L25- RTI IX Flashcards

1
Q

Ornithosis, formerly called (1), is caused by (2) which is a (3) type microbe of (4) size.

A

1- psittacosis, parrot fever
2- chlamydophila psittaci
3- parasite of eukaryotic cells
4- 0.45 µm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Chlamyodophila psittaci:

  • (1) location during infection
  • Gram(+/-)
  • (3) are the reservoirs
  • (4) are the forms
A

1- obligate intracellular
2- gram- (not staining wise, but yes structurally)
3- birds
4- EB (infectious), RB (replicative) forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Chlamyodophila psittaci:

  • outer cell wall resembles (1) and contains (2), but lacks (3)
  • its shape is considered (4)
  • (5) is the major component of the outer cell wall is common and unique to each chlamydia species
A
1- gram-
2- weakly endotoxic LPS
3- peptidoglycan
4- round with thin periplasmic space
5- MOMP- major outer membrane protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

briefly describe the life cycle of chlamyodophila psittaci

A

1) EB attaches to target cell (via microvilli)
2) EB endocytosis and prevents fusion with lysosome
3) EB –> RB
4) RB replication via binary fission
5) RB –> EB (inclusion bodies contain both)
6) lysis of cells and inclusion bodies for release of virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

in chlamyodophila psittaci life cycle, it takes (1) time for EBs to penetrate and becomes active RB and then takes (2) amount of time to reform EBs

A

1- 6-8 hrs post-penetration (EB –> RBs)

2- 18-24 hrs later (RB –> EB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Clamyodophila psittaci:

  • (1) is the method of transmission
  • spreads to (2) parts of liver, kidneys to cause (3)

-(4) list the many respiratory effects

A

1- urine or respiratory droplets of birds
2- reticuloendothelial system
3- necrosis

4:

  • lymphacytic inflammation of alveoli
  • edema, thickening of alveolar wall
  • infiltration of macrophages, necrosis and occasional hemorrhages
  • mucus plugs bronchioles –> cyanosis, anoxia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the high risk factors associates with ornithosis

A

(bird exposure)

  • vets, zookeepers
  • pet shop owners
  • employees of poultry processing plants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ornithosis / chlamydophila psittaci:

  • (1) incubation period
  • (2) initial sxs
  • (3) pulmonary sxs
  • (4) CNS sxs
  • (5) GI sxs
  • (6) other possible developments
A

1- 5-14 days
2- HA, high fever, chills, myalgia
3- nonproductive cough, consolidation
4- (common) encephalitis, convulsions, coma, death
5- n/v/d
6- hepatosplenomegaly, follicular keratoconjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ornithosis:

  • (1) Dx
  • (2) Tx
  • (3) additional prevention strategies
A

1- serology (maybe PCR)
2- antibiotics + patient isolation
3- (no vaccines available) antibiotic treatment for infected birds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HPS, aka (1), is commonly associated with (2) vector. It is characterized by (3) symptoms leading into (4) symptoms, and then finally (5).

A
1- hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
2- rodent
3- febrile prodrome
4- acute respiratory failure
5- death due to circulatory collapse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

HPS is caused by viruses in the (1) family, (2) virus is most common. Most cases in the US happen in (3) region.

A

1- bunyaviridae family (hantavirus)
2- sin nombre virus
3- west of the Mississippi River (>96% of cases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Bunyaviridae / SNV are (non-/enveloped) (+/-) (ss/ds) (RNA/DNA) with a (5) shape

A

(sin nombre virus)

enveloped (lipids + 2 major glycoproteins) (-) sense ssRNA, spherical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

(1) is the main risk factor for HPS, and usually affects people in (2) areas, where (3) are potential sites.

Hantaviruses can also cause (4) in addition to HPS.

A

1- rodent infestation
2- rural areas
3- peridomestic sites: barns, outbuildings, sheds
4- HFRS- hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

SNV is transmitted via (1), primarily in (2) season.

