Just Another Deck Flashcards
1
Q
PSEU LIGHT:
What does it mean?
A
Proximity Switch Electronic Unit
2
Q
PSEU LIGHT:
What does it
A
Takeoff Configuration Warnings
Landing Configuration Warnings
Landing Gear
Air/Ground Sensing
3
Q
What will happen if the stabilizer trim is operated with the autopilot engaged?
A
It will disengage
4
Q
How many degrees will the tiller deflect the nose gear?
A
78 degrees (75 degree effective turn) – 1.10.2
5
Q
What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn?
A
73 feet – 1.10.2 FOM 93 feet
6
Q
What describes the largest arc during a turn?
A
The tail (68 feet from rotation point; just inside of inside gear) – 1.10.2
7
Q
What is the first light that should illuminate when we move the IRS Mode Selector to the NAV position?
What should we see after that?
-How long does it take to complete a normal alignment?
A
- The ON DC light should illuminate, indicating a short power test is being performed. – 11.20.4
- ON DC light will extinguish, the ALIGN light will illuminate, and the alignment process will illuminate. – 11.20.4
8
Q
Is there any way to monitor how long until the alignment process is complete? 11.10.10
A
Yes. By selecting “HDG/STS” on the IRS DISPLAY’s Display Selector. (it will display seven minutes until 6 minutes remain during the alignment process, and then will display the actual amount of time remaining).
9
Q
What does it mean if the ALIGN light is flashing? 11.10.11
A
. 1) A significant difference between the previous and entered position (unreasonable present position)
. 2) No present position entered
10
Q
During the Secure Procedure, when the IRS Mode Selector is moved to OFF, what should you see on the IRS Mode Selector Unit?
A
The ALIGN light should illuminate until the system is completely shut down (approximately 30 seconds). 11.20.6
11
Q
If AC power is lost, where do the IRSs get their electrical power? 11.20.6
A
The switched hot battery bus.
12
Q
How long will each IRS operate if AC power is lost? 11.20.6; 11.11
A
The left for as long as DC power is available; DC power to the right IRS is automatically terminated if AC power is not restored within 5 minutes.
13
Q
Is there a system to warn people on the ground that the IRSs are operating and AC power has been lost? 11.20.6
A
Yes. Warning horn in the wheel well will sound.
14
Q
Name one reason that the REVERSER light on the aft overheard panel would be illuminated. 7.10.14
A
The REVERSER light on the aft overhead panel will illuminate for one or more of the following reasons:
- Isolation valve or thrust reverser control valve is not in the commanded position - Thrust reverser sleeve position sensors are in disagreement - Auto-reset circuit has been activated
The REVERSER light illuminates when the thrust reverser is commanded to stow and extinguishes 10 seconds later when the isolation valve closes. Any time the REVERSER light illuminates for more than approximately 12 seconds, a malfunction has occurred, and the MASTER CAUTION and ENG system annunciator lights illuminate.
15
Q
Since the oxygen bottles next to the supernumerary seats are not controlled by the passenger oxygen switch, does that switch even do anything on our airplanes?
A
Yes.
It activates the passenger oxygen in the lavatory
16
Q
What are the PMC’s? 7.20.2
A
Power Management Control.
The PMCs, along with the Main Engine Control, make up the thrust management system.
17
Q
With the PMCs operational, do we have complete protection from overboost if the thrust levers are advanced to the full forward position? 7.20.1
If one of them fails, can we still depart?
If yes, are we allowed to utilize the operable PMC? L.10.6
A
No. Some overboost will still occur if the thrust levers are advanced to full forward even with the PMCs operational.
L.10.6 Yes
NO, Refer to the DDG
18
Q
What do the PMCs do?
A
7.20.2
The PMC uses MEC power level angle, N1 speed, and inlet temperature and pressure to adjust, or trim, the MEC to obtain the desired N1 speed. The PMC adjust fuel flow as a function of thrust level angle.
