L.5 Connective tissues Flashcards
1
Q
What is one function of connective tissue?
A
Provide structural support
Connective tissue plays a crucial role in maintaining the structural integrity of organs and systems.
2
Q
Name a function of connective tissue related to fat.
A
Forming a site for storage of fat
Adipose connective tissue is specifically responsible for storing fat.
3
Q
What general characteristic distinguishes connective tissue?
A
Made up of fewer cells that are set far apart
This characteristic allows for the presence of abundant intercellular substance.
4
Q
What supports connective tissue?
A
Abundant intercellular substance
This substance provides the necessary support structure for connective tissues.
5
Q
What are the components that account for the different appearances of connective tissues?
A
CT cells and fibres
The varying amounts and types of these components lead to the diverse forms of connective tissue.
6
Q
Why are we interested in connective tissue?
A
Raised or depleted amount of specific protein
Changes in protein levels can indicate tissue health or disease.
7
Q
Fill in the blank: Connective tissue can aid in the ______ of the body.
A
defence and protection
This function is critical for the immune response.
8
Q
What is the first classification of connective tissue?
A
Connective Tissue proper
This category includes both loose and dense connective tissues.
9
Q
List the types of connective tissues with special properties.
A
- Adipose CT
- Elastic CT
- Hematopoietic CT
- Mucous CT
These tissues have unique roles and characteristics distinct from general connective tissues.
10
Q
What are the two types of supporting connective tissue?
A
- Cartilage
- Bone
These tissues provide support and structure to the body.
11
Q
What is the primary cell type responsible for extracellular matrix production in connective tissue?
A
Fibroblasts
Fibroblasts play a key role in wound healing and tissue repair.
12
Q
Which immune cells can be found in connective tissue?
A
- Macrophages/histiocytes
- Mast cells
- Lymphocytes
- Plasma cells
These cells are essential for immune function and response within connective tissues.
13
Q
True or False: Connective tissue is made up of tightly packed cells.
A
False
Connective tissue is characterized by fewer cells that are widely spaced apart.
14
Q
What type of connective tissue includes myofibroblasts?
A
Cellular components of CT
Myofibroblasts are involved in wound contraction and tissue repair.
15
Q
Fill in the blank: Connective tissue provides a matrix that serves to ______ and bind the cells and organs.
A
connect
This function is essential for the overall organization of body tissues.
16
Q
What is the extracellular matrix (ECM) composed of?
A
Ground substances and fibres
Includes fibrous elements in a permeable gel matrix.
17
Q
What are the main types of fibres found in the ECM?
A
Collagen, elastic, reticular fibres
These fibres are embedded in a gel matrix.
18
Q
What is the gel matrix in the ECM composed of?
A
Glycoproteins, mucins (glycosaminoglycans), and water
It is semi-solid and viscous.
19
Q
What are the functions of the extracellular matrix?
A
Acts as a lubricant and barrier to foreign particles
Protects tissues from penetration.
20
Q
What is collagen?
A
Protein fibre found throughout the body
Provides strength and cushioning.
21
Q
What are the types of collagen fibres?
A
Type I, Type II, Type III, Type IV, Type VII
Type I = Thick fibres; Type II = Thin fibres; Type III = Reticulin; Type IV = Basement membrane; Type VII = Anchoring BM to connective tissue.
22
Q
What is the histochemical technique used for reticular fibres?
A
Silver stains for reticular fibres
Also known as reticulin.
23
Q
What is the Jones silver method used for?
A
Basement Membrane
A histochemical technique.
24
Q
What condition is characterized by excess ECM accumulation in tissues?
A
Fibrosis and scarring
Examples include scleroderma and systemic sclerosis.
25
What genetic disorder is associated with collagen type I?
Osteogenesis imperfecta
## Footnote
Leads to bone malformation.
26
What genetic disorder is associated with collagen type VII?
Epidermolysis bullosa
## Footnote
Causes skin anchoring defects.
27
What genetic disorder is caused by defective collagen type IV?
Alport syndrome
## Footnote
Leads to renal malfunction.
28
What vitamin deficiency leads to defective collagen production?
Vitamin C
## Footnote
Results in scurvy.
29
Fill in the blank: Collagen provides a combination of _______ and strength.
Flexibility
## Footnote
Essential for various body functions.
30
True or False: Type II collagen fibres are the thickest.
