Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

anatomy 1 > lab 3 > Flashcards

lab 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the cranial nerves

** OH ONCE ONE TAKES THE ANATOMY FINAL VERY GOOD VACATIONS ARE HAPPENING**

A

olfactory
optic
oculomotor
trochlear
trigeminal
abducens (eye muscles)
facial
vestibularcochlear
glossopharyngeal
vagus
accessory
hypoglossal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

olfaction
cribriform plate of ethmoid bone

A

olfactory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

vision
optic canal

A

optic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

eye muscles
superior orbital fissure

A

oculomotor + trochlear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

somatosensory info from face + head
superior orbital fissure - foramen
rotundum - foramen ovale

A

trigeminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

eye muscles
superior orbital fissure

A

abducens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

face
stylomastoid foramen

A

facial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

balance, equilibrium, + hearing
internal acoustic meatus

A

vestibularcochear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

breathing throat tongue
jugular foramen

A

vagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

head + neck
foramen magnum

A

accessory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

tongue movements
hypoglossal canal

A

hypoglossal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

dura, arachnoid, pia mater are 3 meningeal layers. inflammation of the meninges surrounding the brain and or the spinal. may be caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungal infections. in infectious ___ the toxins produced by the infecting agent may disrupt the normal functions of the surrounding brain tissue — produces movement associated pain + stiffness in the neck

A

meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

dura is a double layer btw the 2 cerebral hemisphere and is called ___ _____, btw 2 hemispheres of the cerebellum: ____ ____, btw the cerebrum + cerebellum the ___ _____

A

falx cerebri, falx cerebelli, tentorium cerebelli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ask a pt to read the letters on a typical Suellen eye chart E

A

optic nerve 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

have pt shrug shoulders against resistance as u push down

A

accessory nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ask pt to smell

A

olfactory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ask pt to protract and then retract their tongue

A

hypoglossal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

using tongue work, test your pt hearing ability

A

vestibuolocochlear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

shine a penlight on your pts pupil to see if it responds

A

oculomotor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

apply a bit of sugar to tongue and ask to smile

A

facial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

pt bite down on tongue depressor while u try to pull it out or lightly touch your pts cornea to see if they blink

A

trigeminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

when clavicle is fractured, entire shoulder region moves _____. Most important is the s shaped of the clavicle means fracture usually splinter outwardly

A

medially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

large depression locate on the anterior aspect of the scapula

A

sub scapular fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

acromion process of the scapula articulates with the ?

A

lateral end of the clavicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

medial end of the clavicle articulates with the ____

A

sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are the primary structural/anatomical differences btw a somatic vs a visceral reflex arc

A

2 motor neurons – ganglionic + preganglionic

effectors – smooth muscles, cardiac muscle or glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

some people suffer from a condition known as congenital insensitivity to pain in which they cannot DETECT painful stimuli at all, yet all their motor skills are normal. which portions of the somatic reflex are might be defective in people with this condition

A
  • likely in sensory portion of somatic reflex arc
  • nonciceptors/ sensory neurons for pain detection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

when your stomach begins to fill with food, a signal is sent that initiates contraction of the smooth muscle in the digestive tract to move food through the intestines. is this an example of somatic or visceral reflex arc and why

A

visceral because it involves the smooth muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

technique to enhance sluggish stretch reflexes. subject clench their teeth, interlock their hands, look toward the ceiling

A

jendrassik maneuver

30
Q

abnormal response in which ht toes flare and the great toe moves in an upward direction

A

babinski reflex

31
Q

assesses S1 + S2 spinal nerves

A

achilles / calcaneal reflex (ankle jerk)

32
Q

absence of normal pupillary reflexes is generally an indication of severe trauma or deterioration of the vital ____ _____ tissue

A

brain stem

33
Q

connections through the brain result in constriction of the pupil in the other eye when there is direct light on the eye

A

consensual response

34
Q

response occurs naturally during emotional responses where pupils dilate

A

ciliospinal or pupillodilator reflex

35
Q

automatic, rapid response to stimulus

A

reflex

36
Q

5 necessary parts of a typical reflex arc

A
  • receptor
  • sensory neuron
  • integration center
  • motor neuron
  • effector
37
Q

treatment is removal of the upper end of the femur and the acetabular socket and replacement with teflon on some inert material

