypothyroidism

A

Free T4 and TSH

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58
Q

What species is a total T4 test good for

A

Cats

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59
Q

What are the different thyroid tests

A

Free T4, total T4, TSH, T3, TSH response test, and thyroid panel

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60
Q

What does a thryoid panel include

A

Total T4, fT4ed, T3, TSH, and antibodies

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61
Q

How is a TSH test done

A

Draw blood, inject TSH, then draw again 6 hrs later, and compare results

62
Q

What is the treatment for hypothroidism

A

Levothyroxine

63
Q

What is the most frequently diagnosed endocrine disease in cats

A

Hyperthryoidism

64
Q

What causes thyrotoxicosis

A

A benign mass on one or both lobes of the thyroid gland

65
Q

What age do we tend to start seeing hyperthyroidism in cats

A

8+ commonly ages 12-13

66
Q

What are clinical signs of hyperthyroidism

A

Weight loss despite good appetite, behavior change, vomiting, diarrhea, PU/PD, unkempt haircoat, thyroid gland enlargement, tachycardia, heart murmur, and around 10% can get depressed and decreased appetite

67
Q

What is a thyroid slip

A

When the thyroid gland gets larger allowing it to be felt along w/ a small lympth node behind it

68
Q

What diagnositic tests are done for hyperthyroidism

A

CBC, chemistry, and total T4

69
Q

How does a cats thyroid level naturally do as they age

A

They decrease so you could have a cat w/in “normal” levels but still be hyperthyroid

70
Q

What are the treatment options for hyperthyroidism

A

Diet, long term medication, radioactive iodine therapy, and surgery

71
Q

What medication is commonly used for hyperthyroidism and what does it do

A

Methimazole controls the production of the thyroid hormone

72
Q

What are the follow up steps when giving medication for hyper or hypo thryoidism

A

After 2-4 weeks do a total T4 to see if medication dose needs adjusting when treating for hyperthyroidism monitor liver valuse

73
Q

What are side effects to methimazole

A

Vomiting, anorexia, fever, anemia, lethargic, facial pruritus, and exoriations

74
Q

What can long term use of methimazole possibly cause

A

Liver damage and bone marrow suppression

75
Q

How long should cats stay isolated after recieving radioiodine therapy

A

About 4-5 days

76
Q

How long after radioiodine treatment should a T4 be rechecked

A

1 and 3 months post treatment

77
Q

What risk comes w/ surgically removing thyroid glands

A

Laryngeal paralysis

78
Q

Where are the adreneal glands located

A

Near the cranial polls of the kidneys

79
Q

What are the 2 parts of the adrenal gland

A

Adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla

80
Q

What hormones are produced by the adrenal cortex

A

Glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), and sex hormones

81
Q

Where are mineralocorticoids produced in the adrenal cortex and what do they do

A

They are produced in the outer layer of the cortex and they regulate the electrolyte levels

82
Q

Where are the glucocorticoids produced in the adrenal cortex and what do they do

A

They are produced in the middle layer and they cause general hyperglycemic effect, help maintain BP, and help the body resist effects of stress

83
Q

What does the adrenal medulla resemble

A

Nervous tissue

84
Q

What 2 hormones are produced in the medulla

A

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

85
Q

What is cushing’s disease

A

Hyperadrenocorticism

86
Q

What causes hyperadrenocorticism

A

Pituitary over production of ACTH or adrenal over production of corticosteroid

87
Q

What are the clinical signs of hyperadrenocorticism

A

Bilateral symmetric alopecia, PU/PD/polyphagia, muscle weakness, panting, pendulous abdomen, recurrent UTI, lethargy, pyoderma, and skin fragility (cats)

88
Q

What are the baseline labs that are ran when suspecting hyperadrenocorticism

A

CBC, chem panel, urinalysis

89
Q

What are findings on the baseline labs if the patient has hyperadrenocorticism

A

elevated alkaline phosphatase, hyperglycemia, hypercholesterolemia, and thrombocytosis

90
Q

What are other diagnostic tests that we use to confirm hyperadrenocorticism

A

Urine cortisol:creatinine ratio (UCCR), ACTH stimulation test, low dose dexamethasone suppression test (LDDST), and high dose dexamethasone suppression test (HDDST)

91
Q

What are the 2 tests do we run most often when definitively diagnosting hyperadrenocorticism