False
## Footnote
Type I collagen fibres are the thickest.
31
What is the primary function of collagen in connective tissues?
Provides strength and cushioning
## Footnote
Essential for structural integrity.
32
What leads to fibrosis and hardening of tissues in scleroderma?
Excess collagen production by fibroblasts
## Footnote
Scleroderma is characterized by the overproduction of collagen, which results in the thickening and hardening of skin and other tissues.
33
List the skin manifestations of scleroderma.
* Taut, shiny, and thickened skin
* Skin tightness, particularly on fingers (sclerodactyly)
* Raynaud's phenomenon
## Footnote
Raynaud's phenomenon is an abnormal response to cold or stress, leading to discoloration and pain in fingers.
34
What systemic effects may occur due to scleroderma?
* Gastrointestinal dysfunction
* Pulmonary fibrosis
* Hypertension
## Footnote
These systemic effects are caused by smooth muscle atrophy and fibrosis.
35
What is the result of scleroderma on tissue?
Progressive loss of tissue flexibility and function
## Footnote
This loss impacts the overall mobility and functionality of affected tissues.
36
What are reticulin fibers primarily composed of?
Type III collagen
## Footnote
Reticulin fibers form a fine supportive meshwork in soft tissues.
37
What role do reticulin fibers play in organs?
Provide the bulk of the supporting framework in more cellular organs
## Footnote
Examples include the spleen and liver.
38
How are reticulin fibers arranged in tissues?
In a 3D network
## Footnote
This arrangement provides individual cell support.
39
What staining techniques are used to visualize reticulin fibers?
Reticulin stains and silver impregnation
## Footnote
Reticulin fibers are not easily visualized with H&E staining.
40
In which organs are reticulin fibers abundant?
Hematopoietic organs
## Footnote
These organs include the bone marrow and spleen.
41
What is the significance of reticulin staining in liver pathology?
Crucial for diagnosing liver cirrhosis
## Footnote
Reticulin staining highlights architectural changes and regenerative nodules in the liver.
42
How does reticulin staining help in tumor differentiation?
* Distinguishes epithelial neoplasms (carcinomas) from non-epithelial tumors
* Carcinomas: Reticulin surrounds tumor nests
* Sarcomas and large cell lymphomas: Reticulin surrounds individual tumor cells
## Footnote
This differentiation is important for accurate diagnosis and treatment planning.
43
What role does reticulin play in identifying in situ vs. invasive carcinoma?
Aids in identifying basement membrane (BM) invasion
## Footnote
This is critical for distinguishing between non-invasive cancers and invasive carcinomas.
44
What is the basement membrane?
A 3D complex of proteins and carbohydrate
## Footnote
It is modified connective tissue that provides structural support.
45
What functions does the basement membrane serve?
Provides support to epithelial cells, muscles, and peripheral nerves; permits diffusion of nutrients and wastes between cells and capillaries
## Footnote
It is vital for anchoring epithelia and endothelia.
46
What histochemical techniques are used to study the basement membrane?
PAS or Jones methenamine silver; immunostaining using antibodies to collagen IV and Laminin
## Footnote
These techniques help visualize components of the basement membrane.
47
What are some pathological changes associated with the basement membrane?
Abnormal thickening, autoimmune deposits, BM invasion by tumour cells, genetic disorders affecting collagen
## Footnote
Examples include diabetes in the glomerulus and conditions like Alports syndrome.
48
What is the significance of basement membrane integrity in oncology?
It is a key marker in tumor progression
## Footnote
The integrity of the basement membrane can indicate whether tumors are invasive.
49
What distinguishes in situ tumors from invasive carcinomas?
In situ tumors are confined to epithelium and do not penetrate the BM; invasive carcinomas breach the BM and spread into connective tissue
## Footnote
This difference is crucial for cancer staging.
50
What mechanisms do tumor cells use to invade the basement membrane?
Tumor cells secrete proteolytic enzymes such as Matrix Metalloproteinases (MMPs), collagenases, and plasminogen activators
## Footnote
These enzymes degrade the BM and surrounding matrix.
51
What are elastic fibers composed of?
Elastin and microfibrillar proteins
## Footnote
They provide elasticity to various tissues.
52
Where can elastic fibers be found?
Skin, lungs, arteries, epiglottis, ear
## Footnote
These fibers allow tissues to resume their shape after stretching or contracting.
