Disease Exams Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is considered to be a chrondrodystrophic breed?

A

dachshund, munchkin cat, corgi

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2
Q

Schiff-Sherrington posture is commonly associated with what neurological disorder?

A

Trauma

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3
Q

How many RBC would you expect to see per mL of normal CSF

A

0

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4
Q

What ticks are associated with tick paralysis

A

Dermacentor variablis and Dermacentor andersoni

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5
Q

Megaesophagus can be linked to which of the following

A

lead poisoning, tick paralysis, addisons dz

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6
Q

A 3 year old dog presents to your clinic a history of weight loss and regurgitation. The owner states the pet is regurgitating after every meal, as well as after drinking water. Your DVM asks you to obtain chest radiographs because he’s concerned the dog may have:

A

Megaesophagus

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7
Q

A 1.5 year old Great Dane present with a “wobbly” gate, progressive hind limb ataxia, and atrophy of the scapular muscles. The DVM recommends cervical disc replacement as an option to treat this dogs _____

A

Cervical spondylomyelopathy

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8
Q

Which of the following statements about deafness is false

A

It is not considered to be hereditary nor is it ever a congenital disease

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9
Q

How should a patient with a potential spinal injury be transported to the hospital

A

Lying on a flat board

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10
Q

What is the most common spinal cord injury

A

IVDD

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11
Q

A _____ seizure involves increased muscular righty, and a ______ seizure involves rhythmic jerking movement

A

Tonic ; Clonic

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12
Q

Anisocoria can be defined as:

A

Pupils of unequal size

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13
Q

Which of the following pts would you expect to see vestibular disease occur in

A

9 year old lab

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14
Q

Which of the following would contribute to geriatric vestibular syndrome

A

Otitis media

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15
Q

A ______ seizure is considered a “grans meal” seizure and involve all of the body and a ____ seizure tends to appear as muscle movement of one limb or area of the body and the animal tends to remain conscious

A

Generalized ; focal

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16
Q

This disease occurs when bacteria or fungi implant in the bones of the vertebrae and causes destruction or lysis of the vertebral end plates that can be seen on radiographs

A

Discospondylitis

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17
Q

A 4-year old German Shorthair Pointer presents to your clinic with weight loss, fever, reluctance to move, and pain during palpation of the spine. Her owner informs you that she’s a hunting dog, and recently recovered from a grass awn abcess over her scapula. What is her most likely diagnosis?

A

Discospondylitis

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18
Q

Which of the following options is recommended for the nursing care of a pt with head trauma

A

Provide adequate analgesia and oxygen therapy

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19
Q

This syndrome is due to a dysfunction of the sympathetic nerves of the eyes and surrounding facial muscles and may be associated with FCE pts

A

Horners

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20
Q

which of the following is described as ataxia and paresis resulting from spondylosis of the vertebrae

A

Wobbler syndrome

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21
Q

A chondrodystrophic dog comes into the clinic exhibiting signs of hindlimb paresis after jumping off the bed. Due to his breed alone, you suspect he has.

A

IVDD

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22
Q

Which of the following conditions matches a patient exhibing a head tilt, facial paresis, nystagmus, positional strabismus, and ataxia

A

vestibular syndrome

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23
Q

A 7-month old toy poodle presents to your clinic with tetraparesis. The owner informs you that the puppy doesn’t like being patted on the head, and it often seems like the dog’s neck is painful. Cervical radiographs would most likely show:

A

Atlantoaxial subluxation

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24
Q

A 3-year old MC DSH presents to your clinic with blood coming out of his mouth and one ear. The cat is lethargic to stuporous, and you notice anisocoria. The owner informs you that he is mostly an outdoor cat, and they have no idea what happened…they just found him that way. Without any diagnostics, you’re concerned this cat is suffering from:

A

Head trauma

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25
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that can be given to pts to help with which of the following problems
Intracranial pressure
26
A 7 year old German Shepherd presents to your clinic with a history of progressive ataxia and paresis of the hind limbs. The owner became concerned when her dog could not defecate without falling over. Based on signalment and clinical signs, this dog is most likely suffering from:
Degenerative myelopathy
27
Which of the following may be mistaken for seizures
Syncope, feline estrus, vestibular disease
28
Polyradiculoneuritis is also known as
Coonhound paralysis
29
Which of the following is a heredity condition
megaesophagus?
30
Typically, coonhound paralysis is transmitted via
Raccoon bite
31
Tick paralysis and coonhound paralysis commonly cause
Ascending paralysis
32
What is the purpose of a Bailey chair
To keep an animal with Megaesophagus upright during feedings
33
A hemilaminectomy would be performed on a dog with
IVDD
34
Which of the following statements about brucellosis is true
It is a causative agent of Discospondylitis
35
During a Cushing reflex/response, what changes in your pts HR and BP would occur
Decreased HE, and Increased BP
36
Which is the correct order of changes in mentation from best to worse
Quiet, obtunded, stuporous, comatose
37
T/F usually, once a male recovers from an episode of FLUTD, its in the clear and changes of reoccurrence are unlikely
False
38
Which of the following is the correct term for increased blood potassium levels
Hyperkalemia
39
Which of the following statements about FLUTD is false
Most common cause of FLUTD is bacterial infection
40
Goals of the medical management of chronic renal disease include all of the following except
restoring loss of kidney function
41
Loss of voluntary control of mucturition is also known as:
Incontinence
42
T/F Most cases of FLUTD are considered a “sterile” cystitis, meaning there is no bacterial infection
True
43
Which best describes micturition
normal urination
44
Currently the recommended treatment for cats with FIC include
Stress reduction, nutritional management, environmental change
45
Pts with renal disease should be fed diets that are _______ in protein
Low
46
What does FIC stand for
Feline idiopathic cystitis
47
Diets high in animal protein may predispose the dog to what type of bladder stone
Oxalate
48
To evaluate urine for crystalluria
Urinalysis should be performed within 30 minutes of collection
49
Which of the following uroliths is radiolucent
urate
50
The most common type of urolith found in cats is a
Struvite
51
Which of the following is not a possible cause of urinary incontinence
Ectopic ureters, neurological diseases (IVDD), estrogen deficiency
52
Common signs of bacterial infections of the urinary tract include hematuria, pollakiura, urinatigng in inappropriate places, and which of the following
Dysuria
53
What is the preferred treatment for benign prostate hyperplasia
Castration
54
What finding on a CBC might an animal with chronic renal failure have
Anemia
55
What 2 lab results would be elevated in an animal that is azotemic
BUN ; Creatinine
56
Which of the following conditions can cause prerenal uremia
dehydration, shock, CHF
57
Dissolution of uroliths is a common treatment of any animal with ______ uroliths
Struvite
58
Normal urine output for a canine or feline pt is:
1-2mL/kg/hr
59
Which of the following treatments is contraindicated in an animal with a urinary obstruction
Manual expression of the bladder
60
Which of the following would not be a cause of acute renal failure
old age
61
Which of the following is not a cause for acute renal failure
Congenital disease
62
Estrogen related urinary incontinence is more commonly seen in which of the following
Spayed females and intact males
63
T/F chronic renal failure is curable disease
False
64
Which of the following diets can be given short term to patients to helps rapidly dissolve crystals
Hills s/d
65
which of the following statement is true of urinary catheterization
The catheter must be placed and handled aseptically
66
A blaster stone greater than 15cm is most likely a:
Struvite
67
Lower urinary tract infections can be caused by a variety of bacteria; the most common pathogen in small animals is Escherichia coli. Which of the following statements is true?
Bacterial infections of the bladder are common in the dog and rare in a healthy cat
68
Litter box management of cats with FLUTD includes
Having one litter box per cat, plus one
69
Roughly what percentage of blood pumped by the heart goes directly to the kidneys
25%
70
When pressure of the ______ is greater than that of the urethra incontinence can occur
Bladder
71
Urinary catheter types has a ballon on the distal end that can be filled similar to an ET tube to help hold it in place
Foley
72
Absence of urination
Anuria
73
Straining to urinate
Stranguria
74
Difficult urination
Dysuria
75
Frank blood in urine or pink-tinged urine
Hematuria
76
Frequent, small amounts of urination
Pollakiruria
77
Which of the following is a septic inflammation of the mammary gland
Mastitis
78
Which of the following is not a cause for gestational fetal death
Infectious tracheobronchitis
79
Viral vaginitis is typically associated with which of the following diseases
canine herpesvirus
80
Which of the following is not a cause of dystocia
Mastitis
81
Inappropriate maternal behavior is described as which of the following
Restlessness, constant neonatal crying, attacking/killing her young
82
Prostatic disease is more common in which of the following
Intact male dogs
83
Which of the following is the correct term for what is commonly called a “spay”
Ovariohysterectomy
84
How early can fetal skeletons be detected on radiographs
45 days
85
T/F castration is teh treatment of choice for testicular tumors
True
86
What is the preferred treatment of eclampsia
Calcium gluconate
87
T/F if more than 60 mins elapses between the production of a puppy during labor intervention should begin
True
88
The typical gestation period for dogs is
2 months
89
T/F bitches with inappropriate maternal behavior can be sued for breeding again as she will most likely calm down the future litters
False
90
Which of the following is a fairly common condition of prepubital bitches that can present as vulvar discharge with no evidence of a UTI
Vaginitis
91
Which of the following is the best treatment option for pts with prostatitis
Antibiotic therapy
92
Eclampsia is associated with which of the following conditions
Hypocalemia
93
A condition that is characterized by behavioral changes and the accumulation of fluid in the uterus and one or more corpus ultra in the ovaries is known as:
Pseudopregnancy
94
T/F penile tumors can be a common find in male intact dogs
False
95
Which of teh following is the most common bacterial cause of prostatitis
E. Coli
96
T/F all neoplasia of the prostate are malignant
True
97
Which of the following describes a pt suffering form dystocia
Hard labor for 30-60 mins with no new young
98
T/F puppies can still nurse from a bitch with mastitis, they should just use the non-affected nipple
True
99
Which of teh following is the correct term for a lack of milk production
Agalactia
100
Which of the following describes a pt suffering from a pyometra
Vaginal discharge, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, anorexia, polyuria, polydipsia
101
T/F a female dog can have both benign and malignant mammary tumors at the same time
True
102
T/F a normal sized urterus should be visiblee on a radiograph
False
103
Vaginal tumors are more common in cats than dogs
False
104
Roughly what percentage of feline mammary tumors are malignant
85%
105
Which of the following is the correct definition for tenemus
ineffective defecation
106
T/F pyometra can occur as either “open” or “closed”
True
107
Laryngitis
Upper respiratory tract
108
Kennel cough
Lower respiratory tract
109
Feline asthma
Lower respiratory tract
110
Laryngeal paralysis
Upper respiratory tract
111
Pneumonia
Lower respiratory tract
112
Feline herpesvirus
Upper resp tract
113
Blastomycosis
Lower resp tract
114
Rhinitis
Upper respiratory tract
115
Which respiratory disease would most likely produce crackles on auscultation
pneumonia
116
A five year old hunting dog from the Mississippi river valley has an exudative, serosanguineous wound that is nonresponsive to antibiotics and corticosteroid treatment. This should alert the clinician to the possibility of what type of problem?
Fungal
117
Which of the following terms is used to describe a high-pitched, discontinuous inspiratory sound associated with the reopening of airways that closed during expiration?
crackle
118
Which of the following is the most important first step when a dyspneic patient presents to the veterinary hospital?
Stabilize the pt before performing any diagnostic tests
119
Hypoxemia is defines as:
Low blood oxygen levels
120
Which of these is not a typical clinical sign associated with upper respiratory tract disease
Coughing
121
If the carbon dioxide level in the blood decreases, the pH usually ______ and respiration _______
rises ; decreases
122
Which of the following is a technique used to help loosen purple t material within the pulmonary system
Coupage
123
Brachycephalic airway syndrome includes
Stenotic nares and elongated soft palate
124
A chest tube is placed when an animal has:
pneumothorax
125
Which of the following are abnormal lung sounds heard in the asthmatic feline pt on auscultation of the lower respiratory system
wheezes
126
A collection of blood in the cranial portion of the ventral cavity is known as:
Hemothroax
127
Clear fluid removed from the thoracic cavity is known as:
pleural effusion
128
If you were to perform a BAL on an asthmatic pt. Which white blood cell would you expect to find an elevated number or
Eosinophil
129
Coupage is contraindicated pts that have
Fractured ribs
130
2 most common feline viral respiratory infections are
Herpesvirus and calicivirus
131
Which of the following breeds are you most likely to see laryngeal paralysis in
Lab
132
If you are going to got take radiographs on a pt to look for respiratory disease how many views should be taken
3
133
Tension pneumothorax occurs when pressure in the thoracic cavity is
greater than atmospheric pressure
134
Conditions that may induce a coughing reflex include all of the following except
Intestinal foreign body
135
Which of the following is an acceptable method of making food more palatable to the pet
Warming the food
136
Term for air in the thoracic cavity
Pneumothorax
137
Infection that causes lung inflammation
Pneumonia
138
Cloudy fluid in the thoracic cavity that can be white to pink/purple
Chylothorax
139
Excess fluid in the lungs
Pulmonary edema
140
General term for fluid in the thoracic cavity
Pleural effusion
141
Purple t fluid in the thoracic cavity
Prothorax
142
Blood in the thoracic cavity
Hemothorax
143
The most common systemic mycotic disease in cats caused by
Cryptococcus
144
What is the most systemic mycosis in the cat
Cryptococcosis
145
Which of the following is the cause for infectious canine tracheobronchitis
all options are correct - reovirus, canine adenovirus, bordetella bronchiseptica
146
Blastomycosis, coccidiomycosis, and histoplasmosis are all types of ______ disease seen in dogs and cats
Fungal
147
Collapsing trachea is most often seen in
Yorkshire terrier
148
To perform Coupage, cupped hand should be used to tap firmly on the chest wall starting
Caudally and working forward
149
Which of the following is not a fungal disease of the respiratory tract
Mycoplasma
150
Asthma most commonly affects which species
Feline
151
Most common route of infection for mycotic disease is
Inhalation
152
Which of the following is likely a cause for feline asthma
chronic airway inflammation and allergies
153
Which fungal infection resides predominantly in the nasal passages of the dog and eats away at the nasal turbinates
Aspergillosis
154
Which of the following are you most likely to see chylothorax in
domestic shorthair
155
Which of the following diseases exhibit coughing, fever, and mucopurulent nasal and ocular discharge
canine distemper
156
Which feline viral respiratory infection is highly resistant to disinfectants and can live in the environment for several days
Calicivirus