Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the homeostatic functions of the renal system

A

Acid-base, fluid, and electrolytes

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2
Q

How does the kidney do its job

A

Blood filtration, reabsorption, secretion, fluid balance regulation, hormonal influence, and elimination of hydrogen and bicarbonate

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3
Q

What is diuresis

A

Excessive production of urine

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4
Q

What is oliguria

A

Low urine output

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5
Q

What is anuria

A

Failure to produce urine from the kidneys

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6
Q

What is the kidneys hormonal influence on the body

A

Responses to ADH and aldosterone and produces renin, erythropoietin, and prostaglandins

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7
Q

What is the only species where the right kidney is not more cranial than the left

A

The pig

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8
Q

What are the 2 different types of kidneys

A

Multilobar and unilobar kidneys

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9
Q

What is the functional unit of the kidney

A

The nephron

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10
Q

What are the parts of the nephron in the renal cortex

A

Bowman’s capsule, glomerulus, PCT, and DCT

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11
Q

What are the two things in the renal medulla

A

Loop of Henle and collecting duct

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12
Q

What are the basic steps in urine formation

A

Afferent arteriole, blood flow, efferent arteriole, reabsorption of solutes and water, peritubular capillaries, secretion of additional wastes, and excretion

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13
Q

What are the 2 main things in the renal corpuscle

A

The glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule

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14
Q

What is the glomerulus

A

The capillary bed in the kidneys

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15
Q

What is the Bowman’s capsule

A

A double walled capsule that covers the glomerulus that has a inner visceral layer comprised of podocytes, capsular space that continues w/ the PCT, and an outer layer parietal layer

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16
Q

What is the function of the renal corpuscle

A

To filter any small molecules from the blood going thru the glomerulus

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17
Q

What is the proximal convoluted tubule

A

Longest part of the tubular system of the nephron that is primarily in the cortex and is comprised of cuboidal epithelium w/ a brush border

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18
Q

What is the function of the PCT

A

To reabsorb tubular filtrate such as actively Na+ and Cl-, passively K+, Ca+2, and glucose and AA via sodium cotransport

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19
Q

What is the loop of Henle

A

A continuation from the PCT into the medulla that has a thinner walled narrower lumen u-turn

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20
Q

What is the function of the loop of Henle

A

Water and electrolyte balance and some reabsorption

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21
Q

What is the distal convoluated tubule

A

Continuation of the ascending loop of Henle that is located in the cortex

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22
Q

What is the function of the DCT

A

Water balance

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23
Q

What do multiple DCTs converge into

A

A collecting duct

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24
Q

What is the function of the collecting duct

A

Acid-base regulation, water balance, and some Na regulation

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25
Q

What are the two sites of ADH and aldosterone action in the kidneys

A

Primarily the collecting duct and minorly in the DCT

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26
Q

What is the path of developing/form urine

A

Multiple nephrons, collecting duct, papillary duct, minor calyx, major calyx, renal pelvis, and ureter

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27
Q

What does the sympathetic nervous system do in the kidneys

A

Vasoconstriction of renal vessels to decrease urine production

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28
Q

What is the blood flow in the kidney

A

Renal artery, afferent glomerular arterioles, efferent glomerular arterioles, peritubular capillaries, venules, and renal vein

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29
Q

What does the peritubular capillaries do in the nephron

A

Oxygen transfer to the nephron, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion

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30
Q

What is the only set of capillaries where oxygenated blood enters and exits

A

The glomerular capillaries

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31
Q

What is the difference in diameter btw the afferent and efferent arteriole

A

The diameter of the afferent arteriole is larger than the efferent to help w/ glomerular pressure for efficient filtration

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32
Q

What cannot be filtered in a normal glomerulus

A

RBCs, WBCs, and most plasma proteins

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33
Q

When do proteins leak into the glomerular filtrate

A

If there is endothelial damage

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34
Q

What is glomerular filtration rate

A

Volume of plasma that would have to be filtered by glomeruli each minute to account for the amount of a given substance to appear in the urine

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35
Q

What is the ultimate renal function test

A

GFR

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36
Q

What is the GFR influenced by

A

The hydrostatic pressure of blood in the glomerulus, oncotic pressure of the glomerular filtrate, filtration barrier permeability, filtration barrier area, and if kidney production has decreased

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37
Q

What does a high GFR reflect on kidney production

A

If the GFR is increased that means the kidney function is low

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38
Q

What things are reabsorbed by the ascending LOH and DCT

A

K+, CA+2, and Na+ that is exchanged for H+, ammonium, or K+

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39
Q

What is reabsorbed by the ascending LOH and the CD

A

Mg+2

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40
Q

What is the renal threshold

A

The limit to reabsorption by the kidney

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41
Q

What wastes products are secreted thru the DCT

A

H+, K+, ammonia, urea, penicillin, and sulfonamides

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42
Q

What are the 2 ways the kidneys maintain the acid-base balance of the body

A

Secrete H+ in the PCT and CD and reabsorb HCO3-

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43
Q

What are the urine pH buffers that bind the excess H+

A

Ammonia and phosphate

44
Q

Where do ureters exit the kidneys

45
Q

Why are ureters comprised of smooth muscle

A

Because they use peristalsis to push the urine into the bladder

46
Q

Where on the bladder does the ureter enter

A

The trigone

47
Q

What does the detrusor muscle of the baldder contain that communicates w/ the CNS

A

Stretch receptors that activate a spinal reflex arc when full and the parasympathetic pelvic nerve

48
Q

Where can you find an empty bladder in carnivores

A

The pelvic cavity and abdomen

49
Q

What is the internal urethral sphincter

A

Comprised of smooth muscle at the neck of the bladder and cranial urethra and has an innervated by the parasympathetic pelvic nerve and hypogastric sympathetic nerve

50
Q

What is the external urethral sphincter

A

Striated urethral sphincter comprised of the urethralis muscle encircles the caudal urethra and is innervated by the pudendal somatic nerve

51
Q

What are urethral characteristics in females

A

Shorter, wider, and straighter that exits the pelvic canal ventrally in the vestibule

52
Q

What are urethral characteristics of males

A

Longer, narrower, and curved in males that is broken up into the prostatic, membranous, and penile urethra

53
Q

What is the external opening of the urethra reffered to

A

The urinary meatus or external urethral orifice

54
Q

What are common urinary tract diseases

A

UTIs, urinary calculi (stones), urinary incontinence, feline lower urinary tract disease (FLUTD), prostatic disease, and renal failure, and glomerulonephropathy

55
Q

What are diagnostics for suspected urinary cases

A

UA, culture/sensitivity, blood chemistry profile, rads, and ultrasound

56
Q

What are we looking for in a UA and culture/sensitivity

A

Infection, pH abnormality, crystalluria, and concentration

57
Q

What are we looking at on a blood chemistry profile in urinary cases

A

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN), creatinine, SDMA, HCT, PCV, RBC, and WBC

58
Q

What are looked at in rads for urinary cases

A

Kidney size, shape, number, and location and bladder size, shape, density, and location

59
Q

What are we looking at in ultrasounds in urinary cases

A

Kidney and bladder internal structures

60
Q

What is the type of microorganisms are looked for in a urine culture and what does it tell us

A

Aerobic and it tells us what antibiotics the bacteria is sensitive to

61
Q

What are common causes of renomegaly

A

Neoplasia, hydronephrosis, perirenal cyst, and pyelonephritis

62
Q

What patients are more likely to get UTIs

A

Females are more likely than males, dogs are more likely than cats, and older cats are more likely than younger cats

63
Q

What is feline lower urinary tract disease

A

FLUTD is lower urinary tract inflammation that is present in most overweight male cats above 3 years of age

64
Q

What are causes of FLUTD

A

Feline idiopathic cystitis (FIC) is secondary to stress/anxiety, struvite crystalluria, urolithiasis, mucus plug, and rarely a UTI

65
Q

How do you treat FLUTD

A

Specific to underlying cause, may involve anti-anxiety supplements/medications, stress reduction in home, diet change, increased water consumption, and urine pH management

66
Q

What surgery can be done to treat FLUTD

A

Perineal urethrostomy if there is a severe or repeated urinary blockage

67
Q

What value will show kidney disease earliest

68
Q

What are the different types of uroliths

A

Nephrolith/renolith, ureteroliths, cystoliths, and urethroliths

69
Q

What breeds are more likely to get uroliths

A

Miniature schnauzer, shih tzu, miniature poodles, and cocker spaniels

70
Q

What type of urine are struvite uroliths typically found w/

A

UTIs w/ alkaline urine

71
Q

How can you diagnosis struvite uroliths

A

Radiographs, ultrasound, urinalysis, and palpation

72
Q

How can you treat struvite uroliths

A

Dissolution w/ special diet and antibiotics, cystotomy, urohydropropulsion, urethrotomy/urethrostomy