53
Fill in the blank: The basement membrane is a specialized _______ matrix separating epithelium from underlying tissues.
extracellular
## Footnote
Its integrity is crucial for normal tissue function.
54
What gives elastin its recoil and stretch properties?
Disulfide bonds
## Footnote
Elastin is rich in disulfide bonds, which contribute to its mechanical properties.
55
Name three basic dyes used for staining elastic tissue.
* Verhoeff’s haematoxylin
* Miller’s stain
* Orcein stain
## Footnote
These stains allow for clear visualization of elastic fibers in tissues.
56
What tissues can be visualized using elastic fiber staining?
* Blood vessels
* Lungs
* Skin
## Footnote
Staining aids in the examination of elastic fibers within these tissues.
57
What pathology is associated with damage to elastic lamina in arteries?
Atherosclerosis
## Footnote
Fragmentation of elastic lamina contributes to plaque formation.
58
How does aging affect elastin?
Degeneration of elastin reduces skin and vessel elasticity
## Footnote
This contributes to wrinkles and vessel stiffness.
59
What condition can lead to the destruction of elastic lamina?
Arterial Inflammation (e.g., arteritis)
## Footnote
Conditions like temporal arteritis or Takayasu arteritis show such destruction.
60
What genetic disorder affects fibrillin-1 and impacts elastin fiber assembly?
Marfan Syndrome
## Footnote
This disorder can lead to aortic aneurysms, lens dislocation, and joint hypermobility.
61
What is the role of elastic stains in tumor sections?
Help outline blood vessels
## Footnote
This assists in detecting vascular invasion by tumor cells, important for malignancy assessment.
62
What suffix is used to denote benign tumors?
-oma
## Footnote
Benign tumors are typically slow-growing and easy to remove.
63
What suffix is used for malignant tumors?
-sarcomas
## Footnote
Malignant tumors grow rapidly and are invasive.
64
What is the common name for a muscle tumor?
Myoma/Myosarcoma
## Footnote
Muscle tumors can be benign or malignant.
65
What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in adults?
Liposarcoma
## Footnote
It typically arises in deep soft tissues, especially in the thighs and retroperitoneum.
66
What are key prognostic indicators for liposarcoma?
* Tumor size
* Histological subtype
## Footnote
Subtypes include well-differentiated, dedifferentiated, myxoid, round cell, and pleomorphic.
67
What is the primary mode of treatment for liposarcoma?
Surgical excision
## Footnote
The treatment approach may vary based on subtype and completeness of resection.
68
True or False: Benign tumors grow rapidly and require extensive surgery to remove.
False
## Footnote
Benign tumors, denoted by ‘-oma’, are slow-growing and easier to remove.
69
Fill in the blank: A tumor of cartilage is called a _______.
Chondroma/chondrosarcoma
## Footnote
Chondromas are benign, while chondrosarcomas are malignant.
70
Name two types of nerve-related tumors.
* Schwannomas
* Neurofibromas
## Footnote
These tumors are associated with nerve tissue.
71
What type of tumor arises from blood vessels?
Angioma/angiosarcoma
## Footnote
Angiomas are benign, while angiosarcomas are malignant.
72
What type of tumor arises from lymphatic tissue?
Lymphangioma/lymphangiosarcoma
## Footnote
Lymphangiomas are benign and lymphangiosarcomas are malignant.
73
What type of tumor arises from bone?
Osteoma/osteosarcoma
## Footnote
Osteomas are benign, while osteosarcomas are malignant.
74
What are the two main types of cells found in cartilage and bone?
Osteocytes and chondrocytes
75
What is the composition of cartilage?
Acid mucin rich
76
What is the primary characteristic of bone?
Osteoid laid down and calcified
77
What are the crystals that form during the calcification of bone?
Calcium phosphate crystals
78
What is the most common type of bone specimen?
Biopsies
79
What do excision specimens typically include?
Larger samples for tumors, infections, or arthritis
80
What are amputations in the context of bone specimens?
Limbs or digits removed due to tumors, severe infections, or trauma
81
Which conditions can be diagnosed from bone specimens?
* Tumors (benign and malignant)
* Infections (e.g., osteomyelitis)
* Degenerative conditions (e.g., arthritis)
* Metabolic bone diseases
82
What is required before bone can be processed into paraffin wax for sectioning?