Provides a constant thrust climb feature. Once climb thrust is set, the PMC maintains the desired thrust throughout the climb profile without the need for further thrust lever movement.
19
Q
If the PMC fails or is selected off, how is engine speed controlled? 7.20.2
A
By the hydro-mechanical MEC only.
20
Q
Will the PMC INOP light be illuminated prior to engine start? 7.20.2
A
No. It is suppressed below starter cutout engine speed.
21
Q
How many engine idle speeds are there? 7.20.2
A
Two
22
Q
What are they? 7.20.2
A
High and Low
23
Q
Is it normal to see the LOW IDLE light illuminated in flight? 7.20.2
A
No.
The minimum speed for all flight phases is high idle
24
Q
Is high idle the same engine speed for all flight conditions? 7.20.2
A
No.
As temperature and airspeed decrese, high idle speed also decreases. The average high idle setting is 32% N1.
25
What percent N1 is low idle speed, and when is it automatically selected? 7.20.2
Approximately 22%; four seconds after touchdown.
26
What purpose does low idle serve? 7.20.2
It reduces braking activity and stopping distance.
27
What is the purpose of the four second delay? 7.20.2
It provides enhanced engine speed acceleration for reverse thrust.
28
When will the LOW IDLE light on the aft overhead panel illuminate? 7.10.14
- Thrust lever for either engine is near idle and the MEC on either engine is not commanded to maintain high idle in flight
- The speed of either engine is below 25% N1 in flight
29
What happens when the MAIN CARGO COMPARTMENT AIR SUPPLY SHUTOFF switch is moved to the off position? 2.10.7
Airflow to the main cabin is shutoff, while airflow to the flight deck continues.
30
When does the Flight Recorder operate? 14.20.8
- In flight – When Transfer Bus 1 is powered
- On Ground – Transfer Bus 1 is powered AND either engine is operating
When is the cockpit voice recorder active? 5.1.10
Anytime 115 volt AC power is applied to the airplane.
31
How can you silence the Mach/Airspeed Warning System if you are exceeding Vmo/Mmo? 15.20.8
You can only silence it by slowing below Vmo/Mmo
32
If the captain’s stick shaker fails inflight, and the aircraft subsequently approaches a stall, will the captain’s yoke still vibrate? 15.10.3
Yes. Vibrations are felt in both columns though control interconnects when either stick shaker activates.
33
Can a single hydraulic system operate all primary flight controls? 9.20.1
Yes
34
What primary flight controls may still be operated with the loss of all hydraulic systems? 9.20.1
Ailerons and elevators (control forces will be higher due to friction and aerodynamic loads)
35
Can the rudder still be operated with the loss of both A and B hydraulic systems? 9.20.1
Yes.
| Through the standby hydraulic system.
36
What happens when the FLT CONTROL switch is moved to the OFF position? 9.10.1
Closes the flight control shutoff valve isolating the ailerons, elevators, and rudder from associated hydraulic system pressure.
37
What two ways can we manual activate the Standby Hydraulic Pump? 13.20.4
- Positioning either FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD
| - Positioning the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to ARM
38
What happens when the FLT CONTROL switch is moved to STBY RUD? 13.20.4
- Activates the standby electric motor-driven pump
- Shuts off the related hydraulic system pressure to ailerons, elevators and rudder by closing
the flight control shutoff valve
- Opens the standby rudder shutoff valve
- Deactivates the related flight control LOW PRESSURE light when the standby rudder shutoff
valve opens
- Allows the standby system to power the rudder and thrust reversers
- Illuminates the STBY RUD ON, Master Caution, and Flight Controls (FLT CONT) lights.
39
What happens when the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch is moved to ARM? 13.20.4
- Activates the standby electric motor-driven pump
- Closes the trailing edge flap bypass valves
- Arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch
- Allows the standby system to power the leading edge slaps and slats and thrust reversers
40
What will cause Automatic Operation of the standby hydraulic system? 13.20.5
- Loss of system A or B, or rudder pressure reducer system fails in low pressure mode, and
- Flaps extended, and
- Airborne or wheel speed greater than 60 knots, and
- FLT CONTROL switch A or B hydraulic system ON
OR
- The main PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) trips
41
What does automatic operation of the Standby Hydraulic system cause?13.20.5
- Opens the standby rudder shutoff valve
- Activates the standby electric motor-driven pump
- Allows the standby system to power the rudder and thrust reversers
- Illuminates the STBY RUD ON, Master Caution, and Flight Controls (FLT CONT) lights
42
What is the Elevator Feel System? 9.20.6
The elevator feel system uses the elevator feel computer to provide simulated aerodynamic forces using airspeed (from the elevator pitot system) and stabilizer position. Feel is transmitted to the control columns by the elevator feel and centering unit. To operate the feel system the elevator feel computer uses either hydraulic system A or B pressure, whichever is higher.
When either hydraulic system or elevator feel pitot system fail, excessive differential pressure is sensed in the elevator feel computer, and the FEEL DIFF PRESS light illuminates
43
When is the Feel Differential Pressure light armed? 9.10.3
Trailing edge flaps are up
44
What does it mean if the light is illuminated? 9.10.3
Excessive differential pressure in the elevator feel computer
45
What is the Speed Trim System? 9.20.9
The speed trim system is designed to improve flight characteristics during operations with a low gross weight, aft CG, high thrust. It monitors inputs of stabilizer position, thrust lever position,
airspeed, and vertical speed and then trims the stabilizer using the autopilot stabilizer system. Operates most frequently during takeoff and go-arounds
46
Conditions for speed trim operations:
- Flaps up or down
- Airspeed 100 – 300 KIAS
- 10 seconds after takeoff
- 5 seconds following release of trim switches
- N1 above 60%
- Autopilot not engaged
- Sensing of a trim requirement
47
What is indicated if the SPEED TRIM FAIL light illuminates when the Master Caution recall light recall is pressed, and extinguishes when the master caution system is reset? 9.10.3
Failure of a single FCC channel
48
Will the system still operate?
Yes
49
What is Mach Trim? 9.20.6
Above Mach .615, the Mach trim system automatically adjusts the elevators with respect to the stabilizer as speed increases.
The Mach trim actuator repositions the elevator feel and centering unit, which adjusts the control column neutral position.
50
In flight, you notice that both your EADI and EHSI go completely blank at the same time. What is the likely cause of this, and is there anything that you can do to restore your displays? 10.40.1, 10.32.29
The onside symbol generator has failed. The display can be restored by selecting the Electronic Flight Instrument (EFI) switch to Both on the operating side.
51
What is indicated by the FUEL VALVE CLOSED light being illuminated bright blue? 12.10.1
The related fuel shutoff valve:
- Is in transit, or
- Valve position and engine start level or engine fire switch disagree
52
Which valve position is indicated by the FUEL VALVE CLOSED light?
12.10.1 The Engine fuel shutoff valve.
53
Are the fuel valves and crossfeed valve AC or DC powered?
DC
54
From what bus? 12.20.2
Hot battery bus
55
From which tank is the fuel temperature sensed? 12.10.1
Number one tank.
56
If the fuel filter bypass light illuminates, what is indicated? 12.10.2
Impending fuel filter bypass due to a contaminated filter.
57
Can you feed fuel to the APU from the number two tank?
| If so, how? 7.30.1
Yes. Open the crossfeed selector and turn on either of the number two AC fuel pumps.
58
If AC fuel pumps are not operating, how is fuel supplied to the APU? 7.30.1, 7.30.2
Fuel is suction fed to the APU from the number 1 tank if the AC fuel pumps are not operating. On some airplanes, a DC fuel pump provides positive fuel pressure to the APU, but only until the APU is at governed speed and ready to accept a load.
59
With all six fuel pumps in the off position, how many fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights should be illuminated? 12.10.2, 12.10.3
4, The center tank low pressure lights will not be illuminated when the pump switches are in the off position
60
In flight, both center fuel tank pump low pressure lights and the Master Caution light illuminate, causing you to turn off the center tank pumps even though there is fuel remaining in the center tank. What happens to the fuel that remains in the center tank? 12.20.4
When the center tank pump switches are both turned off, the fuel scavenge shutoff valve opens, allowing fuel from the number 1 forward main tank to operate the center tank scavenge jet pump.
61
How long will the scavenge pump operate? 12.20.4
20 minutes after the center wing tank pumps are turned off.
62
Where is the fuel scavenged to? 12.20.
Main tank 1
63
Which tanks can be pressure refueled? 12.20.3
Both main tanks and the center tank
64
If pressure fueling is not available, which tanks can be filled directly using over wing fueling?
12.20.3 Both main tanks.
65
Is there any way to get fuel into the center tank if pressure refueling is not available? 12.20.3
Yes. Through ground tank to tank fuel transfer
66
What are the approximate fuel tank quantities? 12.20.4
Each main tank – 8,630
Center tank – 28,803
Total tank capacity – 46,063
67
I walk onto a completely dark airplane and want to apply power to it. How do I do that? SP.6.1
The Electrical Power Up Supplementary Procedure
68
What are the phase, volts, and cycles of the AC electrical system? 6.20.1
3 phase, 115 volts, 400 hz
69
What are the different sources of normal AC electrical power?6.20.1
Main engine generators, APU generator, AC external
70
Can the different sources of AC power be paralleled? 6.20.1
No
71
How do the engine generators provide electrical power at a constant frequency? 6.20.1
Through a generator drive unit that maintains a constant frequency throughout the normal operating range of the engine
72
What is indicated by a “RISE” indication of the Generator Drive Oil Temp of more than 20 degrees C? 6.20.6
Excessive generator load, or poor generator drive condition.
73
If the Generator Disconnect switch is used to disconnect the generator, can the generator be re-engaged in flight? 6.10.4
No
74
Does the APU have a generator drive unit? 6.20.1
No
Why not? 6.20.1
| It is not needed since the APU is governed to maintain a constant speed.
75
Can the APU power both Generator Busses while on the ground? 6.20.4
Yes.
76
Can the APU power both Generator Busses in flight? 7.30.1
No.
77
What is the purpose of the Bus Transfer system? 6.20.4
Allows the AC transfer busses to be powered from the offside GEN Bus in the event that the onside generator bus becomes unpowered (occurs automatically with the switch in the AUTO position).
78
With the loss of all AC generators, how is the Standby Bus powered? 6.20.10
From the battery, through a static inverter.
79
In flight, with the STANDBY POWER switch in AUTO, and the loss of all AC generators, what will happen? 6.20.10
The AC standby bus will be powered from the battery via a static inverter, and the DC standby bus, battery bus, and switched hot battery bus are powered by the battery.
80
With the STANDBY POWER switch in the AUTO position, and the loss of all AC generators, what will happen upon touchdown? 6.20.10
Air ground logic will prevent the battery from continuing to power the AC and DC standby busses. As a result, all equipment powered by the AC and DC standby busses is lost until the STANDBY POWER switch is moved to the BAT position.
81
How long will a fully charged battery continue to provide power to the essential flight instruments following the loss of all AC generators? 6.20.10
At least 30 minutes
82
How do we produce DC power on the airplane? 6.20.8
Three transformer Rectifier Units convert 115 volt AC power to 28 volt DC power
83
How many batteries do we have on our airplanes?
One
84
How many volts is the battery? 6.20.8
24 volts
85
Are DC Bus 1 and 2 generally paralleled? 6.20.8
Yes. Via the TR 3 disconnect relay.
86
What happens in the DC electrical system during a flight director or autopilot approach? 6.20.8
The TR 3 disconnect relay automatically opens to prevent a single failure from affecting both navigation receivers and flight control computers.
