Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Extra Stuff CCI Review > Know It! Pt.2 > Flashcards

Know It! Pt.2 Flashcards

1
Q

LV angiogram is also known as what three other words ?

A

1.Ventriculography
2. Selective angiography
3. Angiocardiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ventriculography is a.k.a?

A

Angiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the best Cath Lab technique for LV function?

A

Using an LV angiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What 5 things can angiography measure in the LV and blood vessels?

A

-vessel narrowing
-Regurgitation
-Shunts
-EF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the fick method?

A

A method used to measure O2 consumption in the Cath Lab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does the fick method measure O2 consumption in the Cath Lab?

A

O2 consumption /divided by the difference in O2 content between arterial and pulmonary systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What’s oximetry?

A

Measuress O2 saturation in various chambers and can detect shunts by O2 changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is a shunt size calculated?

A

By the difference between the pulmonary and systemic blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure comes from what kind of catheter?

A

Swan-Ganz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

AS is usually asymptomatic until what aortic valve area?

A

<1cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a normal aortic valve area?

A

3-4cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What’s a moderate mild and severe aortic valve area?

A

3-4normal
Mild- >1.5
Mod - 1.5-1 five
Severe - <1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In the Cath Lab, they can determine aortic stenosis by placing catheters where?

A

1 in the LV and 1 in the aorta with two separate sensors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the key difference between fundamental imaging and harmonic imaging?

A

Fundamental imaging- send and receives at the same frequency

Harmonic Imaging - transmits one frequency and receives at the 2nd harmonic (twice the transmit frequency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What results in thicker valve leaflets ?

A) High Gain
B) fundamental Imaging
C) low wall filter
D) harmonic Imaging

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

With Echo contrast agents bubbles are ____than red blood cells

A

Smaller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Echo contrast agents cross the ____ circuit

A

Pulmonary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When should an echo contrast be used for left ventricular opacification?

A) all segments can be seen
B) when 1 segment cannot be seen
C) when two more segments cannot be seen
D) none of the above

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Apical swirling of echo contrast is can be caused by what 2 things

A

A high MI
Amount of contrast injected is too low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Attenuation of contrast being pushed all the way to the Apex can be caused by what two things?

A

Too much contrast was injected
Contrast was injected too fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Should you use extension cords for electrical safety when scanning patients?

A

No this is not safe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

You should inspect your ultrasound systems?
A) monthly
B) routinely
C) monthly
D) every 2 years

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

During an EKG, what should be grounded the patient or the machine?

A

The machine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In what year did Congress Pass HIPAA?

A

1996

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does HIPAA stand for?

A

Health insurance, portability, and accountability act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Sonographers should do peer to peer reviews. How often for quality?

A

Two times a month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Whose responsibility Is it to obtain the informed consent prior to a TEE?

A

The physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Can sonographers interpret exams to the patient?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When moving the patient in the wheelchair, make sure the ___ engaged and the foot rests are ___

A

Brakes; retracted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Always keep a urinary drainage bag ___ the ____

A

Below; bladder

Or else if it’s above the bladder urine can collect and regur back into the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the difference between sterilization and disinfection?

A

Sterilization eliminates, all agents, good and bad

Disinfection eliminates only those organisms that can cause disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is an opportunistic infection?

A

Bad bacteria that was being controlled multiplies and causes harm to the host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the preferred principle for sterilization?

A

Heat and pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What kind of sterilization method is an auto clave?

A

Heat sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Auto cleaves use_____ to heat up

A

Steam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

At what temperature is an autoclave heated to?

A

121°C or 250°F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What pressure is a autoclave at?

A

15 PSI or 103 kPa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How long should an auto clave run for effective sterilization?

A

15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Can chemicals also be used for sterilization?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Although the sterilization is the most effective way to destroy agents. Why is it not always appropriate?

A

Because the degree of heat can destroy objects such as a fiber optics, electronics and plastics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is Ethylene oxide?

A

A gas used to sterilize objects that cannot survive past 60°C like a plastics, fiber optics and electric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is another option of sterilization if he sterilization is too harsh for certain objects?

A

Ethylene oxide gas

43
Q

Aseptic means?

A

Without organisms

44
Q

What is meant by a aseptic technique?

A

A practice that reduces post procedure infections by decreasing the likelihood that organisms will enter during clinical procedures

Aseptic technique is just ensuring a sterile field during procedures

45
Q

The sterile field should be draped starting from the area ___ to the person and then ____ outwards

A

Closest; extended

46
Q

Is it OK to allow sterile personnel to reach across
unsterile areas or hand them under sterile objects?

A

No

47
Q

Chest compressions should be how many inches deep?

A

2inch

48
Q

PIM stands for?

A

Potentially infected material

49
Q

What is the first thing you should do when cleaning up a blood spill?

A

Mark the area so that others do not enter that area until cleanup is complete

50
Q

What are the percentages and parts of a good true disinfectant?

A

10% bleach solution

One part bleach, nine parts water

51
Q

When cleaning up a blood spill, he should soak the area for at least ___minutes with the ____% disinfectant solution

A

20minutes; 10% bleach

52
Q

When cleaning up a blood spill at least ___ minutes for the disinfectant to completed the decontamination

A

20minutes

53
Q

True or false -goggles cannot be disinfected and reused. They must be thrown away.

A

False

54
Q

___% of AV calcific/degenerative stenosis starts off as____?

A

50%; Bicuspid AV

55
Q

How common in bicuspid congenital valve?

A

1-2%

56
Q

What’s a secondary finding of AS?

A

LVH

57
Q

AS can be caused by ____valvuar & ____valvuar obstructions?

A

Supra and sub valvuar

58
Q

AS causes ?