A

ACTH stimulation test and LDDST

92
Q

What is the UCCR

A

A screening test to see if there is more cortisol to creatinine in the urine this test is not considered diagnostic and is only ran if you really think its cushings and you need a small confirmation

93
Q

What does the ACTH stimulation test show

A

Elevates degree of response to administration of exogenous ACTH that will show an exaggerated response if cushing’s is present

94
Q

What is the only test we do for hypoadrenocorticism and what does it show

A

ACTH stimulation test which will show a diminished response

95
Q

What is the procedure of an ACTH stimulation test

A

Collect baseline blood sample, administer ACTH, give synthetic ACTH IV or IM, collect blood sample 1-2 hrs after, send to lab, and get results

96
Q

What is the procedure for an LDDST

A

Collect a fasted blood sample early in morning, administer low dose of dexamethasone IV, collect blood sample at 4 & 8 hrs after, send to lab for measuring of the cortisol levels if there is no change then it is diagnostic for hyperadrenocorticism

97
Q

What is the procedure of HDDST

A

Collect blood sample, administer dexamethasone IV, collect blood at 4&8 hrs after, look at results to determine if the cushings is pituitary (levels fall at 4 hr mark) or adrenal based (no change at the 4 hr mark)

98
Q

What medications are used for hyperadrenocorticism

A

Mitotane (lysodren) destroys glucocorticoid secreting cells and trilostane (vetoryl) inhibits enzyme needed for glucocorticoid and mineral corticoid production

99
Q

What monitoring is done after treatment for hyperadrenocorticism is started

A

ACTH stimulation and trough cortisol level

100
Q

What is addison’s disease

A

Hypoadrenocorticism which is a lack of cortisol or aldosterone

101
Q

What are clinical signs of hypoadrenocorticism

A

Waxing (worse) and waning (getting better) of lethargy, anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, weight loss, shaking, and PU/PD

102
Q

What does the mineralocorticoid deficiency mean for addison’s patients

A

They have an inability to excrete potassium and retain sodium leading to hyperkalemia which can cause myocardial toxicity or hyponatreia which can cause dehydration, hypotension, weakness, and depression

103
Q

What does glucocorticoid deficiency mean for addison’s patients

A

Leads to anorexia, vomiting, and lethargy

104
Q

What is typical addison’s disease

A

Missing both glucocorticoids and mineralcorticoid

105
Q

What is atypical addison’s disease

A

Only missing glucocorticoids

106
Q

What are diagnostic tests for hypoadrenocorticism

A

CBC, chem, UA, and ACTH stimulation test

107
Q

What is are the treatments for hypoadrenocorticism

A

Lifelong glucocorticoid and mineralcorticoid replacement therapy, increases glucorticoids are required for stressful times, extremely low dose of prednisone, DOCP (desoxycorticosterone pivalate) injection, and fludrocortisone acetate

108
Q

What routine testing should be done for patiets w/ hypoadrenocorticism

A

BUN, creatinine, and electrolyte levels

109
Q

What are clinical signs of an addisonian crisis

A

Sudden weakness, shock, collapse, vomiting, and diarrhea due to inability to compensate for stress this is a life threatening emergency

110
Q

What ae diagnostics to due during an addisonian crisis

A

Bloodwork including electrolytes that could show hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, and hypoglycemia and BP that could be hypotensive

111
Q

What are treatments for an addisonian crisis

A

IV fluids +/- dextrose, dexamethasone sodium phosphate, DOCP, and calcium gluconate

112
Q

What is the exocrine pancreas function

A

Excretes enzymes to break down the proteins, lipids, CHOs, and nucleic acids in food

113
Q

What is the endocrine pancreas function

A

Islets langerhans such as alpha cells, beta cells, and delta cells produce glucagon, insulin, and somatostatin respectively

114
Q

What does glucagon do

A

Has a hyperglycemic effect by stimulating the breakdown of glycogen stored in liver and hepatic gluconeogenesis from fat/protein to increase blood sugar

115
Q

What does insulin do

A

Facilitates glucose, AA, and FA entry into cells to lower blood glucose and stimulates the liver to store glucose as glycogen

116
Q

What does somatostatin do

A

Inhibits secretion of other hormones such as GH, TSH, glucagon, and insulin it also is produced by the GI epithelium to reduce secretion of gastric acid, gastrin, secretin, and pepsin

117
Q

What is type 1 diabetes mellitus

A

When the pancreas does not produce enough insulin (dogs)

