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Mod 6 > Disease Exams > Flashcards

Disease Exams Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is considered to be a chrondrodystrophic breed?

A

dachshund, munchkin cat, corgi

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2
Q

Schiff-Sherrington posture is commonly associated with what neurological disorder?

A

Trauma

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3
Q

How many RBC would you expect to see per mL of normal CSF

A

0

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4
Q

What ticks are associated with tick paralysis

A

Dermacentor variablis and Dermacentor andersoni

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5
Q

Megaesophagus can be linked to which of the following

A

lead poisoning, tick paralysis, addisons dz

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6
Q

A 3 year old dog presents to your clinic a history of weight loss and regurgitation. The owner states the pet is regurgitating after every meal, as well as after drinking water. Your DVM asks you to obtain chest radiographs because he’s concerned the dog may have:

A

Megaesophagus

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7
Q

A 1.5 year old Great Dane present with a “wobbly” gate, progressive hind limb ataxia, and atrophy of the scapular muscles. The DVM recommends cervical disc replacement as an option to treat this dogs _____

A

Cervical spondylomyelopathy

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8
Q

Which of the following statements about deafness is false

A

It is not considered to be hereditary nor is it ever a congenital disease

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9
Q

How should a patient with a potential spinal injury be transported to the hospital

A

Lying on a flat board

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10
Q

What is the most common spinal cord injury

A

IVDD

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11
Q

A _____ seizure involves increased muscular righty, and a ______ seizure involves rhythmic jerking movement

A

Tonic ; Clonic

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12
Q

Anisocoria can be defined as:

A

Pupils of unequal size

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13
Q

Which of the following pts would you expect to see vestibular disease occur in

A

9 year old lab

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14
Q

Which of the following would contribute to geriatric vestibular syndrome

A

Otitis media

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15
Q

A ______ seizure is considered a “grans meal” seizure and involve all of the body and a ____ seizure tends to appear as muscle movement of one limb or area of the body and the animal tends to remain conscious

A

Generalized ; focal

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16
Q

This disease occurs when bacteria or fungi implant in the bones of the vertebrae and causes destruction or lysis of the vertebral end plates that can be seen on radiographs

A

Discospondylitis

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17
Q

A 4-year old German Shorthair Pointer presents to your clinic with weight loss, fever, reluctance to move, and pain during palpation of the spine. Her owner informs you that she’s a hunting dog, and recently recovered from a grass awn abcess over her scapula. What is her most likely diagnosis?

A

Discospondylitis

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18
Q

Which of the following options is recommended for the nursing care of a pt with head trauma

A

Provide adequate analgesia and oxygen therapy

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19
Q

This syndrome is due to a dysfunction of the sympathetic nerves of the eyes and surrounding facial muscles and may be associated with FCE pts

A

Horners

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20
Q

which of the following is described as ataxia and paresis resulting from spondylosis of the vertebrae

A

Wobbler syndrome

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21
Q

A chondrodystrophic dog comes into the clinic exhibiting signs of hindlimb paresis after jumping off the bed. Due to his breed alone, you suspect he has.

A

IVDD

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22
Q

Which of the following conditions matches a patient exhibing a head tilt, facial paresis, nystagmus, positional strabismus, and ataxia

A

vestibular syndrome

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23
Q

A 7-month old toy poodle presents to your clinic with tetraparesis. The owner informs you that the puppy doesn’t like being patted on the head, and it often seems like the dog’s neck is painful. Cervical radiographs would most likely show:

A

Atlantoaxial subluxation

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24
Q

A 3-year old MC DSH presents to your clinic with blood coming out of his mouth and one ear. The cat is lethargic to stuporous, and you notice anisocoria. The owner informs you that he is mostly an outdoor cat, and they have no idea what happened…they just found him that way. Without any diagnostics, you’re concerned this cat is suffering from:

A

Head trauma

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25
Q

Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that can be given to pts to help with which of the following problems

A

Intracranial pressure

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26
Q

A 7 year old German Shepherd presents to your clinic with a history of progressive ataxia and paresis of the hind limbs. The owner became concerned when her dog could not defecate without falling over. Based on signalment and clinical signs, this dog is most likely suffering from:

A

Degenerative myelopathy

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27
Q

Which of the following may be mistaken for seizures

A

Syncope, feline estrus, vestibular disease

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28
Q

Polyradiculoneuritis is also known as

A

Coonhound paralysis

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29
Q

Which of the following is a heredity condition

A

megaesophagus?

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30
Q

Typically, coonhound paralysis is transmitted via

A

Raccoon bite

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31
Q

Tick paralysis and coonhound paralysis commonly cause

A

Ascending paralysis

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32
Q

What is the purpose of a Bailey chair

A

To keep an animal with Megaesophagus upright during feedings

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33
Q

A hemilaminectomy would be performed on a dog with

A

IVDD

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34
Q

Which of the following statements about brucellosis is true

A

It is a causative agent of Discospondylitis

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35
Q

During a Cushing reflex/response, what changes in your pts HR and BP would occur

A

Decreased HE, and Increased BP

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36
Q

Which is the correct order of changes in mentation from best to worse

A

Quiet, obtunded, stuporous, comatose

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37
Q

T/F usually, once a male recovers from an episode of FLUTD, its in the clear and changes of reoccurrence are unlikely

A

False

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38
Q

Which of the following is the correct term for increased blood potassium levels

A

Hyperkalemia

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39
Q

Which of the following statements about FLUTD is false

A

Most common cause of FLUTD is bacterial infection

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40
Q

Goals of the medical management of chronic renal disease include all of the following except

A

restoring loss of kidney function

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41
Q

Loss of voluntary control of mucturition is also known as:

A

Incontinence

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42
Q

T/F Most cases of FLUTD are considered a “sterile” cystitis, meaning there is no bacterial infection

A

True

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43
Q

Which best describes micturition

A

normal urination

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44
Q

Currently the recommended treatment for cats with FIC include

A

Stress reduction, nutritional management, environmental change

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45
Q

Pts with renal disease should be fed diets that are _______ in protein

A

Low

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46
Q

What does FIC stand for

A

Feline idiopathic cystitis

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47
Q

Diets high in animal protein may predispose the dog to what type of bladder stone

A

Oxalate

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48
Q

To evaluate urine for crystalluria

A

Urinalysis should be performed within 30 minutes of collection

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49
Q

Which of the following uroliths is radiolucent

A

urate

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50
Q

The most common type of urolith found in cats is a

A

Struvite

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51
Q

Which of the following is not a possible cause of urinary incontinence

A

Ectopic ureters, neurological diseases (IVDD), estrogen deficiency

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52
Q

Common signs of bacterial infections of the urinary tract include hematuria, pollakiura, urinatigng in inappropriate places, and which of the following

A

Dysuria

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53
Q

What is the preferred treatment for benign prostate hyperplasia

A

Castration

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54
Q

What finding on a CBC might an animal with chronic renal failure have

A

Anemia

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55
Q

What 2 lab results would be elevated in an animal that is azotemic

A

BUN ; Creatinine

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56
Q

Which of the following conditions can cause prerenal uremia

A

dehydration, shock, CHF

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57
Q

Dissolution of uroliths is a common treatment of any animal with ______ uroliths

A

Struvite

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58
Q

Normal urine output for a canine or feline pt is:

A

1-2mL/kg/hr

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59
Q

Which of the following treatments is contraindicated in an animal with a urinary obstruction

A

Manual expression of the bladder

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60
Q

Which of the following would not be a cause of acute renal failure

A

old age

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61
Q

Which of the following is not a cause for acute renal failure

A

Congenital disease

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62
Q

Estrogen related urinary incontinence is more commonly seen in which of the following

A

Spayed females and intact males

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63
Q

T/F chronic renal failure is curable disease

A

False

64
Q

Which of the following diets can be given short term to patients to helps rapidly dissolve crystals

A

Hills s/d

65
Q

which of the following statement is true of urinary catheterization

A

The catheter must be placed and handled aseptically

66
Q

A blaster stone greater than 15cm is most likely a:

A

Struvite

67
Q

Lower urinary tract infections can be caused by a variety of bacteria; the most common pathogen in small animals is Escherichia coli. Which of the following statements is true?