87
With the battery switch off, and ground power available, can I connect external AC ground power? 6.20.2
No
88
Can we start the APU with the airplane battery switch in the OFF position? 7.30.2
No
89
If the APU is running and the battery switch is moved to the OFF position, will the APU shutdown? 7.30.2
On the ground – Yes
| In flight – No
90
If the APU Maintenance light is illuminated, can we operate the APU? 7.10.6
Yes
91
The Low Oil Pressure light illuminates during an APU start attempt. Is this normal? 7.10.16
Yes
92
What will cause the APU to automatically shutdown? 7.10.16-17, 8.20.4
- APU Low oil pressure (after start cycle is complete) - APU overspeed
- APU Fault
- APU Fire
93
What is the function of the Equipment Cooling System? 2.31.6
It cools electronic equipment on the flight deck and in the E&E bay.
94
Is there any indication to ground personnel that there is a problem with the system? 2.31.6
The crew call horn in the nose wheel well will sound.
95
In flight, what is the E&E cooling air used for? 2.31.6
It is used to warm the lower forward cargo compartment
96
With the Emergency Exit Lights switch in the ARMED position, what will cause the emergency lights to illuminate automatically? 1.30.6
- Electrical power to DC Bus 1 fails
| - AC power is removed from the aircraft
97
Why would we want to use the ON position as opposed to the AUTO position for the Supernumerary signs? 1.40.4
In auto:
- the no smoking sign will extinguish when the gear is retracted.
- Seat belt/return to seat signs will extinguish when the flaps and gear are retracted
98
With the window heat selected on, and the green ON light extinguished, is there a problem with the window heat? 3.10.1
Can’t tell by this indication alone. There could be an overheat or failure, or the window may simply be at the correct temperature.
99
Which of the windows is not electrically heated? 3.20.2
Window L3/R3
100
Which surfaces are protected by the Wing Anti-Ice? 3.20.4
The slats (but not the leading edge flaps)
101
Will the wing anti-ice work on the ground? 3.20.5
Yes.
102
Will the wing anti-ice work with the slats extended? 3.20.4
Yes
103
With the wing anti-ice selected on while on the ground, what will cause the wing anti-ice valves to close? 3.20.5
- Either engine thrust is above the takeoff warning setting, or
- Either temperature sensor detects a duct over temp
104
Will the wing anti-ice valves reopen when the thrust levers are retarded below the takeoff warning position? 3.20.5
Yes
105
When will the wing anti-ice switch automatically trip to the off position? 3.20.5
At lift-off
106
Will the engine anti-ice work both in flight and on the ground? 3.20.3
Yes
107
Will engine anti-ice function with the engine bleed air switch in the OFF position? 3.20.4
Yes
108
What stage bleed air does the anti-ice use? 3.20.4
5th and 9th; the same as the pneumatic system
109
What is indicated if the amber COWL ANTI-ICE light illuminates? 3.20.3
Over temp or over pressure
110
If the COWL VALVE OPEN light remains illuminated bright blue with the engines at idle, what can be done to correct the issue? SP.16.10
Increase engine thrust slightly (minimum of 30%)
111
How many hydraulic systems do we have, and what are they? 13.10.1 3;
A, B, Standby
112
What is the normal pressure of the hydraulic systems? 13.10.2
3,000 psi
113
What are the maximum and minimum hydraulic system pressures? NP.21.32, 34, 13.10.2
3,500; 2,800
114
What is the minimum hydraulic system quantity?
88% (only valid on the ground)
115
What systems are powered by the hydraulic systems? 13.20.1
- flight controls
- leading edge flaps and slats
- trailing edge flaps
- landing gear
- wheel brakes
- nose wheel steering
- thrust reversers
- autopilots
116
Is there any decrease in airplane controllability with the loss of a single hydraulic system? 13.20.1
No
117
With regard to the hydraulic system, what is the bleed air system used for?13.20.1
It is used to pressurize the reservoirs
118
What kind of pumps do hydraulic systems A and B have? 13.20.1
1 engine driven pump, and one AC electric motor-driven pump per system
119
Which pump provides more fluid volume? How much? 13.20.2
The engine driven pumps; approximately four times
120
How is the hydraulic fluid cooled? 13.20.2
A heat exchanger located in the fuel tanks (A system in main tank 1, and B system in main tank 2).
121
What is the minimum fuel required in the main fuel tank in order for the associated electric pump to be selected on on the ground? 13.20.3
1,675 pounds
122
If a leak develops in one of the engine driven hydraulic pumps, will all fluid quantity be lost? 13.20.3
No. A standpipe in the reservoir will prevent total system loss if a leak develops in the engine driven hydraulic pump or related lines (22% for system A, 40% for system B).
123
Will all system quantity be lost if a leak develops in the electric motor driven pump? 13.20.3
Yes.
124
System B hydraulic quantity is lost a result a leak in the electric motor driven pump. Will the power transfer unit still function? 13.20.3
Yes, Sufficient fluid quantity will remain for operation of the power transfer unit.
125
If a leak develops in the standby hydraulic system, will system B also be lost? 13.20.7
No. Although the hydraulic system B quantity will decrease until indicating approximately 64%.
126
If the engine driven pump switch is selected off, does the pump stop moving? 13.20.2
No. The pump continues to rotate, but the pump is isolated from the rest of the system.
127
What systems can be powered by the standby hydraulic system? 13.20.4
- Thrust reversers
- Rudder
- Leading edge flaps and slats (extend only)
128
Is there a light that tells us that the main deck cargo door not being sensed in the closed position? 1.30.9
Yes. Located on the center instrument panel.
129
Could the door accidentally be operated in flight using the hydroelectric pump? 1.40.21
No. The door is electrically un-powered in flight.
130
What is the wind limit for the entry, service, and lower cargo doors? 1.30.11
Do not operate the entry or lower cargo doors with winds at the door of more than 40 knots.
Do not keep entry or lower cargo doors open when wind gusts are more than 65 knots. –
131
With external ground power connected, and the battery switch in the OFF position, can the main deck cargo door be positioned using the electrical pump? 1.40.21
No. DC Bus 2 must be powered in order to operate the electric hydraulic pump.
132
Is there another means to open the door that will work without the application of electrical power?
Yes. A hand operated hydraulic pump is available.
133
How do we provide warmer air for the zones which need warmer air? 2.31.4
Using the trim air system.
134
When does a dual bleed situation exist? L.10.6
- APU bleed air valve open and number 1 engine bleed air valve open
- APU bleed air valve open, isolation valve open, and number 2 engine bleed air valve open
- APU bleed air valve open, isolation valve open, and ground air connected
135
Which of the dual bleed configurations will not result in the dual bleed light being illuminated? 2.20.1
Ground air connected with the APU bleed air valve open and isolation valve open
136
When will the RAM AIR doors move to the full open position? 2.31.2
On the ground, or in flight with the flaps out of up.
137
With both AC packs operating, and the switch in AUTO, will the packs regulate to high or low flow? 2.10.4
Low flow
138
With only one pack operating, and the switch in auto, what will happen? 2.10.4
The pack will regulate to high flow.
139
What happens when the ENGINE START switch is moved to the GRD position? 7.10.12
- Opens the start valve
- Closes the engine bleed air valve
- Provides ignition to the selected ignitor(s) when the engine start lever is moved to IDLE
140
What is the difference between the CONT and FLT positions on the ENGINE START switches? 7.20.12
On Ground, ignition is provided to the selected ignitor(s) when engine start lever is in IDLE. In FLT, ignition is provided to both ignitors (regardless of ignitor selection) when the engine start lever is in IDLE
141
Which ignition system, Left or Right, is considered more critical? Why?
The right is more critical, since it is powered by the AC Standby Bus, and would therefore still be powered even with the loss of all AC gens (Left is powered by the AC Transfer Bus).
142
So, the inboard and outboard landing lights are those lights in the wing root. Right? 1.40.1
No. Those are the inboard landing lights and the runway turnoff lights.