73
Q

What does the dissolution treatment do to break down uroliths

A

Promote acidic urine and restrict protein, phosphorus, and magnesium

74
Q

What type of urine can cause calcium oxalate uroliths

A

Acidic urine

75
Q

How can calcium oxalate uroliths be diagnosised

A

Rads, ultrasound, and UA

76
Q

How can calcium oxalate uroliths be treated

A

Diet to prevent future stones, B6 or hydrochlorothiazide, urohydropropulsion, cystotomy, urethrotomy/urethrstomy

77
Q

What causes urate uroliths

A

High excretion of ammonium biurate crystals

78
Q

What can increase the risk of getting urate uroliths

A

Portosystemic shunt and being a dalmatian

79
Q

How can urate uroliths be diagnosised

A

Radiolucent so ultrasound is best

80
Q

How do you treat urate uroliths

A

Urohydropropulsion, cystotomy, and urethrotomy/urethrostomy

81
Q

What can increase the risk of cystine uroliths

A

Excessive elimintaion of cystine such as disorder of renal tubular transport, high concentrations of cystine in an acidic environment, and in male dachshunds 3-6 yrs

82
Q

How can cystine uroliths be diagnosised

A

Stones may be difficult to see on rads and ultrasound

83
Q

How can cystine uroliths be treated

A

Urohydropropulsion, cystotomy, and urethrotomy/urethrostomy

84
Q

What can we link w/ the formation of silicate uroliths

A

Corn gluten and soy bean hull consumption

85
Q

What breeds are specifically prone to silicate uroliths

A

German shepherds, old english sheepdogs, shih tzus, and labs

86
Q

How can silicate uroliths be diagnosised

A

Radiographs and ultrasound

87
Q

How can silicate uroliths be treated

A

Urohydropropulsion, cystotomy, urethrotomy/urethrosotomy, and alkalinzing urine can help prevent in the future

88
Q

What are the 3 types of urethral catheters we can use for unblocking cats

A

Tom cat, slippery sam, and milia

89
Q

What urethral catheters do we typically use for unblocking dogs

A

Red rubber catheter and a foley catheter

90
Q

What are neurogenic reasons for urinary incontinence

A

IVDD, trauma, degenerative myelopathy, and malformed spinal cord

91
Q

What are non neurogenic issues that lead to urinary incontinence

A

Urethral sphincter mechanism incompetence, ectopic ureters, UTI, urethroliths or urethral disease

92
Q

How can you treat spay incontinence

A

Diethylstilbestrol (DES), phenylpropanolamine (proin and proin ER), and estrogen

93
Q

What are causes of prostatic disease

A

Prostatitis typically from infection, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and neoplasia

94
Q

What are clinical signs of prostatic disease

A

Strangiuria, difficulty having bowel movements, hematuria, abdominal pain, and prostatomegaly on digital rectal exam

95
Q

What can progression of renal disease lead to

A

Inability to excrete wastes or maintain homeostasis, azotemia, and then uremia/uremic syndrome

96
Q

How much of renal function must be lost for clinical signs to begin

97
Q

How can CKD be diagnosised

A

Clinical signs, CBC, chemistry, UA, UPC, rads, and ultrasound

98
Q

What are treatments of CKD

A

To slow progression we can change the diet, subcutaneous fluids, and if hypertension is present we can give amlodipine (cats), enalapril (dogs), and telmisartan (cats)

99
Q

What is the goal w/ changing the diet in CKD patients

A

Limit phosphorus and protein

100
Q

What is uremia

A

Clinical sighs of dogs/cats w/ azotemia

101
Q

What are clinical signs of uremic syndrome

A

Vomiting, nausea, anorexia, oral/lingual ulcerations, halitosis, lingual necrosis, gastroenteropathy, oliguria, anuria, dehyrdation, injected mm, melena, diarrhea, hypothermia, optic neuropathy, vision loss, and seizures

102
Q

How can uremic syndrome diagnositics

A

CBC, chem, UA, abdominal radiographs, ultrasound, direct blood pressure, renal biopsy, screening for toxins, and fundic exam

103
Q

What are treatments of uremic syndrome

A

IV fluids, correct hyperkalemia, correct metabolic acidosis, treat oliguria if not resolved, renal diet, feeding tubes, parenteral feeding, antiemetics, gastroprotectants, and dialysis

104
Q

What is azotemia

A

Increased nitrogen containing compounds in the blood such as BUN and or creatinine

105
Q

What is the classification of azotemia based on

A

Urine specific gravity

106
Q

What are the USG vales for pre renal azotemia

A

> 1.035 in dogs and >1.040 in cats

107
Q

What is the range of USG values for renal azotemia

A

1.007<USG<1.034 (dogs) or 1.039 (cats) or total loss of concentrating ability by the kidney seen in isosthenuria