A

Bacterial infections of the bladder are common in the dog and rare in a healthy cat

68
Q

Litter box management of cats with FLUTD includes

A

Having one litter box per cat, plus one

69
Q

Roughly what percentage of blood pumped by the heart goes directly to the kidneys

A

25%

70
Q

When pressure of the ______ is greater than that of the urethra incontinence can occur

A

Bladder

71
Q

Urinary catheter types has a ballon on the distal end that can be filled similar to an ET tube to help hold it in place

A

Foley

72
Q

Absence of urination

A

Anuria

73
Q

Straining to urinate

A

Stranguria

74
Q

Difficult urination

A

Dysuria

75
Q

Frank blood in urine or pink-tinged urine

A

Hematuria

76
Q

Frequent, small amounts of urination

A

Pollakiruria

77
Q

Which of the following is a septic inflammation of the mammary gland

A

Mastitis

78
Q

Which of the following is not a cause for gestational fetal death

A

Infectious tracheobronchitis

79
Q

Viral vaginitis is typically associated with which of the following diseases

A

canine herpesvirus

80
Q

Which of the following is not a cause of dystocia

A

Mastitis

81
Q

Inappropriate maternal behavior is described as which of the following

A

Restlessness, constant neonatal crying, attacking/killing her young

82
Q

Prostatic disease is more common in which of the following

A

Intact male dogs

83
Q

Which of the following is the correct term for what is commonly called a “spay”

A

Ovariohysterectomy

84
Q

How early can fetal skeletons be detected on radiographs

A

45 days

85
Q

T/F castration is teh treatment of choice for testicular tumors

A

True

86
Q

What is the preferred treatment of eclampsia

A

Calcium gluconate

87
Q

T/F if more than 60 mins elapses between the production of a puppy during labor intervention should begin

A

True

88
Q

The typical gestation period for dogs is

A

2 months

89
Q

T/F bitches with inappropriate maternal behavior can be sued for breeding again as she will most likely calm down the future litters

A

False

90
Q

Which of the following is a fairly common condition of prepubital bitches that can present as vulvar discharge with no evidence of a UTI

A

Vaginitis

91
Q

Which of the following is the best treatment option for pts with prostatitis

A

Antibiotic therapy

92
Q

Eclampsia is associated with which of the following conditions

A

Hypocalemia

93
Q

A condition that is characterized by behavioral changes and the accumulation of fluid in the uterus and one or more corpus ultra in the ovaries is known as:

A

Pseudopregnancy

94
Q

T/F penile tumors can be a common find in male intact dogs

A

False

95
Q

Which of teh following is the most common bacterial cause of prostatitis

A

E. Coli

96
Q

T/F all neoplasia of the prostate are malignant

A

True

97
Q

Which of the following describes a pt suffering form dystocia

A

Hard labor for 30-60 mins with no new young

98
Q

T/F puppies can still nurse from a bitch with mastitis, they should just use the non-affected nipple

A

True

99
Q

Which of teh following is the correct term for a lack of milk production

A

Agalactia

100
Q

Which of the following describes a pt suffering from a pyometra

A

Vaginal discharge, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, anorexia, polyuria, polydipsia

101
Q

T/F a female dog can have both benign and malignant mammary tumors at the same time

A

True

102
Q

T/F a normal sized urterus should be visiblee on a radiograph

A

False

103
Q

Vaginal tumors are more common in cats than dogs

A

False

104
Q

Roughly what percentage of feline mammary tumors are malignant

A

85%

105
Q

Which of the following is the correct definition for tenemus

A

ineffective defecation

106
Q

T/F pyometra can occur as either “open” or “closed”

A

True

107
Q

Laryngitis

A

Upper respiratory tract

108
Q

Kennel cough

A

Lower respiratory tract

109
Q

Feline asthma

A

Lower respiratory tract

110
Q

Laryngeal paralysis

A

Upper respiratory tract

111
Q

Pneumonia

A

Lower respiratory tract

112
Q

Feline herpesvirus

A

Upper resp tract

113
Q

Blastomycosis

A

Lower resp tract

114
Q

Rhinitis

A

Upper respiratory tract

115
Q

Which respiratory disease would most likely produce crackles on auscultation

A

pneumonia

116
Q

A five year old hunting dog from the Mississippi river valley has an exudative, serosanguineous wound that is nonresponsive to antibiotics and corticosteroid treatment. This should alert the clinician to the possibility of what type of problem?