A) LV dilation
B) Diastolic pressure overload increase
C) LA dilation
D) systolic pressure overload increase

A

D

59
Q

AS causes ____ pressure overload which leads to ____

A

Systolic; LVH

60
Q

AS causes increased ____ pressure in the LV. This ends up causing increased ___ pressure in the ___

A

Squeezing; diastolic; LA

61
Q

What’s it called when there is valvular thickening but no hemodymanic gradient?

A

Aortic sclerosis

62
Q

What are symptoms of AS?

A
  • syncope
    -sudden death
    -angina
  • Dyspena
63
Q

AS murmur is?

A

Harsh systolic ejection murmur RSB crescendo -descendo

64
Q

AS murmur had a decreased or absent ?

A

A2 meaning a valve doesn’t move

65
Q

With AS what can occur in the carotids?

A

Delayed or decreased carotid upstroke due to sentosed AV with a bruit/thrill

66
Q

With AS there’s post stenotic ____ of the aorta

A

Dilation

67
Q

Mild, mid, severe AV jet velocity ?

A

Mild- 2.6-2.9m/sec
Mod- 3.0-4.0 m/sec
Severe - > or equal to 4m/sec

68
Q

Mild, mid & severe Mean gradient for AS?

A

Mild - < 20mmhg
Mod- 20-40mmhg
Severe - > or equal to 4mmhg

69
Q

What’s the calculation for the AV dimensionless index?

A

LVOT VTI / AV VTI

70
Q

What’s the mild, mod & severe dimensionless index for the AV?

A

Mild- > 0.50
Mod- 0.50-0.25
Severe - <0.25

71
Q

A patient had AS. The jet velocity is 2.7m/sec and how do you calculate the Mean gradient?

A

You use the jet velocity and put it into the bernouli equation P= 4v^2

72
Q

Pt. With a bicuspid AV will have a possible ____ on m-mode

A

Eccentric closure

73
Q

___% of people with a Bicuspid AV will have a ____ AV midline closure on m-mode

A

25% ; normal

74
Q

Bicuspid AV will show a ____ doming (tethering) in PLAX

A

Systolic

75
Q

How will a bicuspid AV look like in PSAX?

A

Football shaped

76
Q

If a pt. Has a bicuspid AV what 3 things should we additionally look for?

A

Aortic coarctation
Post stenotic dilation of the aorta
LVH

77
Q

What’s the best view to diagnosis a bicuspid AV?

A) short axis diastole
B) short axis systole
C) Long axis diastole
D) long axis systole

A

B

78
Q

Another name for doming is?

A

Tethering

79
Q

What is a normal descending aorta jet velocity that we take in the suprasternal view?

A

1 m/sec

80
Q

What’s a common system of aortic coarctation?

A

Systemic HTN

81
Q

Subvalvular aortic issues is a ___ membrane or ridge in the ____ under the ___

A

Congenital ; LVOT ; AV

82
Q

Subvalvular aortic issues cause early ___ ____of the AV

A

Systolic Closure

83
Q

Subvalvar aortic issues can cause have left ventricular pathology?

A

LVH

84
Q

What’s the best echo view to see aortic subvalvuar issues?

A

Ap5

85
Q

Often aortic Subvalvular issues are repaired with surgery but about ___% will grow back afterwards

A

15%

86
Q

What is Aortic Supravalvuar issues?

A

Discrete narrowing of the Aortic root or ascending aorta above the AV

87
Q

Aortic subvalvuar and supravalvuar issues cause what LV issue

A

LVH

88
Q

Because supravalvuar aortic issues may occur in the ascending aorta past the AV. We should use the ___ probe and scan in multiple windows.

A

PEDOFF

89
Q

With Subvalvular or supravalvuar aortic issues there will be increased ____ & ____at the site of obstruction

A

Velocity and turbulence

90
Q

Use ___ or ___ flow Doppler to locate level of obstruction with subvalvuar or supravalvuar aortic issues

A

PW or color

91
Q

Mean gradient and cath lab gradients correlate better than?

A) peak instantaneous
B) peak to peak
C) highest gradient

A

B) peak to peak

92
Q

What is Takayusu Arteritis is also called?

A

Aortic arch syndrome

93
Q

Takaysau arteritis occurs more in ____ from ___

A

Young women ; Asia

94
Q

Takaysau arteritis is ___ of the ____ and ____ ___ of unknown etiology

A

Fibrosis ; aorta ; descending aorta

95
Q

Takaysasu arteritis is?

A) narrowing of the aorta
B) Fibrosis of the aorta
C) Regur of the aorta
D) PDA

A

B

96
Q

A pt. Has AS. The jet velocity is 5m/sec & BP is 110/84. With this information how do you calculate the LV peak pressure?

A

You use the Bernoulli equation first to convert the 5msec. Then you add that to the systolic BP.

Correct answer is 210mmhg

97
Q

What is the continuity equation? And what’s it describe?

A

It’s describes that FLOW 2 is = to FLOW 1

98
Q

What is better peak velocities of AI or VTI with mod-severe AI

A

VTI is always better than peak velocities

99
Q

when using the continuity equation when would the severity of aortic stenosis be underestimated?

A

If you measure the LVOT too large

100
Q

When the LVOT cannot be accurately measured or in the setting of LV dysfunction, what calculation may help evaluate the severity of AS?

A

Dimensionless index

101
Q

What is the calculation for the dimensionless index?

A

LVOT VTI / CW VTI AS

102
Q

What pressure is obtained during echo dopplers?

A

Peak or peak instantaneous

103
Q

What is usually higher Cath Lab gradients or Echo gradient?

A

Echo gradients are usually higher

104
Q

What kind of gradients do Cath Lab use?

A) peak peak
B) peak instantaneous
B) mean ingredient

A

A

Extra Stuff CCI Review (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions