Lab Lecture Flashcards
1
Q
how does marked dehydration affect an animals eyes
A
Sunken in the socket
2
Q
Normal urine production is considered to be
A
1-2 ml/kg/hr
3
Q
The best choice of fluids for SC administration would be
A
Isotonic fluids
4
Q
It is important that owners routinely clean the pts fur and skin of urine after expressing the bladder to prevent
A
Urine scalding
5
Q
When adding medications or electrolytes to a bag of fluids it is important to
A
Record in the medical record, identify who added the meds, identify the additives, time and date when added
6
Q
T/F A major cross match is performed by mixing the pts plasma with the donors red blood cells
A
True
7
Q
Of the following fluids which would be considered hypotonic
A
D5W
8
Q
Which phase of fluid therapy is typically completes as an IV bolus
A
Resuscitation
9
Q
Which of the following fluid types is used primarily to rapidly bring volume into the intravascular space
A
Hypertonic crystalloid
10
Q
T/F an elevated PCV/TP is commonly associated with over hydration
A
False
11
Q
Normosol-R
A
Isotonic crystalloid
12
Q
3% NaCl
A
hypertonic crystalloid
13
Q
Hetastarch
A
synthetic colloid
14
Q
Whole blood
A
Natural colloid
15
Q
0.45% NaCl
A
Hypotonic crystalloid
16
Q
D5W
A
Hypotonic crystalloid
17
Q
0.9% NaCl
A
Isotonic crystalloid
18
Q
LRS
A
Isotonic crystalloid
19
Q
7% NaCl
A
hypertonic crystalloid
20
Q
Plasma
A
Natural colloid
21
Q
Cryoprecipitate
A
synthetic colloid
22
Q
Plasmalyte - 140
A
Isotonic crystalloid
23
Q
T/F colloids tent to stay in the vascular space therefore they are well suited for patients in need of volume expansion and resuscitation
A
True
24
Q
Which of the following fluid types is primarily used to promote movement from the intravascular space into the tissues
A
hypotonic crystalloids
25
Symptoms of fluid overload include all of the following except
Thick, mucoid nasal discharge
26
Examples of synthetic colloids include ______ and _______
hetastarch and oxyglobin
27
Sensible losses include all of the following except
Perspiration
Urine
Vomit
Diarrhea
Perspiration
28
Which of the following is the least effective method for delivering fluids to a 12% dehydrated pt
Subcutaneous
29
Which of the following pieces of advice given to owners about administering subcutaneous fluids to their pet at home is the least accurate
sudden changes in the animals urinary habits can be indicative of fluid overload
30
What virus is associated with FIV infection
Lentivirus
31
FIP has 2 different forms, which form occurs most often
Effusive
32
Which of the following is the treatment of choice for toxoplasmosis
Clindamycin
33
Which of the following tick-borne diseases casues a dermal rash around the bite would that resembles a target
lyme
34
T/F when a patient dies from rabies it is due to neuron damage in the brain
False
35
What does a cat have to be exposed to in order to contract FIP?