118
Q

What is type 2 diabetes mellitus

A

Does not respond to insulin present (cats)

119
Q

What age range does diabetes mellitus occur

A

Middle age to older dogs and cats, more common in female dogs and male cats, and obese cats

120
Q

Predisposing factors of endocrine diseases

A

Overweight or obese, inflammation of pancreas, long term corticosteroid use, and other metabolic disease such as hyperadrenocorticism and hyperthyroidism

121
Q

What can untreated diabetes mellitus lead to

A

PU/PD because water follows sugar, sugar is deprived from the brain so their appetite increases and polyphagia, use stored energy sources and lose weight creating ketone bodies

122
Q

What can untreated pets w/ diabetes mellitus get

A

Bladder, kidney, and skin infections, blindness, and nerve and muscle dysfunction

123
Q

What type of diabetics should be hospitilized

A

Diabetics w/ ketoacidosis

124
Q

What are the 2 main tests that are used to diagnosis diabetes

A

Blood test (hyperglycemia) and urinalysis (glucosuria and ketonuria)

125
Q

What treatment methods are used w/ diabetic patients w/ ketoacidosis

A

IV fluids w/ rapid acting insulin

126
Q

What are other treatments for diabetic cats

A

Glipizide (glucotrol), bexagliflozin (bexacat), velagliflozin (senvelgo), and special diet (low carb)

127
Q

What are the types of insulin used

A

Short acting (regular), NPH/lente are intermediate acting, and ultralente/PZI are long acting (dogs)

128
Q

What insulin can push cats into remission most often

129
Q

What are frequently preformed diagnostics that are used to monitor diabetics

A

Glucose curve, continuous glucose monitoring, urine dipstick, and fructosamine

130
Q

What is a glucose curve

A

Insulin glucose response curve measures blood glucose every 1-2 hrs for 12-24 hrs to figure out which insulin to use, how much to give, how often to give, and best time to feed animals

131
Q

What is the somogyi phenomenon

A

To much insulin is given glucagon is released to increase the blood sugar

132
Q

What is continuous glucose monitoring

A

The freestyle libre measures interstital glucose concentration

133
Q

What is a fructosamine test

A

Tests for glycated albumin or other proteins to show regulation for the past 2 weeks this is very helpful in cats

134
Q

What are proper ways to handle insulin

A

Less effective if it gets too hot or cold, should be refrigerated, has an expiration date, and should be gently mixed

135
Q

What are signs of hypoglycemia

A

Weakness, staggering, seizures, and lethargic

136
Q

What are complicating factors that make managing diabetes mellicus difficult

A

Periodontal disease, UTIs, cushing’s disease, and intact females

137
Q

What is diabetes insipidus

A

A central or nephrogenic issue with ADH secretion

138
Q

What is central diabetes insipidus

A

Deficiency of ADH secretion this starts at a young age

139
Q

What is nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A

Kidneys insensitive to ADH this can occur at any age

140
Q

What are signs of diabetes insipidus

141
Q

What are ways to diagnosis diabetes insipidus

A

Water deprivation test and ADH therapeutic trial

142
Q

What is treatment for diabetes insipidus

A

Daily desmopressin

143
Q

What triggers the production of testosterone from leydig cells

144
Q

What does testosterone cause males to do

A

Develope male secondary characteristics, acessory sex gland development, and spermatogenesis

145
Q

What is produced as a response of FSH in females

A

Estrogen which leads to physical and behavioral changes that prepare the female for breeding and pregnancy

146
Q

What is produced in the reponse of LH in females

A

Progesterone which prepares the female to receive a fertilized ovum and maintain pregnancy

147
Q

What does hypoxemia cause the kidneys to produce

A

Erythropoietin to increase RBC production

148
Q

What does gastrin do in the stomach

A

Stimulates gastric acid secretion and muscular contraction of stomach wall

149
Q

What does secretin do in the small intestine

A

Stimulates pancreas to secrete fluid rich in sodium bicarbonate into the duodenum to neutralize chyme

150
Q

What does cholecystokinin do in the small intestine

A

Stimulates the release of digestive enzymes from the pancreas into the duodenum

151
Q

What enzymes inhibit gastric acid secretion and gastric motility

A

Secretin and cholecystokinin

152
Q

What does the thymus produce

A

Thymosin and thymypoietin stimulates T cell development