Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Abdominal Pathologies > Kidney Pathology > Flashcards

Kidney Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

what location do the kidneys develop?

A

in the pelvis within the 5th week of development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

at what week does the kidney ascend to the abdomen?

A

the kidney ascends into the abdomen by the 9th week of development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are genitourinary tract anomalies?

A

Bicornuate uterus and seminal vesicle agenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the most common complications of renal anomalies?

A

impaired renal function, infection and calculus formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

renal agenesis is also called?

A

Potter’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bilateral renal agenesis is predominantly in what gender?

A

males; it is very rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the sonographic signs of renal agenesis

A
  • kidney and bladder not visualized
  • low amniotic fluid
  • decreased movement and development
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

with unilateral renal agenesis, which kidney usually does not develop?

A

the left kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is typically seen in an ultrasound of unilateral renal agenesis?

A
  • enlargement of contralateral kidney
  • 70% genital anomaly
  • bicornuate uterus
  • seminal vesicle agenesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is a supernumerary kidney?

A

where there is the presence of an extra kidney with its own blood supply and ureter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is an ectopic kidney?

A

where one kidney fails to ascend from the pelvis to its proper location during development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

typically, where is the ectopic kidney located?

A

in the pelvis as a palpable mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pelvic kidney is prone to…

A

poor drainage, ureteral reflux, and hydronephrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is a dromedary hump?

A

a single hump of lobulation on the lateral border of the kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is a horseshoe kidney?

A

a developmental anomaly that occurs when the kidneys fuse together, creating a horseshoe-shaped structure in the lower abdomen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

where does a horseshoe kidney usually occur?

A

across the midline, anterior to the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what symptoms can occur with horseshoe kidney?

A

horseshoe kidney is asymptomatic, but increases the risk for complications such as infection, stones, obstruction, and hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how does horseshoe kidney appear on ultrasound?

A

a palpable mass anterior to the aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is a hypoplastic kidney?

A

a hypoplastic kidney is a congenitally small kidney that may be normal or often incompletely developed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is a duplex kidney?

A

where the developing kidney is divided into upper and lower sections. the lower section is usually larger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the most common renal anomaly?

A

double collecting system/ duplex kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

define complete double collecting system

A

two collecting systems and two ureters that both enter the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

define incomplete double collecting system

A

two collecting systems and two ureters that unite distally before entering the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which part of the kidney typically has problems?

A

the upper section of the kidney usually shows signs of hydronephrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

which disease processes are associated with duplex kidney?

A

obstruction and reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

duplex kidney is associated with ____ in females?

A

uterus didelphys (double uterus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how does duplex kidney appear on ultrasound?

A

the duplex kidney is usually enlarged, and the renal sinus appears as two echogenic regions separated by normal renal tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how do you check for two ureters?

A

you check for two ureters by seeing if there are two ureters exiting the hilum of the kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is an extrarenal pelvis?

A

an extrarenal pelvis is a renal pelvis that lies outside the renal sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how does an extrarenal pelvis appear on an ultrasound?

A

it appears as a cystic collection medial to the renal hilum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

define ARPKD

A

Autosomal Recessive Polycystic Kidney Disease. this is found in infants and causes a dilation of the renal collecting tubules in the renal cortex. it is life- threatening.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the risk factor for a recessive gene?

A

it can be very likely to occur if both parents carry the gene for the disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what does ARPKD look like on ultrasound?

A

the cysts are too small to be seen on ultrasound. The kidney appears echogenic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the survival rate of ARPKD?

A

survival rate is very low, most do not survive for very long.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is ADPKD?

A

autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the survival rate for a patient with ADPKD?

A

the survival rate is very high, but 50% of patients develop renal failure by 50 yoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

when do symptoms of ADPKD occur?

A

by the age of 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are the clinical signs of ADPKD?

A

infection, stones, or cystic rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how does ADPKD (PKD) appear on ultrasound?

A

multiple irregular cysts that consume the kidney’s tissue. the kidneys can also become enlarged. ADPKD can also be associated with liver, pancreas, and splenic cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Medullary cystic disease is a _____ gene.

A

dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

where are medullary cysts located?

A

in the medulla of the kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of medullary cystic disease?

A

small echo-dense kidneys due to numerous small cysts under 2cm

43
Q

multicystic dysplastic kidney disease is ______

A

nonhereditary

44
Q

what is the most common cystic pathology of the kidney?

A

multicystic dysplastic kidney is the most common pathology of the kidney in neonates

45
Q

what are the symptoms for multicystic dysplastic kidney?

A

mostly asymptomatic, but can cause polyuria, hypertension, infection, etc.

46
Q

what are the sonographic signs for multicystic dysplastic kidney disease?

A

numerous visible cysts under 1cm within the renal parenchyma

47
Q

define acquired cystic dysplasia

A

acquired cystic dysplasia is renal cysts that are acquired over time.

48
Q

when does acquired cystic dysplasia occur?

A

typically, acquired cystic dysplasia will occur when a patient undergoes dialysis

49
Q

what is medullary sponge kidney?

A

a nonhereditary disease where there is cystic dysplastic dilation of te collecting tubules (papillary necrosis)

50
Q

medullary sponge kidney is associated with what disease?

A

Caroli’s disease

51
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of medullary sponge kidney?

A

the medullary pyramids appear echogenic and sponge-like

52
Q

what do 80% of medullary sponge kidney patients have by the age of 40?

A

tubular ectasia and calcium stones

53
Q

what is pyelonephritis

A

an upper UTI

54
Q

what age group does pyelonephritis affect?