A

hip replacement

38
Q

is the fibula on the medial or lateral end

A

lateral

39
Q

the ___ region is a major site for administering intramuscular injection & applied to the ____ ____ ___ to the cheeks of the buttocks

A

gluteal; gluteus medius superior

40
Q

site for intramuscular injections especially in small children. such injections are administered about halfway down the length of this muscle

A

vastus lateralis

41
Q

quads can be used to test ____ nerve

A

femoral

42
Q

hairline fractures resulting from repeated shocks or impacts to a bone

A

stress fracture

43
Q

overstitched ligaments resulting in tearing of the collagen fibers

A

sprain

44
Q

pain in the anterior compartment of the leg caused by irritation and swelling of the tibialis anterior muscle, typically following unusual or extreme exercise

A

shin splints

45
Q

painful muscel spasms resulting from strain nor contusions. common injury to quads in football players

A

Charlie horse

46
Q

overstretching or tearing of the fibrous band connecting the heel to the toes and supporting the arch of the foot. common cause of pain in the heal

A

plantar fasciitis

47
Q

commonly called a “pulled muscle”. excessive stretching and tearing of the muscle due to overuse or improper use

A

strain

48
Q

name of the articulation btw the 2 pubic bones

A

pubis symphyses

49
Q

3 bones that make up the coxal bone

A

llium ischium + pubis

50
Q

head of the femur articulates with the

A

acetabulum

51
Q

what are the names of the 2 blunt projections near the proximal end of the femur

A

greater + lesser trochanter

52
Q

shin bone

A

tibia

53
Q

sharpness of the visual image and is tested in clinics using a simple Snellen eye chart

A

visual acuity

54
Q

abnormal curvature of the cornea

A

astigmatism

55
Q

– optic disc, point where there are no photoreceptors in the retina

A

blind spot

56
Q

when focusing on close objet, the eye uses 3 processes to focus an image on the retina: accommodation, constriction, and convergence

A

accommodation

57
Q

ability the docusin apparatus to account for changed in distance from the viewed object. you lens changes to acocoodate near vision; pupil changes diameter to help accommodation

A

accommodation

58
Q

difficult to focus for near vision

A

presbyopia

59
Q

inflammation + fluid exudate in the middle ear cavity which produces pressure + pain on tympanic men and a reduction in movement of the ear ossicles

A

otitis media

60
Q

involves outer or middle ear defects. hearing aids can improve hearing for conductive deafness by amplifying the pressure waves + transmitting the sound into the inner ear

A

conduction deafness

61
Q

involves defect or damage in the inner ear where sound transduction occurs or int eh autarky nerve. SNGL can be congenital or acquired + involves sensorineural deafness when the deficit is in the cochlea

A

SNHL

62
Q

test is done to determine possible conduction deadness by comparing sounds transmitted through bone conduction. however, in conduction deafness, bone conduction is better than air conduction

A

runne test

63
Q

screen for unilateral deadness

A

weber test

64
Q

sound louder In the right ear

A

conduction deafness in right ear or sensorineural deafness in left ear

65
Q

sound louder in left ear

A

conduction deafness in left ear or sensorineural deafness in right ear

66
Q

for ____ _____ the sounds is heard loudest in the normal ear because the I,paored ear is not effective at picking up sounds even if transmitted directly by bone

A

sensorineural deafness

67
Q

3 examples of somatic reflexes

A
  • patellar
  • withdrawal
  • plantar
68
Q

2 examples of autonomic reflexes

A
  • pupillary light reflex
  • salivary reflex
69
Q

what was the effect of simultaneous muscle contraction or mental distraction on the patellar reflex

A

enhances patellar reflex

70
Q

protests retina from excessive light exposure

A

pupillary light reflex

71
Q

maintains balanced during withdrawal form painful stimuli

A

crossed extensor reflex

72
Q

pupillary light reflex or ciliospinal reflex a consensual response

A

yes, both pupils react

anatomy 1 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions