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Initial SAI 737-800 (NO 400) > additional questions > Flashcards

additional questions Flashcards

1
Q

How is bleed air intially cooled after passing through the engine bleed air valve?

A

it is intially cooled by air that routes from the engine fan air to a pre cooler that then cools the bleed air before in continues into the manifold. there is a termostat control that controls the pre cooler valve to regulate the bleed air temp within limits

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2
Q

is 9th stage bleed air hotter than 5th stage?

A

yes, higher temp and pressure, pre cooler will require more cooling air at this time

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3
Q

where are the temp sensors and pressure sensors that turn the BLEED TRIP OFF light

A

over pressure is prior to the bleed air valve, over temp is after the bleed air valve and after the pre cooler

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4
Q

The APU bleed valve is electricall controlled (what system) and (blank operated)

A

DC / pressure

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5
Q

During ground use of engine anti icing what position should the APU bleed air valve be in?

A

closed, this prevents the APU from backpressuring the 9th stage valve, if the 9th stage valve were to close there might not be enough engine bleed air for cowl anti icing

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6
Q

What does the dual bleed help remind the pilot?

A

it reminds you that if the APU check valve were to fail you backpressure the APU and DON would be pissed

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7
Q

in order for the APU to provide bleed air what requirements must be met?

A

the APU must be running at over 95% RPM and the APU has been running for 1 min

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8
Q

How are the deflector doors for the Ram air system controlled?

A

electrically, and are controlled by the air/ground sensor

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9
Q

How are the heat exchangers in the pack system cooled when on the ground or during slow flight?

A

Ram air door full open and if needed there is a shaft that comes of the air cycle machine into the ram air duct, this shaft has a fan on it that helps cool the heat exchanger

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10
Q

the zone temp controllers (cold setting) (warm) (auto)

A

65F / 85F / 70F

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11
Q

With trim air OFF, how are the zone’s for airplane cooled?

A

left pack air temperature for the flight deck, right pack does the average for the FWD and AFT areas

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12
Q

two controllers are used to control the trim air modulating valves, explain what is on each controller

A

left controller: aft cabin temp control, back up flt deck zone temp control

right controller: primary flt deck and fwd cabin

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13
Q

During single pack operating with trim air ON, how is the zone temp controlled?

A

it is the same as normal pack operation

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14
Q

during single pack operation with trim air OFF, how is zone temp controlled?

A

the single pack will try to satisfy the avg of all 3 zones

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15
Q

if all temp controllers are selected to OFF, what will the packs attempt to deliver TEMP wise

A

left pack to flt deck = 75F

right pack to fwd /aft = 65F

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16
Q

if a zone temp light illuminates what happens?

A

the associated trim air modulating valve closes, trip reset will reset this

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17
Q

if a zone temp light illuminates during recall what has happened?

A

failure of a temp controller

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18
Q

if all zone controls and primary pack control fail, the standby pack control commands the packs to produce what temperature

A

the standby pack control will command the packs to produce temps that will satisfy the the AVG temp demand of the two cabin zones. in addition the flight deck zone temp selector will have no effect on the standby pack controls.

case in point use the FWD and AFT zone temp controls to get the temp you want

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19
Q

the temperature sensors in each pack are located where?

A

located at the compressor discharge and the turbine inlet

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20
Q

the FWD and AFT main deck shutoff valves are normally in what position?

A

normally open but can be closed to shutoff air to the cargo compartment.. they are closed by the DEPR switch on the cargo fire panel, the time to close the valves depends on outflow valve position and altitude

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21
Q

pressing the DEPR switch closes the FWD and AFT main deck shutoff valves, it will also do what?

A

it will open the mix manifold exhaust shutoff valve, discharging the mix manifold air below the floor and above the front spar

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22
Q

The normal supply fan does what for E/E cooling?

what about the exhaust fan?

A

the supply fan pushes are through the control stand and instrument panels which eventually ends up in the E/E bay

the exhaust fan draws air through the E/E compartment

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23
Q

(E/E) if the airflow is not adequate enough for the supply or exhaust fans what happens air? ground?

A

in the air: the associated OFF light illuminates along with overhead “OFF’” light and master caution

on the ground: in addition to the above a horn will sound in the nose gear wheel well

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24
Q

how does the “OFF” light work for the fans? E/E

A

The off light is activated by a thermal “no-airflow” detector.

if there is lackoff cooling airflow over the small heater, the small heater will cause the detector to sense the lack of airflow and the OFF light will come on.

selecting the alternate fan should cause the airflow to be restored within 5 seconds the light will go out

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25
Q

If you are on the ground what happens the E/E exhaust air? what about in the air?