A

women in early child-bearing age

55
Q

what are the clinical symptoms for pyelonephritis?

A

fever, flank pain, frequency, hematuria, and dysuria.

56
Q

what does a kidney with an infection look like on utrasound?

A

it can look enlarged

57
Q

acute renal failure is caused by…

A

decreased renal function, usually caused by acute tubular necrosis

58
Q

what are the clinical symptoms for acute renal failure?

A

elevated creatine, hematuria, hypertension, sepsis, and severe dehydration

59
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of acute renal failure?

A

normal or elarged kidney, hydronephrosis, and an abnormal resistive index (RI)

60
Q

define chronic renal failure

A

chronic renal failure develops over a long period of time where there is a decreased amount of renal function

61
Q

what are the clinical symptoms of chronic renal failure?

A

anemia, headaches, hypertension, weight loss, N/V, pruritis, polyuria, nocturia, and chronic UTIs

62
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of chronic renal failure?

A

chronic renal failure appears as a small kidney with a loss of cortical (cortex) thickness <2cm, and a hyperechoic cortex (loss of normal anatomy)

63
Q

list the pre-existing conditions for renal failure

A
  • hypertension
  • hypotension
  • CHF
64
Q

what are the renal causes for renal failure?

A
  • infection
  • nephrotoxicity
  • renal artery occlusion
  • renal mass or cyst
65
Q

what are other causes of renal failure?

A
  • lower urinary tract obstruction
  • retroperitoneal obstruction
66
Q

what are the 3 types of chronic renal failure?

A
  • nephron
  • vascular
  • interstitial
67
Q

how common are renal cysts?

A

50% of the population over 50 have renal cysts

68
Q

what are the two types of renal cysts

A

cortical and peripelvic cysts

69
Q

where are perapelvic cysts located?

A

located in the hilum but do not project into the renal pelvis

70
Q

what are the medical terms for kidney stones?

A

nephrolithiasis, renal calculi, and nephrocalcinosis

71
Q

what are kidney stones made of?

A

calcium or uric acid

72
Q

what might cause kidney stones?

A

change in pH or uric acid, hereditary, bacteria, or high calcium levels

73
Q

who is commonly affected by kidney stones?

A

white men from the age of 20-50

74
Q

what are the clinical symptoms of kidney stones?

A

hematuria, oliguria, flank pain, and pyuria

75
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of kidney stones?

A

kidney stones appear as echogenic foci with strong shadow posterior to the stone

76
Q

what is hydronephrosis?

A

where the renal pelvis and calyces become dilated due to obstructed outflow of urine

77
Q

what are some common causes of hydronephrosis?

A

stones, prostate hypertrophy, prostate CA, or pelvic malignancy

78
Q

what percentage of women present with hydronephrosis?

A

65% to 85%

79
Q

what is mild or grade 1 for hydronephrosis?

A

slight separation of the collecting system

80
Q

what is moderate or grade 2 for hydronephrosis?

A

dilation of some but not all calyces

81
Q

what is severe or grade 3 for hydronephrosis?

A

dilation of all calyces

82
Q

what is severe or grade 4 for hydronephrosis?

A

prominent dilation or thinning cortex

83
Q

where is a transplanted kidney placed?

A

in the pelvis/ iliac fossa

84
Q

in a transplant, where is the renal artery relocated?

A

the common iliac artery

85
Q

what are the clinical signs of a transplant rejection?

A

fever, pain, decreased output, and elevated creatine levels

86
Q

what are the sonographic signs of rejection?

A

fluid, swollen with loss of internal structures, hydronephrosis, etc.

87
Q

what is the most correctable cause of hypertension?

A

renal artery stenosis

88
Q

what is the most common cause of renal artery stenosis?

A

ateriosclerosis

89
Q

what are the clinical signs of renal artery stenosis?

A

rapid onset of hypertension, elevated BUN, elevated creatine, and flank pain

90
Q

what are the doppler signs of renal stenosis?

A

RI = >.7
RAR (renal artery ratio) is 3.5x greater than that of the aorta.
tardus parvus waveform may be present with stones

91
Q

when you have decreased blood flow to the kidneys, the kidney will be ____

A

enlarged

92
Q

what is the most common cause of renal failure?

A

acute tubular necrosis (ATN)

93
Q

what are the causes of ATN?

A

surgery, sepsis, hypotenstion, pregnancy complication, obstetric jaundice

94
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of ATN?

A

bilateral enlarged kidney and increased RI

95
Q

renal vein thrombosis is most common in _____

A

children

96
Q

renal vein thrombosis is associated with ______

A

trauma or tumor

97
Q

what are the clinical symptoms of renal thrombosis?

A

massive proteinuria, epigastric pain, hematuria, and dehydration

98
Q

what are the sonographic signs of renal thrombus?

A
  • size increase in acute phase and cortex decreases
  • later stages-kidney decreases
  • enlarged renal vein with no flow
  • renal artery will have retrograde and diastolic flow
99
Q

what is artery occlusion?

A

the absence of blood flow in the main renal artery

100
Q

what are the clinical symptoms of renal artery occlusion?

A

sudden hypertension, flank pain, elevated BUN, and elevated creatine

101
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of renal artery occlusion?

A

small kidney that is less than 1.5cm shorter than the other

102
Q

what is a renal infarction?

A

where part of the renal tissue undergoes necrosis from an arterial occlusion

103
Q

what are the causes of a renal infarction?

A

thrombosis, tumor, or occlusion

104
Q

what is the sonographic appearance of a renal infarction?

A

renal infarction appears as a triangular, echogenic mass in the renal parenchyma

Abdominal Pathologies (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions