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Mod 6 > Lab Lecture > Flashcards

Lab Lecture Flashcards

1
Q

how does marked dehydration affect an animals eyes

A

Sunken in the socket

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2
Q

Normal urine production is considered to be

A

1-2 ml/kg/hr

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3
Q

The best choice of fluids for SC administration would be

A

Isotonic fluids

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4
Q

It is important that owners routinely clean the pts fur and skin of urine after expressing the bladder to prevent

A

Urine scalding

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5
Q

When adding medications or electrolytes to a bag of fluids it is important to

A

Record in the medical record, identify who added the meds, identify the additives, time and date when added

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6
Q

T/F A major cross match is performed by mixing the pts plasma with the donors red blood cells

A

True

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7
Q

Of the following fluids which would be considered hypotonic

A

D5W

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8
Q

Which phase of fluid therapy is typically completes as an IV bolus

A

Resuscitation

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9
Q

Which of the following fluid types is used primarily to rapidly bring volume into the intravascular space

A

Hypertonic crystalloid

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10
Q

T/F an elevated PCV/TP is commonly associated with over hydration

A

False

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11
Q

Normosol-R

A

Isotonic crystalloid

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12
Q

3% NaCl

A

hypertonic crystalloid

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13
Q

Hetastarch

A

synthetic colloid

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14
Q

Whole blood

A

Natural colloid

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15
Q

0.45% NaCl

A

Hypotonic crystalloid

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16
Q

D5W

A

Hypotonic crystalloid

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17
Q

0.9% NaCl

A

Isotonic crystalloid

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18
Q

LRS

A

Isotonic crystalloid

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19
Q

7% NaCl

A

hypertonic crystalloid

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20
Q

Plasma

A

Natural colloid

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21
Q

Cryoprecipitate

A

synthetic colloid

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22
Q

Plasmalyte - 140

A

Isotonic crystalloid

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23
Q

T/F colloids tent to stay in the vascular space therefore they are well suited for patients in need of volume expansion and resuscitation

A

True

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24
Q

Which of the following fluid types is primarily used to promote movement from the intravascular space into the tissues

A

hypotonic crystalloids

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25
Q

Symptoms of fluid overload include all of the following except

A

Thick, mucoid nasal discharge

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26
Q

Examples of synthetic colloids include ______ and _______

A

hetastarch and oxyglobin

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27
Q

Sensible losses include all of the following except
Perspiration
Urine
Vomit
Diarrhea

A

Perspiration

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28
Q

Which of the following is the least effective method for delivering fluids to a 12% dehydrated pt

A

Subcutaneous

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29
Q

Which of the following pieces of advice given to owners about administering subcutaneous fluids to their pet at home is the least accurate

A

sudden changes in the animals urinary habits can be indicative of fluid overload

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30
Q

What virus is associated with FIV infection

A

Lentivirus

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31
Q

FIP has 2 different forms, which form occurs most often

A

Effusive

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32
Q

Which of the following is the treatment of choice for toxoplasmosis

A

Clindamycin

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33
Q

Which of the following tick-borne diseases casues a dermal rash around the bite would that resembles a target

A

lyme

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34
Q

T/F when a patient dies from rabies it is due to neuron damage in the brain

A

False

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35
Q

What does a cat have to be exposed to in order to contract FIP?

A

Coronavirus

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36
Q

The major source of infection for FIV is

A

Fighting / bite would

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37
Q

Canine distemper virus is caused by

A

paramyoxvirus

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38
Q

Which of the following may not be a sign of rabies in an animal

A

Diarrhea

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39
Q

Canine Parvo is spread by which of the following means

A

Feces

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40
Q

Toxoplasmosis is caused by

A

Toxoplasma gondii

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41
Q

SQ fluids should be avoided in which of the following pts

A

Dogs with parvo

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42
Q

Which of the following vaccines will cause an animal to always test positive for the disease

A

FIV

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43
Q

IN which stage of rabies are humans at the greatest risk of exposure as behavioral changes can make sure animals appear more friendly

A

Prodromal

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44
Q

The definitive hose to toxoplasmosis gondii is

A

Cat

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45
Q

Which of the following diseases can only be diagnosed through testing of teh brain tissue

A

Rabies

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46
Q

What cells does parvo virus infect

A

Rapidly, dividing cells of the lymphoid system, the intestinal tract, bone marrow, and the myocardium