A

Fungal

117
Q

Which of the following terms is used to describe a high-pitched, discontinuous inspiratory sound associated with the reopening of airways that closed during expiration?

A

crackle

118
Q

Which of the following is the most important first step when a dyspneic patient presents to the veterinary hospital?

A

Stabilize the pt before performing any diagnostic tests

119
Q

Hypoxemia is defines as:

A

Low blood oxygen levels

120
Q

Which of these is not a typical clinical sign associated with upper respiratory tract disease

A

Coughing

121
Q

If the carbon dioxide level in the blood decreases, the pH usually ______ and respiration _______

A

rises ; decreases

122
Q

Which of the following is a technique used to help loosen purple t material within the pulmonary system

A

Coupage

123
Q

Brachycephalic airway syndrome includes

A

Stenotic nares and elongated soft palate

124
Q

A chest tube is placed when an animal has:

A

pneumothorax

125
Q

Which of the following are abnormal lung sounds heard in the asthmatic feline pt on auscultation of the lower respiratory system

A

wheezes

126
Q

A collection of blood in the cranial portion of the ventral cavity is known as:

A

Hemothroax

127
Q

Clear fluid removed from the thoracic cavity is known as:

A

pleural effusion

128
Q

If you were to perform a BAL on an asthmatic pt. Which white blood cell would you expect to find an elevated number or

A

Eosinophil

129
Q

Coupage is contraindicated pts that have

A

Fractured ribs

130
Q

2 most common feline viral respiratory infections are

A

Herpesvirus and calicivirus

131
Q

Which of the following breeds are you most likely to see laryngeal paralysis in

A

Lab

132
Q

If you are going to got take radiographs on a pt to look for respiratory disease how many views should be taken

A

3

133
Q

Tension pneumothorax occurs when pressure in the thoracic cavity is

A

greater than atmospheric pressure

134
Q

Conditions that may induce a coughing reflex include all of the following except

A

Intestinal foreign body

135
Q

Which of the following is an acceptable method of making food more palatable to the pet

A

Warming the food

136
Q

Term for air in the thoracic cavity

A

Pneumothorax

137
Q

Infection that causes lung inflammation

A

Pneumonia

138
Q

Cloudy fluid in the thoracic cavity that can be white to pink/purple

A

Chylothorax

139
Q

Excess fluid in the lungs

A

Pulmonary edema

140
Q

General term for fluid in the thoracic cavity

A

Pleural effusion

141
Q

Purple t fluid in the thoracic cavity

A

Prothorax

142
Q

Blood in the thoracic cavity

A

Hemothorax

143
Q

The most common systemic mycotic disease in cats caused by

A

Cryptococcus

144
Q

What is the most systemic mycosis in the cat

A

Cryptococcosis

145
Q

Which of the following is the cause for infectious canine tracheobronchitis

A

all options are correct - reovirus, canine adenovirus, bordetella bronchiseptica

146
Q

Blastomycosis, coccidiomycosis, and histoplasmosis are all types of ______ disease seen in dogs and cats

A

Fungal

147
Q

Collapsing trachea is most often seen in

A

Yorkshire terrier

148
Q

To perform Coupage, cupped hand should be used to tap firmly on the chest wall starting

A

Caudally and working forward

149
Q

Which of the following is not a fungal disease of the respiratory tract

A

Mycoplasma

150
Q

Asthma most commonly affects which species

A

Feline

151
Q

Most common route of infection for mycotic disease is

A

Inhalation

152
Q

Which of the following is likely a cause for feline asthma

A

chronic airway inflammation and allergies

153
Q

Which fungal infection resides predominantly in the nasal passages of the dog and eats away at the nasal turbinates

A

Aspergillosis

154
Q

Which of the following are you most likely to see chylothorax in

A

domestic shorthair

155
Q

Which of the following diseases exhibit coughing, fever, and mucopurulent nasal and ocular discharge

A

canine distemper

156
Q

Which feline viral respiratory infection is highly resistant to disinfectants and can live in the environment for several days

A

Calicivirus

Mod 6 (6 decks)

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