143
Where are the outboard landing lights? 1.40.1
The outboard flap fairing
144
What hydraulic system powers landing gear extension and retraction? 14.20.1
System A
145
Is there an alternate means for extending the landing gear if system A hydraulics are lost? 14.20.2
Yes. The manual gear extension system releases the uplocks and allows the gear to extending via gravity and air loads.
146
What is the Landing Gear Transfer Unit? 13.20.4
It supplies pressurized hydraulic fluid needed to raise the landing gear at the normal rate when system A is lost due to number 1 engine RPM loss. The B system engine driven pump supplies the pressurized hydraulic fluid needed to operate the landing gear transfer unit.
147
When does the Landing Gear Transfer Unit operate? 13.20.4
When all of the following conditions exist:
- airborne
- number 1 engine RPM drops below a limit value
- LANDING GEAR lever is positioned up
- Either main landing gear is not up and locked
148
With the landing gear up and the flaps set to 15 degrees, can you silence the landing gear warning horn?
BAD Q
No. Because flaps 15 is a landing flap setting.
More to it than this. Bad question.
If the primary landing gear indication system isn’t functioning, how would we verify that the main landing gear is down and locked?
Via the secondary main landing gear down and lock indicators on the after overhead panel.
149
What hydraulic system is primary for nosewheel steering? 14.20.3
System A
150
How does the alternate nosewheel steering system powered? 14.20.3
Using system B
151
What system powers the normal brakes? 14.20.4
System B
152
Is there a backup if hydraulic system B fails? 14.20.4
Yes. System A.
153
Are autobrakes available using the alternate brake system? 14.20.5
No. They are only available with the use of the normal brake system
154
Is antiskid available with the alternate brake system? 14.20.4
Yes. But antiskid is limited to wheel pairs instead of individual wheels. Also, locked wheel and touchdown protection is lost.
155
Is antiskid protection available with the loss of both hydraulic sytems? 14.20.4
Yes
156
When the AUTO BRAKES selector is positioned to RTO or one of the landing settings, if the AUTOBRAKE DISARM light illuminates briefly, is that normal? 14.20.5
Yes.
It is conducting a self-test.
157
Extinguishing of the light indicates that the test was succesful What conditions are necessary in order to arm RTO?
- On the ground
- Antiskid and autobrakes operational
- AUTO BRAKE select switch positioned to RTO
- Wheel speed less than 60 knots
- Forward thrust levers at idle
158
With regard to RTO, what happens at 60 knots? 14.20.5
RTO activates
159
What happens between 60 and 90 knots if a takeoff is rejected? 14.20.5
The autobrake disarm light illuminates and autobraking is NOT initiated.
160
What happens if the takeoff is rejected above 90 knots? 14.20.5
Autobraking is initiated when the thrust levers are retarded to idle.
161
When will the autobrakes activate upon landing? 14.20.5
Both thrust levers retarded to idle
Main wheel spin-up
162
How can we disarm the autobrakes after landing? 14.20.6
| 4 things
- Moving the speedbrake lever to the down detent
- Advancing the thrust levers after touchdown
- Applying manual brakes
– Selecting to off
163
When the flap handle is moved to position 1, what position do the leading edge flaps and slats move to? 9.20.14
- Leading edge flaps to the extended position
| - Leading edge slats to the intermediate position
164
At what flap selection are the slats in the fully extended position? 9.20.14
Beyond 5
165
Do we have any sort of flap load relief on the 737? 9.20.14
Yes.
When the flaps are set at 40 degrees, the flaps will automatically retract to 30 if airspeed exceeds 162 knots, and will re-extend when speed is reduced to 157 knots.
166
What is the autoslat system? 9.20.15
With flaps selected to 1, 2, and 5, autoslats will automatically drive the slats to the fully extended position if the aircraft approaches a stall
167
What is the function of the power transfer unit? 13.20.3
The power transfer unit supplies the additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate the auto-slats and leading edge flaps and slats at the normal rate when the system B engine-driven hydraulic pump volume is lost. The PTU uses system A pressure to power a hydraulic motor- driven pump, which pressurizes system B hydraulic fluid.
168
When will the PTU operate? 13.20.3-4
- airborne
- system B engine-driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits
- flaps are less than 15, but not up
169
Is there an alternate means of extending the flaps and slats? If so, how does it function? 9.20.15
Yes.
The trailing edge flaps can be positioned electronically using the ALTERNATE FLAPS switch. The leading edge flaps and slats can be extended using power from the standby hydraulic pump, but cannot be retracted once they are extended
170
When will the auto speed brake system operate on landing? 9.20.12
- SPEED BRAKE lever in the armed position
- SPEED BRAKE ARMED light is illuminated
- Both thrust levers at IDLE
- Main landing gear wheel spin up
– flight spoilers deploy
- Right main gear strut compression
– ground spoilers deploy
171
When else will the auto speed brake system operate? 9.20.12 During an RTO when:
- Wheel spin up great than 60 knots
- Both thrust levers moved to IDLE
- Reverse thrust is selected
172
What happens when the APU fire switch is pulled? 8.10.2
- Arms the APU extinguisher circuit
- Closes the APU fuel shutoff valve, APU bleed air valve, and APU inlet door
- Trips the generator control relay and breaker
- Allows the APU fire switch to rotate
173
How many APU fire bottles are there?
8.10.2
One
174
How many loops are in the APU fire detection system? 8.20.3
One
175
What happens when you pull the engine fire switch? 8.10.2
- Arms one squib on each extinguisher
- Closes fuel, hydraulic, and engine bleed air valves
- Deactivates the engine driven hydraulic
pump LOW PRESSURE light
- Trips the generator control relay and breaker
- Disables thrust reverser
`- Allows the engine fire switch to rotate
176
How many loops are in the engine fire detection system? 8.20.1
Two
177
How many engine fire bottles are there? 8.20.2
Two
178
What bus is engine and APU fire detection on? 8.20.1, 8.20.3
Extinguishing? 8.20.1, 8.20.3
Battery bus
Hot battery bus
179
What are we testing with the Extinguisher TEST switch? 8.10.1
The circuitry, not the bottles themselves
180
How many fire bottles are there for the lower cargo compartments?
One
181
Is the airplane equipped with fire suppression equipment for the main cargo compartment? 8.20.6
No
182
Will the master fire warning light illuminate and the fire warning bell sound if smoke is detected on the main cargo deck? 8.20.5
No
183
What are your indications that there is a fire on the main cargo deck? 8.20.5
Both CARGO SMOKE lights illuminate and the associated smoke detector light(s) illuminate
184
What two different ways do we have to close the engine fuel shutoff valve in the wing leading edge? 7.20.4
The engine fire switch and the engine start lever can both be used to close the engine fuel shutoff valve.
185
What controls the MEC fuel shutoff valve? 7.20.4
The engine start lever.
186
When will the takeoff warning horn sound? 15.20.6
| 6 items
- Trailing edge flaps not in the flaps 5 to 15 takeoff range, or
- Leading edge devices not in takeoff position, or
- Speed brake lever not in the down detent
- Stab trim not in the takeoff range
- Parking brake set
- Main Cargo Deck Door not properly closed, latched, and locked
187
We’re cleared for takeoff, advance the engines, see them stabilize at 40%, and then press TO/GA. What will the flight directors do at that point? 4.20.5
Command 10 degrees nose down.
188
What will happen at 60 knots? 4.20.5
The FDs will command 15 degrees nose up until after liftoff and a sufficient climb rate is acquired, then they will command MCP speed plus 20 knots
189
What if you forgot to turn on your flight directors?
Can you turn them on without reaching for the FD switches? 4.20.5
Yes. After 80 knots, and below 2,0000 feet AGL, and prior to 150 seconds after lift-ff, the FDs can be displayed by pressing TO/GA (flight director popup)
190
At what speed will the A/T mode annunciate THR HLD? 4.20.11 84
84 knots