A

on the ground or low cabin differential pressure the exhaust is ducted overboard through the overboard exhaust valve.

in the air when the cabin differential air is high, the overboard exhaust valve is closed and the exhaust is routed around (NOT INTO) the foward cargo compartment. the warm air around the forward cargo compartment keeps the compartment liner warm. THIS AIR IS THEN DISHCARGED OVERBOARD VIA THE OUTFLOW VALVE

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26
Q

the APU is capable of providing bleed air to how many packs? ground and air?

A

2 on the ground, 1 in the air.

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27
Q

Why do we not select HIGH flow for takeoff and landing (PACK)

A

single engine performance is based upon low flow

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28
Q

what controls the temperature of the pack? (think valve, there are two of them)

A

the postion of the primary pack temperature control valve, incase of failure of the primary there is a standby pack temperature control valve

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29
Q

what is on the left and right electronic controllers regarding packs?

A

Left: L ram air control, L primary pack control, R standby pack control

Right: R ram air control, R primary pack control, L standby pack control

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30
Q

if both the primary and standby pack controls fail what happens?

A

the pack will continue to operate without control unless or until it is tripped off due to excessive pack temperatures

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31
Q

how does the pressurization controller know the landing alt for the airport you are departing?

A

the air ground sensor and then sensed actual cabin altitude

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32
Q

when does the airplane start to pressurize on the ground?

A

when the throttles are advanced to achieve n1 greater than 60% and N2 greater than 89%, this makes the transition to pressurized flight more gradual

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33
Q

when will you get an OFF SCHED DESCENT light?

A

if the airplane begins a descent without reaching the planned cruise altitude. the controller will then automatically program the landing alt to the takeoff field elevation

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34
Q

what are the constant cabin altitude differential pressures?

A

at or below fl280 = 7.45
fl280 to fl370 = 7.8
above 370 = 8.35

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35
Q

after landing when will the outflow valve go full open?

A

after landing when the N1 is less than 50%

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36
Q

an AUTO FAIL will illuminate for ?

A 
loss of DC power
controller fault
outflow valve control fault
excessive dif pressure >8.75
excessive rate of cabin pressure change
high cabin altitude (15800)
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37
Q

when will the overboard exhaust valve open in flight?

A

it will open if either pack switch is in HIGH, this allows for increased ventilation in the smoke removal configuration

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38
Q

how does air get to the lower cargo compartments?

A

cabin air is drawn through foot level grills, down around the cargo compartment area where it provides heating and then discharged overboard

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39
Q

The ADIRU provide what to the automatic pressurization controllers?

A

static pressure, barometric corrected altitude, non-corrected altitude and calibrated airspeed

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40
Q

how is the outflow valve powered?

A

DC motor, Man mode has a seperate DC motor that moves at a slower rate

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41
Q

the differential pressure is limited by what?

A

two pressure relief valves to a limit of 9.1

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42
Q

what provides negative pressure relief?

A

negative relief valve, the door seals also act as a negative pressure relief protection

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43
Q

what is the max differential pressure for takeoff and landing?

A

.125 PSI

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44
Q

how are the windows electrically powered?

A 
#1 AC transfer bus = L1, R2, L3
#2 AC transfer bus = R1, L2, R3
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45
Q

how long must window heat be on prior to takeoff?

A

10 mins

46
Q

which pane of the window is structual?

A

the inner pane

47
Q

at what temp will the window overheat illuminate?

A

62C

48
Q

The engine anti ice valve is powered and activated how?

A

DC powered and pneumatically operated

49
Q

the wing anti valve is motor operated electrically how?

A

normal AC power, these valves will fail in positon witha loss of power

50
Q

on the ground the wing anti ice will trip off why?

A

it will trip off due to an overtemp or the throttle passes a limit. if an overtemp it is caused by 1 of the 2 temp sesnors the valves closes until the sensors cool down

51
Q

will an APU DET INOP light cause a master caution?

A

yes

52
Q

if both engine fire detection loops fail what light illuminates

A

the fault light

53
Q

Normall the engine fire switches are locked down, what causes them to unlock?

A

OVHEAT OR FIRE, which triggers a selonid to pull the locking mechanism to unlock the switch

54
Q

is there fault warning for the wheel well fire detector?

A

no.

55
Q

the power source for the cargo compartment smoke detectors is?

A

DC bus 1 and 2. they run in a dual loop configuration same as the engine

56
Q

(cargo compartment fire) when does the second bottle automatically discharge?

A

after 60 mins

57
Q

how is main deck cargo supression accomplished?

A

it is accomplished by shutting of the supply of air to the compartment. when the main cargo fire armed switch is armed the packs are commanded to low flow. when the DEPR/DISH switch is pushed the air distrubition shutoff valves are closed / mix manifold will dump the air in it. ALSO FOLLOW THE QRH

58
Q

where is the APU ground control panel and what is on it?

A

right main wheel well. fire control handle, bottle discharge switch, horn cutoff button, red light and horn

59
Q

when either pilot rotates their control wheel, the captains cables will provide input to what?

A

input through the feel and centering mechanism to the ailerons PCU

60
Q

what happens when you use aileron trim?

A

the feel and centering mechanism is positioned to a new neutral point, which causes the PCU’s to move the ailerons to a new neutral point

61
Q

will the aileron trim work without hydraulic power or electrical power?

A

no, needs at least one

62
Q

how many degrees does the control column need to rotate for the flight spoilers to assist in a turn?

A

10 degrees or more

63
Q

what system allows the other control wheel to remain operative when one is jammed?

A

aileron transfer mechanism

64
Q

the yaw damper, elevator feel module and speed trim system help do what?

A

stall identification and control

65
Q

describe the elevator feel shift module

A

the EFS module increases hydraulic system a pressure to the elevator feel and centering unit during a stall.

the EFS module is armed whenever an inhibit condition is no present.

inhibit conditions are: on the ground, less than 100 RA, and autopilot engaged; however; if EFS is active when descending through 100RA in remains active until AOA is reduced below approx stick shaker threshold.

THERE ARE NO FLIGHT DECK INDICATIONS THAT THE SYSTEM IS ARMED OR ACTIVE.

with the control colum aft the amount of column force increased with the onset of the EFS module

66
Q

what is the max airspeed/mach with a dual channel failure of mach trim

A

280 or .82

67
Q

how many stabilizer trim methods do we have?

A

main electric trim / autopilot trim / manual trim

68
Q

how many main electric trim speeds?

A

fast: flaps extended
slow: flaps retracted

69
Q

when will the STAB OUT OF TRIM light illuminate?

A

only when the autopilot is engaged and the autopilot is not trimming adequatly to keep the horizontal stabilizer in trim

70
Q

are the white trim indicators mechanically connected?

A

yes

71
Q

if you have a jammed elevator and the control column trim cutout module wont let you trim how can you override this?

A

the guarded column actuated stabilizer trim switch is moved to override

72
Q

what can cause a runaway trim?

A

uncommanded operation of the main electric trim circuit

uncommanded operation of the autopilot trim circuit

73
Q

what is the speed trim system designed around?

A

designed to prevent stabilizer nose up trim from exceeding elevator nose down capability.

the system used the autopilot trim circuit to ensure the stabilizer is trimmed

conditions for speed trim: 100 - .60mach
10 seconds after takeoff
autopilot not engaged
5 seconds after release of trim switches
sensing of a trim requirement
74
Q

if the speed trim fail illuminates with a dual channel failure what has happened?

A

it has failed or could possibly provide unreliable speed trim

75
Q

if you trim opposite of the control input you are inflicting what will happen?

A

the trim cutout module deactivates the trim motor

76
Q

SMYD computers recieve inputs from what?

A

both ADIRUS, both control wheels and yaw damper switch

77
Q

SMYD 1 controls what yaw damper and requries what?

A

normal yaw damper and requires that system B be on

78
Q

SMYD 2 controls what yaw damper?

A

the standby yaw damper

79
Q

if you lose the B system will the yaw damper switch go to off?

A

not until you position the B FLT CONTROL switch out of ON

80
Q

how many input rods, control valves, actuators for the rudder

A

3 seperate input rods, 3 control valves and 3 actuators

1 for A/B/Standby

81
Q

where is the FFM located?

A

within the main rudder PCU

82
Q

what happens when the FFM activates

A

it detects opposing pressure between A and B actuators, this can occur if either system A or B is jammed or disconnected.

the FFM then automatically tursn in the standby hydraulic pump and pressuzing the standby PCU

83
Q

how many pallet positions on the main cargo deck (800)

A

11 // 12 with the demi pallet

84
Q

how does the EEC monitor fuel flow?

