Anesthetic Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

What do anticholinergics do

A

They lysis parasympothetic effects

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2
Q

What are the 2 anticholinergics that we use

A

Glycopyrrolate and atropine

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3
Q

What are the alpha 2 agonist we use

A

Primarily dexdomitor and xylazine in large animals

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4
Q

What phenothiazine do we use

A

Acepromazine

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5
Q

What opioids do we typically use

A

Morphine, fentanyl, butorphanol, buprenorphine, and hydromorphone

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6
Q

What benzodiazepines do we typically use

A

Diazepam, midazolam, and zolazepam

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7
Q

What are the different classes of pre anesthetic agents do we use

A

Anticholinergics, alpha 2 agonist, phenothiazine, opioid, and benzodiazepine

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8
Q

What types of anesthetic agents do we use

A

Dissociative, inhalant, and miscellaneous

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9
Q

What dissociative anesthetic agents do we use

A

Ketamine and tiletamine

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10
Q

What inhalant anesthetic agents do we use

A

Isoflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide

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11
Q

What miscellaneous anesthetic agents do we use

A

Propofol and alfaxalone

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12
Q

What does dose dependent mean

A

The higher dose given the worse the negative efects are

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13
Q

What does contraindication mean

A

When/something that leads to not being able to use it

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14
Q

What is the difference between oral and injectable preanesthetic drugs

A

The oral has a higher dose and longer DOA

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15
Q

What is the definition of anesthesia

A

Loss of sensation

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16
Q

What is anaglesthia

A

Pain management

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17
Q

What is an antagonist

A

Reverses the designated preanesthetic drugs

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18
Q

What is the duration of action

A

How long we see physical effects on the patient

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19
Q

What is the onset of action

A

How long it takes for the drug to do its job this often relates to the route of administration

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20
Q

About how much faster is the onset of action for IV preanesthetics compared to SQ

A

5-10 mins

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21
Q

What is neurolep anaglesthia

A

Sedative/tranquilizer plus an opioid

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22
Q

What is the ceiling effect

A

How much you can increase the dose of the drug before you see a loss in the benefit of the drug

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23
Q

What is tiletamine in

A

Telazol it is mixed w/ zolazepam

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24
Q

What is the onset of action for tiletamine

A

5 mins for IM

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25
Q

What is the DOA of tiletamine

A

30 mins in dogs and 1 hr in cats

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26
Q

What are the routes of administration available for tiletamine

A

IM and IV

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27
Q

What are the cardiovascular effects of tiletamine

A

Slight vasoconstriction

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28
Q

What are the respiratory effects of tiletamine

A

Apneustic breathing in cats that stops at inhalation

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29
Q

What is the action of metabolism and excretion for tiletamine

A

In dogs it is hepatic kidney and in cats renal only

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30
Q

Is there a reversal for tiletamine

A

Yes partial yohimbine

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31
Q

Does tiletamine have any analgesic effects

A

Yes somatic effect

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32
Q

What are contraindications of administering tiletamine

A

Seizure patients, head trauma, gluacoma, and renal disease

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33
Q

Is tiletamine controlled

A

Yes

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34
Q

What are other affects of tiletamine

A

CNS stimulant, muscle ridgity, exaggerated reflexes, increased salivation, and eye position central

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35
Q

What is the onset of action for ketamine

A

5 mins when given IM

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36
Q

What is the DOA of ketamine

A

30 mins in dogs and 1 hr in cats

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37
Q

What are the routes of administration possible for ketamine

A

IM and IV

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38
Q

What are the cardiovascular effects of ketamine

A

Slight vasoconstriction

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39
Q

What are the respiratory effects of ketamine

A

Apneustic breathing that stops w/ inhalation

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40
Q

What is the action of metabolism and excretion of ketamine

A

In dogs hepatic and kidney and in cats both renal

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41
Q

Is there a reversal of ketamine

A

Yes partial yohimbine

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42
Q

Does ketamine provide an analgesic effect

A

Yes somatic

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43
Q

Are there any contraindications for ketamine

A

Seizure patients, head trauma, glaucoma, and renal disease

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44
Q

Is ketamine controlled

A

Yes

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45
Q

What are other effects of ketamine

A

CNS stimulant such as amnesthia and elucogenic, muscle ridgity, exaggerated reflexes, increase salivation, and eye position central

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46
Q

What is the onset of action of propfol

A

Immediately

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47
Q

What is the duration of action of propfol

A

8 mins

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48
Q

What route can propfol be administered

A

IV

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49
Q

What are the cardiovascular effects of propfol

A

Dose dependent or fast given can bring hypotension and vasodilation

50
Q

What are the respiratory effects of propfol

A

If given too fast apnea can occur

51
Q

What is the action of metabolism and excretion of propfol

A

Metabolized via the liver and excreted via the kidneys

52
Q

Is there a reversal for propfol and does it provide analgesia

53
Q

What are contraindications of administering propfol

A

Hypoproteinemia will increase the potency

54
Q

What can happen when propfol sits

55
Q

Can you use a CRI for propfol

56
Q

What type of propfol has a 28 day shelf life

A

Propfol 28

57
Q

How long should it take to infuse propfol to the patient

A

60-90 secs

58
Q

What other things can propfol cause

A

Tremurs/twitches, seizures, and heinz body anemia in cats

59
Q

What routes can opioids be given

A

IV, IM, and SQ

60
Q

What opioids cause more respiratory effects

A

Fent, hydro, oxy, and mostly morphine w/ increase doses

61
Q

Is there a reversal for opioids

A

Naloxome/narcan

62
Q

How are opioids divided

A

By the receptor agonist such as full MU agonist, partial MU agonist, and kappa agonist/MU antagonist

63
Q

Which type of opioids are the best

A

Full MU agonist but they come w/ the most side effects

64
Q

What partial MU agonsit do we use

A

Bupnenorphine

65
Q

What kappa agonist/MU antagonist do we use

A

Butorphenol

66
Q

What is the onset of action for bupnenorphine

A

30-45 mins

67
Q

What is the onset of action of dexdomitor

A

10 mins w/ IM

68
Q

What is the DOA of dexdomitor

A

About 3 hrs for sedative and 1 hr for anaglesthic

69
Q

What routes can dexdomitor be administer

A

IV, IM, and SQ

70
Q

What are the cardivascular effects of dexdomitor

A

Significant peripheral vasoconstriction, significant bardycardia, hypertension soon after administration, pale MM, prolonged CRT, weak pulses, and arrhthymias

71
Q

At what HRs do we start worrying about patients when given dexdomitor

A

40 bpm w/ dogs and 90 bpm w/ cats

72
Q

What are respiratory effects of dexdomitor

A

Dose dependent depression, bradapnic, and relaxation of inspiration and exhalation muscles

73
Q

How is dexdomitor metabolized and excreted from the body

A

Metabolized by the river and excreted by the kidneys

74
Q

Is there a reversal for dexdomitor

A

Yes antisedan/atipamezole

75
Q

Does dexdomitor provide analgesic effects

A

Yes but not great for visceral

76
Q

What is the contraindication for administering dexdomitor

A

Cardiac disease

77
Q

What is the onset of action of midazolam

A

10 mins when given IM immediately when given IV

78
Q

What is the DOA of midazolam

A

30-60 mins for dogs and 1-3 hrs for cats

79
Q

Are there any cardiovascular or respiratory effects of midazolam

80
Q

How is midazolam metabolized and excreted in the body

A

Metabolized via the liver and excretion via the kidneys

81
Q

Is there a reversal for midazolam

A

Yes flumazenial

82
Q

Does midazolam have any analgesic effects or intraindications

83
Q

What are other effects of midazolam

A

Skeletal muscle relaxation and dose dependent disphoria

84
Q

What are characteristics of midazolam

A

Soluble in plastic and light sensitive

85
Q

What is the brand name of diazepam

86
Q

What is the onset of action of diazepam

A

10 mins when given IM immediately when given IV

87
Q

What is the DOA of diazepam

A

30-60 mins for dogs and 1-3 hrs for the cats

88
Q

What is the route of administration for diazepam

A

IV because it is not water soluble so it needs a carrier propylene glycol

89
Q

Are there any cardiovascular or respiratory effects of diazepam

A

No but clots can happen if it is slammed in upon administration

90
Q

How is diazepam metabolized and excreted

A

It is metabolized in the liver and excreted via the kidney

91
Q

Is there a reversal for diazepam

A

Yes flumazenial

92
Q

Does diazepam have any analgesic effects or contraindications

93
Q

What are other effects of diazepam

A

Skeletal muscle relaxation, can only be mixed w/ ketamine in the same syringe, and dose dependent disphoria

94
Q

What are characeristics of diazepam

A

Water soluble, can be used to treat seizures, light sensitive, and soluble in plastic

95
Q

What is the onset of action of glycopyrrolate

A

30-45 mins regardless of the route of administration

96
Q

What is the DOA of glycopyrrolate

A

Up to 3 hrs

97
Q

What are the routes glycopyrrolate can be administered

A

IV, IM, and SQ

98
Q

What is the cardiovascular effect of glycopyrrolate

A

Prevents bradycardia by blocking the vegal stimulation

99
Q

What is the respiratory effect of glycopyrrolate

A

Vasodilation of bronchi increasing anatomical dead space

100
Q

How is glycopyrrolate metabolized and excreted

A

Metabolized via the liver and excreted via the kidney

101
Q

Does glycopyrrolate provide anaglesic effects and is there a reversal

102
Q

What are the contraindications of glycopyrrolate

A

GI isssues or surgerys and tachycardia or arrhythmias

103
Q

What is a special characteristic of glycopyrrolate

A

It does not cross the blood brain barrier or the placental barrier

104
Q

What are other effects of glycopyrrolate

A

Decreases salivation, decrease in gastric motility, and decrease tear formation/production

105
Q

What is the onset of action of atropine

A

20 mins given SQ

106
Q

What is the DOA of atropine

107
Q

What are the routes of administration of atropine

A

IV, IM, and SQ

108
Q

What are the cardiovascular effects of atropine

A

Prevent bradycardia by blocking vegal stimulation and transient tachycardia

109
Q

What are the respiratory effects of atropine

A

Vasodilation of bronchi increasing anatomical dead space and increase vescosity of respiratory system

110
Q

How is atropine metabolized and excreted

A

It is metabolized via liver and excreted via kidneys

111
Q

Does atropine have a reversal or provide any anaglesic effects

112
Q

What are the contraindications of giving atropine

A

GI issues or surgery and tachycardia or arrhythmias

113
Q

What are other effects of atropine

A

Decreased salivation, decreased gastric motility, and decreased tear formation/production

114
Q

What is the onset of action of acepromazine

A

10 mins given IM and 15-20 if given SQ

115
Q

What is the DOA of acepromazine

A

3-6 hrs of sedation but has a dose dependent hangover

116
Q

What are the routes of administration for acepromazine

A

OTM, PO, SQ, IM, and IV

117
Q

What are the cardiovascular effects of acepromazine

A

Significant peripheal vasodilation, dose dependent hypotension, and slight tachycardia

118
Q

Are there any respiratory effects of acepromazine

119
Q

What are the methods of metabolism and excretion of acepromazine

A

Metabolized via the liver and excreted via kidneys

120
Q

Is there a reversal for acepromazine or analgesic effects

121
Q

What are the contraindications for acepromazine

A

Not healthy, under 3 mos, gieatric, liver dysfunction, seizure disorders, and hypotension/cardiac diseases

122
Q

What are other effects of acepromazine

A

Muscle relaxation, antiemetic, antinistamine, antiarrhythmic, ceiling effect of 3 mgs, causes hypothermia, and decreases seizure threshold