Key concepts part 5 Flashcards
what should be co-administered with isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuropathy?
Pridoxine (vit B6)
what are the indications for dialysis?
A - acidosis (<7.1) E - electrolytes (rapidly rising K) I - intoxication O - (fluid) overload U - uraemia (encephalopathy, pericarditis, neuropathy)
how does viral meningitis present on lumbar puncture
clear CSF with lots of lymphocytes and a normal opening pressure
what is the most common cuase of viral meningitis
enteroviruses ( cockaskie)
what is the MOA of fondaparineux?
activates antthrombin III
what drug is used to manage tremor in drug induced parkinsonism?
procyclidine
what TB drug is associated with gout
pyrazinamide
how does loperamide reduce gastric motility>
stimulating opioid receptors
what gene mutation is associated with HNPCC
MSH2/MLH1
how does hypoglossal palsy present? and vagus palsy?
Hypoglossal = tongue goes to side of lesion
Vagus = uvula goes ‘uver way
what should be reported to the yellow card scheme?
- all adverse reactions to new meds (black triangle)
- all adverse reactions involving children
how does the presentation of a bleeding peptic ulcer differ from a perforated peptic ulcer?
bleeding = hypotension and melena perforated = peritonitis + hypo + melena
what electrolyte pattern is associated with tumour lysis syndrome and what is the prophylactic management?
Hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcaemia
Allopurinol
how is bacterial vaginosis managed in pregnancy?
still use oral metronidazole 400mg bd for 7 days
what is the management of alcohol withdrawal/delirium tremens?
long acting benzo (chlordiazepoxide, diazepam)
what is the most common cuase of occupational asthma
isocyanates
what is gallstone ileus
small bowel obstruction secondary to impacted gallstones
what is the testing timeline for HIV
initial test then one 12 weeks post exposure
what are the anaphylaxis doses across age groups?
under 6 y/old = 150mcg IM
6-11 = 300mcg IM
>11 = 500mcg IM
1 in 1000
which diuretic type causes sexual dysfunction?
thiazide like diuretics (indapamide)
management of whooping cough
azithromycin or clarithromycin
what is the acute liver failure triad?
encephalopathy + jaundice + coagulopathy
at what age shoudl you start referring women with a breast lump to the cancer pathway
30
what scans can be used to quickly assess the presence of fluid in the abdomne/chest
FAST (USS)
what prophylaxis should a HIV patient with CD4 count of less than 200 have
cotrimoxazole for prophylaxis against pneumocystis jirovecci
what are the HBA1c targets for patients receiving treatment?
HBA1c <48 for those on lifestyle/monotherapy with non-hypoglycaemic agent
HbA1c <53 for those on monotherapy with hypoglyacemic agent
HbA1c 58 or above needs addition of second drug
which SSRI is most commonly associated with prolonged QT
citalopram
what drug can be used for acute flares of rheumatoid arthritis?
IM or oral steroids
what are some features of absence seizures?
- good prognosis
- typically present age 3-10
- may be triggered by hyperventilation or stress
- has a characteristic EEG image
what are the bisphosphonate holiday rules
if been on bisphos for 5 years and are low risk ( ie <75, no steroid use, no fractures while on meds, no hip/vertebral #, normal T score) then can stop the bisphos and review in a couple years
hyperthyroid + painful goitre
De Quervians
what is the protocol for seizures
- ABCDE
- Benzo (ie IV lorazepam - 2x max)
- phenytoin or phenobarbital
- no response within 45 mins of onset then induce with GA
pepperpot skull
hyperparathyroidism
what insulin type do you use for DKA? and for major surgery?
DKA = fixed rate insulin (continue long acting + stop short acting)
Major surgery = variable rate insulin
what is the most common cuase of primary hyperparathyroidism
solitary adenoma
what drug can be used for acute flares of rheumatoid arthritis?
IM steroids
what anticoagulant should be used in patients with mechanical heart valves?
warfarin