Decalcification
83
What does the decalcification process remove from bone?
Calcium salts
84
What is a common decalcifying agent that is a weak acid?
10% Formic acid
85
What is a strong acid commonly used as a decalcifying agent?
5% Nitric acid
86
What is a less common strong acid used for decalcification due to tissue damage risk?
Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
87
What is the role of EDTA in the decalcification process?
Binds calcium slowly but preserves tissue antigens well
88
What are the steps in the procedure for processing bone?
* Fixation in formalin
* Decalcification using chosen agent
* Routine tissue processing and embedding in wax
89
Name one type of bone tumor.
Osteosarcoma
90
What are two metabolic bone diseases?
* Osteomalacia
* Osteoporosis
91
What is a common infection associated with bone pathology?
Tuberculosis (TB)
92
What method is commonly used to diagnose metabolic bone disease?
Blood tests and DEXA scans
93
What does osteoporosis lead to in terms of bone condition?
Decreased bone mass and calcium content
94
Which demographic is commonly affected by osteoporosis?
Elderly and post-menopausal women
95
What causes osteomalacia or rickets in children?
Vitamin D or calcium deficiency
96
What are the consequences of poor mineralization of the bone matrix?
Soft bones, bone pain, deformities, and growth disturbances in children
97
What are the common neoplasms found in bone biopsies?
Leukaemias, multiple myeloma, lymphomas, osteosarcomas, Ewing's sarcoma, prostate and breast secondary tumors
## Footnote
Common neoplasms can be classified into primary and secondary tumors, as well as hematological malignancies.
98
Which CD markers are used for immunophenotyping in bone marrow?
CD45, CD20, CD3, CD138
## Footnote
These markers help in identifying different types of cells in bone marrow biopsies.
99
What are the primary tumors of the bone?
Osteosarcomas, Ewing's sarcoma
## Footnote
These are malignant tumors that primarily originate in the bone.
100
What are the common secondary tumors found in bones?
Prostate and breast cancers
## Footnote
These are the most common cancers that metastasize to bone.
101
What is Osteosarcoma?
Malignant tumor that produces osteoid (immature bone matrix)
## Footnote
It primarily affects long bones like femur, tibia, and humerus.
102
What age groups are most commonly affected by Osteosarcoma?
Adolescents (10–25 years) and adults >40
## Footnote
In adults, it is often secondary to radiation or p53 mutations.
103
What are the diagnostic features of Osteosarcoma?
Highly aggressive tumor with spindle cells and high mitotic activity
## Footnote
Immunohistochemistry shows positive results for Vimentin, Osteocalcin, and Alkaline Phosphatase.
104
What is the treatment for Osteosarcoma?
Surgical excision (wide margins) and neoadjuvant/adjuvant chemotherapy
## Footnote
Treatment involves both surgical and chemotherapeutic approaches.
105
What is Ewing's sarcoma?
Second most common bone tumor in children and adolescents
## Footnote
It primarily involves long bones and pelvis.
106
What are the diagnostic features of Ewing's sarcoma?
Biopsy shows small, round blue cells, PAS positive, CD99 positive
## Footnote
The genetic hallmark is the t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation leading to EWS-FLI1 fusion gene.
107
What is the significance of the MDR1 gene in Osteosarcoma?
Correlates with chemotherapy resistance
## Footnote
Its expression levels can indicate how well a tumor may respond to treatment.
108
How is Leukaemia diagnosed?
Via bone marrow aspirate and biopsy
## Footnote
Bone infiltration may result in marrow failure symptoms.
109
What is Multiple Myeloma?
A malignancy of plasma cells arising in bone marrow
## Footnote
It causes lytic bone lesions that predispose to fractures.
110
What diagnostic tools are used for Multiple Myeloma?
Full Blood Count (FBC), alkaline phosphatase, monoclonal immunoglobulin, Bence Jones proteins
## Footnote
Urine tests also include detection of free light chains.
111
What immunohistochemistry markers are associated with Multiple Myeloma?
CD138, CD79a, Cyclin D1
## Footnote
Cyclin D1 overexpression indicates a poor prognosis.
112
True or False: Lymphoma can originate or metastasize to bone.
True
## Footnote
Immunophenotyping through IHC and flow cytometry helps subtype the lymphoma.