Coronavirus
36
The major source of infection for FIV is
Fighting / bite would
37
Canine distemper virus is caused by
paramyoxvirus
38
Which of the following may not be a sign of rabies in an animal
Diarrhea
39
Canine Parvo is spread by which of the following means
Feces
40
Toxoplasmosis is caused by
Toxoplasma gondii
41
SQ fluids should be avoided in which of the following pts
Dogs with parvo
42
Which of the following vaccines will cause an animal to always test positive for the disease
FIV
43
IN which stage of rabies are humans at the greatest risk of exposure as behavioral changes can make sure animals appear more friendly
Prodromal
44
The definitive hose to toxoplasmosis gondii is
Cat
45
Which of the following diseases can only be diagnosed through testing of teh brain tissue
Rabies
46
What cells does parvo virus infect
Rapidly, dividing cells of the lymphoid system, the intestinal tract, bone marrow, and the myocardium
47
Which of the following is the treatment of choice for rickettsioses
Doxycycline
48
What is the predominant method for transmission of feline immunodeficiency virus in cats
Bite wounds
49
Cats exposed to feline leukemia virus typically respond in any of the following ways except
Becoming infected, appearing ill within 3 days, and dying within a week
50
Kittens should be at least of what age for FIV testing
6 mo
51
Cats shed toxoplasmosis oocytsts for how long after infection
1-2 weeks
52
T/F cats with FIV should be euthanized because of the risk that it possesses for humans
False
53
The brown dog tick is scientifically known as
Rhipicephlaous sanguineus
54
Which of the following is the treatment of choice for RMSF
Doxycycline
55
A vaccinated animal who has bitten a person must be quarantined for how many days to rule out rabies infection at the time of the bite wound
10 days
56
Canine parvo virus can remain viable in the environment for
Greater than 3 years
57
is parvovirus an enveloped or a non-enveloped virus
Non-enveloped
58
T/F hyperkeratosis of foot pads in dogs is commonly associated with canine parvo virus
False
59
Which disease is closely related antigenically to canine parvo virus
Panleukopenia
60
Which of the following contributes to Lyme disease
Borrelia burgdorferi
61
Which of the following is a zoonotic disease
Toxoplasmosis
62
T/F feline leukemia has been reported in humans
False
63
How long does a tick have to attach to transmit B. Burgdorferi
At least 48 hrs
64
To treat permethrin intoxication in pts which drug has been shown to work the best
Methocarbamol
65
Acetaminophen ingestion will lead to
Mathemoglobinnemia
66
Ingestion of Lillies can cause acute _________ and death in cat
Renal failure
67
Which organization is available to call when poisoning is suspected
ASPCA
68
Garlic, leeks, chives and onions contain compounds that will cause
Hemolytic anemia
69
NSAIDs in excessive doses will lead to all of the following except
hemolysis
70
The antidote for castor bean ingestion would be
No antidote
71
Cold water or ice cubes should be administered by mouth or via a stomach tube to dogs that have ingested
Bread dough
72
Common household sources of _______ include: toilet bowl cleaners, drain openers, automobile battery fluid, and pool sanitizers
Acids
73
Which of the following nuts is known to cause hind end paresis in dogs
Macadamia nuts
74
Bromethalin intoxication will cause
Brain edema and seizures
75
T/F cats are roughly 10 times more sensitive to acetaminophen than dogs are
True
76
Cycad palms are noted for causing
Liver failure
77
T/F emesis should rapidly be induces in pts that have a recent history of ingesting products like toilet bowl cleaners
False
78
T/F Penney’s minted prior to 1982 contain copper so there are no concerns for a zinc toxicity
True
79
The active toxicants in chocolate include
Caffeine and theobromine
80
Acetylcysteine is the antidote for which of teh following toxic drugs
Acetaminophen
81
Oleander, lily of the valley or foxglove ingestion will lead to vomiting, diarrhea and cardiac arrhythmias -- the toxic principle would be
Ricin
82
Where does insoluble calcium oxalate produced by plants such as philodendron and peace lilies cause problems when ingested by companion animals?