A

through the HMU

85
Q

IGN L selects the left ignitor for each engine what powers the left ignitors? how about the right one

A

the respective transfer bus // AC standby bus

86
Q

The GRD postion of the engine start switch does what and is powered how?

A

battery power to the GRD postion signals the pneumatic operated start valve to open while closing the engine bleed valve

87
Q

engine start switch CONT what does it do?

what about auto?

what about FLT

A

provides ignition to selected ignitors when:

  • engine is operating and engine start lever is in IDLE
  • in flight: provides ignition to both igniters when N2 is below idle and engine start lever is in IDLE

AUTO: provides automatic ignition to selected igniters when

  • engine is running and
  • flaps are not up below 18,000 or
  • engine anti-ice is selected to ON

FLT: causes bpth igniters to operated regardless of the ignition selecter position

88
Q

during ground starts the EEC protects us how?

A

impending hot starts, EGT start limit excedance, and wet starts

89
Q

how does the EEC protect us in flight besides N1 and N2 protection?

A

auto relight capability. both ignitors are activated if the EEC detects an uncomanded rapid decrease in n2 or when the N2 decreases below idle RPM

90
Q

when is reverse thrust selectable?

A

when either RA is below 10feet and the air/ground sensor is in the ground mode

91
Q

pulling an engine fire switch does what regarding a reverser?

A

removes electrical power to the engine isolation valve and control valve

92
Q

the ADIRS provides what data

A

airspeed, altitude, position, altitude data

93
Q

how many pitot/static probes are there?

A

3 pitot probes and 6 static ports

94
Q

how many probes and static ports feed the ADIRS

A

2 pitot probes and 4 static ports

95
Q

the CDS automatic display switching feature does what?

A

it ensures that critical information is available at all times
exp; the outboard DU fails so itll shift the PFD onto the inboard DU

96
Q

the IRS is the primary source of what?

A

attitude and heading. it was also provide aircraft positiion to flight managment system

97
Q

an IRS fault light means what?

A

there is a fault with the IRS

98
Q

the ON DC light means what (IRS)

A

the ON DC light indicates that the IRU is presently powered by the switched hot battery bus

99
Q

What does the DC fail light indicate? (IRS)

A

the light indicates that the backup source of power from the switched hot battery bus - is not available

100
Q

what will the ATT mode provides (IRS)

A

will only provide limited Atitude and heading reference data and will not provide navigation data

101
Q

how are the L and R IRS normally powered?

A

L = the AC standby bus /// R = the transfer bus #2

102
Q

if AC power is not available how are the IRS’s powered and what will illuminate?

A

the IRS will be powered via the switched hot battery bus if the battery switch is on, if you are on the ground a horn will sound in the wheel well to let ground personal know

103
Q

the compass display for the captains side recievers that info from where? what about the FO?

A 
capts =  IRS #1
FO =  IRS #2
104
Q

an IRS can lose alignment if?

A

its mode selector is moved to OFF, ALIGN or ATT
a loss of both AC and DC power
or
the FAULT light comes on

105
Q

if you lose an IRS in flight will the auto pilot disengage?

A

yes, this because each IRS provides pitch signals to one FCCC and roll signals to the other FCC

106
Q

What are icing conditions as defined in FCOM VOL 1 SUP PROCEDURES

A

icing conditions exist when OAT (on the ground) or TAT (in flight) is 10C or below and any of the following exist

  • visible moisture (clouds, fog with visibility of one statue mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals, is present
  • ice, snow, slush, standing wateer is present on ramps, taxiways, runways
107
Q

IF we get a TYPE 2 or TYPE 4 deice should we use wing anti-ice?

A

NO

108
Q

When do we need to do an engine run up?

A

when the OAT is 3c or less:
- check that the area behind you is clear

  • run up to a minimum of 70% N1 for approx and confirm stable engine operation before the start of the takeoff roll. A 30 second run-up is highly recommended whnever possible
109
Q

When must engine anti-ice be on during flight?

A

all icing conditions except during climb and cruise when the SAT is -40C

when operating in areas of possible icing, activate engine anti-ice before entering icing conditions

110
Q

what is the primary method of using wing anti-ice in flight

A

let the ice build up and then turn it on, this procedures provides the cleanest airfoil surface and least possible runback ice formation / least thrust / fuel penalty

Initial SAI 737-800 (NO 400) (26 decks)

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