A

(sin nombre virus)
1- airborne transmission in rodent droppings (urine, feces, saliva)
2- fall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

HPS clinical features:

  • (1) incubation period
  • (2) 1st phase
  • (3) 2nd phase
  • (4) 3rd phase
  • (5) mortality rate
A

1- 1-8 wks
2- Prodromal (3-5 days): viral illness of fever, HA, myalgia, v/d (similar to viral gastroenteritis)

3- Cardiopulmonary (24-48hrs): dyspnea, dry cough, pulmonary edema, circulatory collapse

4- Convalescent: significant diuresis, sxs improve and complete recovery over wks
5- 50% fatality rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

HPS:

  • (1) increases in blood vessels due to (2) as a consequence of (3) response
  • (1) leads to (4) directly
  • onset of symptoms is dependent on (5) and organs affected depends on (6)
A
1- inc capillary permeability
2- endothelial damage
3- immunological response to viral Ags that penetrated endothelium
4- widespread protein rich edema
5- specific Igs for virus
6- specific species of Hantavirus
17
Q

describe the diagnosis and treatment of HPS

A

-initial phase is often missed, Rodent Exposure is most critical

Dx: RT-PCR (viral RNA), ELISA for IgM/G against Hantavirus

Tx: supportive, no specific Txs available

18
Q

Melioidosis, aka (1), is caused by (2) microbe in (3) geographic areas and in (4) parts of the environment.

A

1- Whitemore’s disease
2- Burkholderia pseudomallei
3- (endemic regions) South Asia, SE Asia (+ China), northern Australia
4- soil, fresh water (therefore common in the rainy season)

19
Q

Burkholderia pseudomallei causes (1). It is a Gram(+/-) (non-/motile) (aerobe/anaerobe) (extra/intra)-cellular (non-/spore forming) (coccus/bacillus).

A

1- Melioidosis

2- Gram-, non-motile, aerobe, facultative intracellular, non-spore forming bacilli

20
Q

describe the transmission of Burkholderia pseudomallei

A
  • *percutaneous inoculation, *inhalation, aspiration, ingestion (occasionally)
  • mainly thru broken skin, inoculation during exposure to wet soils, contaminated water
  • rarely ever person to person, animal exposure, sexual transmission
21
Q

Meliodosis clinical features:

  • most cases present as (1)
  • (2) are the risk factors for symptom development
  • (3) are the most common clinical manifestations
A

1- asymptomatic, 90%
2- DM, excess EtOH, CRD, chronic lung disease, CF, thalassemia
3- pneumonia, localized skin infection (acute or chronic or latent- like in Tb)

22
Q

Meliodosis is mostly seen in (adults/children) and presents as (2) in contrast to (adult/children) which present with (4) instead.

A

1- adults
2- pneumonia
3- children
4- cutaneous infections (ulcer, abscess)

23
Q

Meliodosis is caused by (1). (2- indicate the best one) samples can be taken for culture. (1) is cultured on a (3) agar and (4) is the hallmark feature.

A

1- berkholderia pseudomallei
2- *sputum, blood, urine, abscess fluid, swab from skin/throat/rectal
3- Ashdown’s agar (selective media)- note it also has bipolar staining
4- cauliflower head appearance

24
Q

describe the prevention of meliodosis

A

(berkholderia pseudomallei- no vaccine)
-avoid contact with soil, standing water in endemic regions

-boots, gloves during agricultural work

25
Q

Q fever is caused by (1), usually found in (2) and transmission occurs via (3).

A

1- coxiella burnetti
2- cattle, sheep, goats (ticks)
3- inhalation of aerolized particles (other methods exist too)

26
Q

Coxiella burnetii causes (1). It is a gram(+/-) (extra/intra)-cellular (4) type microbe.

A

1- Q fever
2- gram-
3- obligate intracellular
4- parasite

27
Q

Q fever caused by (1), has an incubation period of (2). Normally infections will present as (3). Other manifestations of a Q fever include (4), (5), (6).

A
1- coxiella burnetti
2- 3-4 weeks
3- asymptomatic
4- self limiting flu like illness
5- pneumonia (N. America)
6- hepatitis (Europe)
28
Q

describe the phases of Coxiella burnetti infections and include what determine the infectious status

A

-infections are dependent on LPS status (intact or truncated)

Phase I- highly infectious, intact LPS

Phase II- (in vitro) not infectious, truncated LPS

29
Q

Q fever clinical presentation:

  • (1) common symptoms
  • (2) complicated / chronic symptoms
  • (3) is a complication that can occur years after primary infection, usually due to one of (4) risk factors
A

1- fever, HA, chills, rash (20%), pneumonia or hepatitis (depending on type)
2- osteomyelitis, encephalitis, endocarditis
3- culture negative endocarditis
4- pre-existing heart defects, pregnancy, immunocompromised

30
Q

Q fever:

  • (1) cause
  • (2) Dx
  • (3) Tx
A

1- coxiella burnetti
2- serology (phase I, II): IgM peaks at 4-6 wks
3- doxycycline +/- surgery for endocarditis