Mouth
83
When an animal owner phones a veterinary practice expressing concern that the animal might have been poisoned, a veterinary technician should be able to do all of the following without input from the veterinarian except
Call a local pharmacy and place an order for the appropriate antidote
84
Nicotine intoxication can lead to death due to
Respiratory paralysis
85
Which of the following rodenticides causes soft tissue calcification
Cholecalciferol
86
Ethylene glycol ingestion will result in
Renal failure
87
Why is ethanol administered in cases of ethylene glycol toxicity
It decreases toxic metabolite production
88
During pregnancy, what provides the life-support system for the developing fetus
placenta
89
The life support system of the developing fetus is called the _______
placenta
90
Once an ovum is fertilized, it is then called a
zygote
91
what is the gestational period for cats
56-69 days
92
what is the gestational period for dogs
59-68 days
93
consumption of colostrum after birth is important to a neonates health, because:
neonates require the immunoglobulin transfer
94
in which of the following would you find a cotyledonary placental attachment
sheep
95
______ is the term given to the collective changes sperm undergo to help increase the chance of fertilizing an ovum
capacitation
96
what kind of crystals do Dalmatians most likely have
uric acid
97
which of the following can occur if urine samples are not read in a timely manner
destruction of RBC, destruction of casts, increased bacterial growth
98
_______ is the term given to the physical act of breeding
copulation
99
which of the following would cause a high urine specific gravity
dehydration
100
in which of the following would you find a diffuse placental attachment
horse
101
calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals are commonly associated with which of the following
ethelyene glycol toxitcity
102
what is the gestational period for horses
321-346 days
103
a disadvantage of the free catch method of obtaining a urine sample is
contamination from the urethra, from areas around the urethral opening, and from the lower genital tract
104
what portion of sperm undergoes the most change once enterers in the female reproductive tract
acrosome
105
which of the following crystals can you see in alkaline urine
struvite, triple phosphate, magnesium ammonium phosphate
106
the _________ is the structure that allows for the actual exchange of nutrients and waste between fetal and maternal circulation
umbilical cord
107
a urine pH below 7 is
aciduric
108
typically speaking patients with PU/PD will have
low sg
109
which of the following is the most common type of cast seen in a urine sediment examination
granular
110
what part of the cotyledonary placental attachment is found on the uterine lining
caruncle
111
urine with a SG in the range of 1.008 to 1.012 is _____ and indicated that the urine is being neither concentrated nor diluted compared to plasma
isothenuric
112
in which of the following would you find a zonary placental attachment
dog
113
the gestational period for pigs is _________
3 months, 3 weeks, 3 days
114
during development the fetus floats around in the:
amniotic sac
115
once the fertilized ova has reached the uterus it is called a ________ and is ready for implantation
blastocyte
116
when performing a urine sediment evaluation, a finding of increased numbers of leukocytes is an indication of
pyuria
117
uric acid crystals are most commonly found in which of the following breeds
dalmatian
118
which of the following commonly employed methods to collect a urine sample is considered least desirable in order to culture urinary bacteria
collection from cage floor
119
what would be expected to occur regarding blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels and urine sg in a dehydrated pt who has properly functioning kidneys
increased BUN and increased urine SG
120
a ____ is a quick and simple way to measure urine SG
refractometer
121
large amounts of sperm in the urine can give false positive for which of the following tests ona reagent strip
protein
122
which of the following clinic findings is typically due to muscle cell lysis
myoglobinuria
123
collecting a urine sample for bacterial culture should be done before the rest of the urinalysis is performed
to avoid contamination
124
in most species, normal urine should be clear. exceptions are the
horse and rabbit
125
what is the major drawback of collection urine by cystocentesis
blood contamination
126
which of the following is the scientific name of the bladder worm
pearsonema plica
127
the accuracy of the refractometer should be periodically checked by using distilled water, which should show a SG of
1.000
128
Urine containing hemoglobin vs. blood can be differentiated by centrifuging the sample. A spun sample will reveal a red sediment with normal supernatant if _______ is present, while _______ will result in a uniform red sample with the supernatant remaining red
hematuria ; hemoglobinuria
129
Which of the following tests would you see elevated on a chemistry panel in an animal with azotemia
BUN and creatinine
130
Squamous epithelial cells are large polygonal cells with small nuclei. Squamous cells are absent in urine samples collected by
cystocentesis
131
Which of the following crystals is a normal finding in the urine of the horse and rabbit
calcium carbonate crystals
132
Which of the following is the most ideal urine sample for examination
first morning urine
133
When dealing with corrosive substances that have been ingested
Dilute with milk or water