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47
Q

Which of the following is the treatment of choice for rickettsioses

A

Doxycycline

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48
Q

What is the predominant method for transmission of feline immunodeficiency virus in cats

A

Bite wounds

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49
Q

Cats exposed to feline leukemia virus typically respond in any of the following ways except

A

Becoming infected, appearing ill within 3 days, and dying within a week

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50
Q

Kittens should be at least of what age for FIV testing

A

6 mo

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51
Q

Cats shed toxoplasmosis oocytsts for how long after infection

A

1-2 weeks

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52
Q

T/F cats with FIV should be euthanized because of the risk that it possesses for humans

A

False

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53
Q

The brown dog tick is scientifically known as

A

Rhipicephlaous sanguineus

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54
Q

Which of the following is the treatment of choice for RMSF

A

Doxycycline

55
Q

A vaccinated animal who has bitten a person must be quarantined for how many days to rule out rabies infection at the time of the bite wound

A

10 days

56
Q

Canine parvo virus can remain viable in the environment for

A

Greater than 3 years

57
Q

is parvovirus an enveloped or a non-enveloped virus

A

Non-enveloped

58
Q

T/F hyperkeratosis of foot pads in dogs is commonly associated with canine parvo virus

A

False

59
Q

Which disease is closely related antigenically to canine parvo virus

A

Panleukopenia

60
Q

Which of the following contributes to Lyme disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

61
Q

Which of the following is a zoonotic disease

A

Toxoplasmosis

62
Q

T/F feline leukemia has been reported in humans

A

False

63
Q

How long does a tick have to attach to transmit B. Burgdorferi

A

At least 48 hrs

64
Q

To treat permethrin intoxication in pts which drug has been shown to work the best

A

Methocarbamol

65
Q

Acetaminophen ingestion will lead to

A

Mathemoglobinnemia

66
Q

Ingestion of Lillies can cause acute _________ and death in cat

A

Renal failure

67
Q

Which organization is available to call when poisoning is suspected

A

ASPCA

68
Q

Garlic, leeks, chives and onions contain compounds that will cause

A

Hemolytic anemia

69
Q

NSAIDs in excessive doses will lead to all of the following except

A

hemolysis

70
Q

The antidote for castor bean ingestion would be

A

No antidote

71
Q

Cold water or ice cubes should be administered by mouth or via a stomach tube to dogs that have ingested

A

Bread dough

72
Q

Common household sources of _______ include: toilet bowl cleaners, drain openers, automobile battery fluid, and pool sanitizers

A

Acids

73
Q

Which of the following nuts is known to cause hind end paresis in dogs

A

Macadamia nuts

74
Q

Bromethalin intoxication will cause

A

Brain edema and seizures

75
Q

T/F cats are roughly 10 times more sensitive to acetaminophen than dogs are

A

True

76
Q

Cycad palms are noted for causing

A

Liver failure

77
Q

T/F emesis should rapidly be induces in pts that have a recent history of ingesting products like toilet bowl cleaners

A

False

78
Q

T/F Penney’s minted prior to 1982 contain copper so there are no concerns for a zinc toxicity

A

True

79
Q

The active toxicants in chocolate include

A

Caffeine and theobromine

80
Q

Acetylcysteine is the antidote for which of teh following toxic drugs

A

Acetaminophen

81
Q

Oleander, lily of the valley or foxglove ingestion will lead to vomiting, diarrhea and cardiac arrhythmias – the toxic principle would be

A

Ricin

82
Q

Where does insoluble calcium oxalate produced by plants such as philodendron and peace lilies cause problems when ingested by companion animals?

A

Mouth

83
Q

When an animal owner phones a veterinary practice expressing concern that the animal might have been poisoned, a veterinary technician should be able to do all of the following without input from the veterinarian except

A

Call a local pharmacy and place an order for the appropriate antidote

84
Q

Nicotine intoxication can lead to death due to

A

Respiratory paralysis

85
Q

Which of the following rodenticides causes soft tissue calcification

A

Cholecalciferol

86
Q

Ethylene glycol ingestion will result in

A

Renal failure

87
Q

Why is ethanol administered in cases of ethylene glycol toxicity

A

It decreases toxic metabolite production

88
Q

During pregnancy, what provides the life-support system for the developing fetus

A

placenta

89
Q

The life support system of the developing fetus is called the _______

A

placenta

90
Q

Once an ovum is fertilized, it is then called a

A

zygote

91
Q

what is the gestational period for cats

A

56-69 days

92
Q

what is the gestational period for dogs

A

59-68 days

93
Q

consumption of colostrum after birth is important to a neonates health, because:

A

neonates require the immunoglobulin transfer

94
Q

in which of the following would you find a cotyledonary placental attachment

A

sheep

95
Q

______ is the term given to the collective changes sperm undergo to help increase the chance of fertilizing an ovum

A

capacitation

96
Q

what kind of crystals do Dalmatians most likely have

A

uric acid

97
Q

which of the following can occur if urine samples are not read in a timely manner

A

destruction of RBC, destruction of casts, increased bacterial growth

98
Q

_______ is the term given to the physical act of breeding

A

copulation

99
Q

which of the following would cause a high urine specific gravity

A

dehydration

100
Q

in which of the following would you find a diffuse placental attachment

A

horse

101
Q

calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals are commonly associated with which of the following

A

ethelyene glycol toxitcity

102
Q

what is the gestational period for horses

A

321-346 days

103
Q

a disadvantage of the free catch method of obtaining a urine sample is

A

contamination from the urethra, from areas around the urethral opening, and from the lower genital tract

104
Q

what portion of sperm undergoes the most change once enterers in the female reproductive tract

A

acrosome

105
Q

which of the following crystals can you see in alkaline urine

A

struvite, triple phosphate, magnesium ammonium phosphate

106
Q

the _________ is the structure that allows for the actual exchange of nutrients and waste between fetal and maternal circulation

A

umbilical cord

107
Q

a urine pH below 7 is

A

aciduric

108
Q

typically speaking patients with PU/PD will have

A

low sg

109
Q

which of the following is the most common type of cast seen in a urine sediment examination

A

granular

110
Q

what part of the cotyledonary placental attachment is found on the uterine lining

A

caruncle

111
Q

urine with a SG in the range of 1.008 to 1.012 is _____ and indicated that the urine is being neither concentrated nor diluted compared to plasma

A

isothenuric

112
Q

in which of the following would you find a zonary placental attachment

A

dog

113
Q

the gestational period for pigs is _________

A

3 months, 3 weeks, 3 days

114
Q

during development the fetus floats around in the:

A

amniotic sac

115
Q

once the fertilized ova has reached the uterus it is called a ________ and is ready for implantation

A

blastocyte

116
Q

when performing a urine sediment evaluation, a finding of increased numbers of leukocytes is an indication of

A

pyuria

117
Q

uric acid crystals are most commonly found in which of the following breeds

A

dalmatian

118
Q

which of the following commonly employed methods to collect a urine sample is considered least desirable in order to culture urinary bacteria

A

collection from cage floor

119
Q

what would be expected to occur regarding blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels and urine sg in a dehydrated pt who has properly functioning kidneys

A

increased BUN and increased urine SG

120
Q

a ____ is a quick and simple way to measure urine SG

A

refractometer

121
Q

large amounts of sperm in the urine can give false positive for which of the following tests ona reagent strip

A

protein

122
Q

which of the following clinic findings is typically due to muscle cell lysis

A

myoglobinuria

123
Q

collecting a urine sample for bacterial culture should be done before the rest of the urinalysis is performed

A

to avoid contamination

124
Q

in most species, normal urine should be clear. exceptions are the

A

horse and rabbit

125
Q

what is the major drawback of collection urine by cystocentesis

A

blood contamination

126
Q

which of the following is the scientific name of the bladder worm

A

pearsonema plica

127
Q

the accuracy of the refractometer should be periodically checked by using distilled water, which should show a SG of

A

1.000

128
Q

Urine containing hemoglobin vs. blood can be differentiated by centrifuging the sample. A spun sample will reveal a red sediment with normal supernatant if _______ is present, while _______ will result in a uniform red sample with the supernatant remaining red

A

hematuria ; hemoglobinuria

129
Q

Which of the following tests would you see elevated on a chemistry panel in an animal with azotemia

A

BUN and creatinine

130
Q

Squamous epithelial cells are large polygonal cells with small nuclei. Squamous cells are absent in urine samples collected by

A

cystocentesis

131
Q

Which of the following crystals is a normal finding in the urine of the horse and rabbit

A

calcium carbonate crystals

132
Q

Which of the following is the most ideal urine sample for examination

A

first morning urine

133
Q

When dealing with corrosive substances that have been ingested

A

Dilute with milk or water

Mod 6 (6 decks)

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