JS BIO Questionnaires Flashcards

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1
Q

Identify the term used to describe the consistent biochemical structures shared by all living organisms.
A) Unity - Diversity Paradox
B) Conservation of critical genetic sequences
C) Unity of Biochemical Structures
D) Unique Assembly of Parts

A

A. Unity of biochemical structures

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2
Q

What questions how life can be both unified and highly diverse?
A) Unity of Biochemical Structures
B) Allozyme
C) Unity - Diversity Paradox
D) Unique Assembly of Parts

A

B. Unity-Diversity Paradox

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3
Q

A fish species is found to have an enzyme that binds its substrate less tightly in cold water but functions optimally at very low temperatures. Which adaptation mechanism does this demonstrate?
A) Gene amplification for increased enzyme production
B) Selection for regulatory alleles controlling enzyme timing
C) Temperature optimization balancing enzyme stability and efficiency
D) RNA translation accuracy balancing energy costs

A

C) Temperature optimization balancing enzyme stability and efficiency

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4
Q

Insect populations exposed to pesticides show resistance that persists even when pesticides are no longer used. This likely reflects:

  A) Random mutations accumulating over generations
  B) Gene amplification enhancing detoxifying enzyme production
  C) Regulatory alleles that quickly reverse resistance when pressure is removed
  D) Decreased catalytic efficiency to conserve energy
A

B) Gene amplification enhancing detoxifying enzyme production

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5
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of natural selection in biochemical adaptation?

A. Natural selection does not contribute to biochemical adaptation and instead relies on mutation
B. Natural selection drives the adaptation of biochemical systems to fit environmental demands by favoring advantageous alleles
C. Natural selection only affects structural proteins, leaving regulatory proteins unchanged
D. Biochemical adaptation occurs randomly and is independent of natural selection

A

B) Natural selection drives the adaptation of biochemical systems to fit environmental demands by favoring advantageous alleles

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6
Q

Which of the following examples below provides direct evidence of natural selection leading to biochemical adaptation?

A. Seasonal changes in enzyme levels in organisms with no change in function
B. The acquisition of antibiotic resistance in bacteria through random mutation
C. the neutral drift of amino acids in proteins with no effect on enzyme function.
D. Selection for allozymes that modify enzyme interactions with insecticides, improving survival rates in insects

A

D) Selection for allozymes that modify enzyme interactions with insecticides, improving survival rates in insects

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7
Q

Which of the following is the primary mechanism responsible for the conservation of critical sequences in DNA?

A) Differential Repair Efficiency
B) Stabilizing Selection by Natural Selection
C) Enhancer Sequences
D) Transcriptional Regulation

A

B) Stabilizing Selection by Natural Selection

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8
Q

Which of the following mechanisms is primarily responsible for the creation of diversity through the principle of unique assembly?

A) DNA Replication
B) Gene Mutation
C) Gene Regulation and the timing/location of gene expression
D) Chromosomal Rearrangement

A

C) Gene Regulation and the timing/location of gene expression

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9
Q

Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies a potential mechanism for genetic innovation that combines both internal genomic changes and external influences?

A) The emergence of novel metabolic pathways in molluscs due to a series of chromosomal deletions followed by the acquisition of plasmid DNA from a soil bacterium.
B) The development of new protein functions solely through point mutations in regulatory genes without any external genetic contributions.
C) The evolution of lactate dehydrogenase analogs in marine invertebrates exclusively through gene duplication events within their ancestral genomes.
D) The adaptation of anaerobic glycolysis in terrestrial vertebrates through environmental pressures leading to widespread horizontal gene transfer from marine organisms.

A

A) The emergence of novel metabolic pathways in mollusc due to a series of chromosomal deletions followed by the acquisition of plasmid DNA from a soil bacterium.

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10
Q

In the context of genetic innovation, which of the following statements most accurately describes the role of chromosomal restructuring and horizontal gene transfer as mechanisms for developing new gene products?

A) Chromosomal restructuring, such as deletions and amplifications, is the primary mechanism for generating new genes, while horizontal gene transfer merely serves as a secondary source of genetic material that does not contribute to functional innovation.
B) Both chromosomal restructuring and horizontal gene transfer can lead to the emergence of novel genes; however, chromosomal changes typically result in modifications of existing functions, whereas horizontal gene transfer introduces entirely new functions that were previously absent.
C) Horizontal gene transfer is exclusively responsible for creating new enzymatic functions in marine invertebrates, while chromosomal restructuring has no significant impact on metabolic pathways.
D) Chromosomal restructuring is limited to regulatory genes, whereas horizontal gene transfer can affect both structural and regulatory genes, leading to a broader spectrum of functional innovations.

A

B) Both chromosomal restructuring and horizontal gene transfer can lead to the emergence of novel genes; however, chromosomal changes typically result in modifications of existing functions, whereas horizontal gene transfer introduces entirely new functions that were previously absent.

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11
Q

What is the process called that describes changes in the inherited characteristics of biological populations over successive generations?

Mutation
Evolution
Adaptation
Speciation

A

b) Evolution

Evolution is defined as the process of change in inherited characteristics across successive generations. This question assesses the understanding of evolution as a population-wide process, not merely individual changes.

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12
Q

Which of the following is not an example of Phyletic Evolution?

A. The evolution of modern horses from their small, multi-toed ancestors over millions of years, adapting to changing environments and diets.
B. The gradual transformation of whales from land-dwelling mammals to fully aquatic creatures, showcasing adaptations like streamlined bodies and loss of hind limbs.
C. The divergence of different finch species on the Galápagos Islands due to geographic isolation, leading to the development of distinct traits based on their specific environments.
D. The evolution of elephants from smaller, forest-dwelling ancestors into larger, tusked animals adapted to a variety of environments, including savannas and grasslands.

A

C. The divergence of different finch species on the Galápagos Islands due to geographic isolation, leading to the development of distinct traits based on their specific environments.

Phyletic evolution, or anagenesis, refers to the gradual transformation of a single lineage over time, resulting in a new form without branching into multiple species. In this process, one species gradually changes into another without splitting into distinct species.
The example of finch species diverging on the Galápagos Islands represents cladogenesis, or branching evolution, where a single species splits into multiple species due to geographic isolation and adaptation to different environments. This is distinct from phyletic evolution, where a single species gradually transforms over time without forming new branches.

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13
Q

Which of these scenarios best illustrates convergent evolution?

Wolves and hyenas developing similar hunting strategies due to their environments, despite being distantly related.

A population of butterflies evolving colorful patterns as a warning signal to predators.

Two species of squirrels evolving different fur colors on separate islands due to varying climates.

A species of lizard evolving longer legs to escape predators faster.

A

Wolves and hyenas developing similar hunting strategies due to their environments, despite being distantly related,” as convergent evolution involves different species independently evolving similar traits due to similar environmental pressures.

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14
Q

What occurs during recombination?

a) Random distribution of chromosomes into gametes
b) Exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes
c) Separation of sister chromatids
d) Replication of DNA

A

b) Exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes

During recombination, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material, which increases genetic diversity in gametes. This process occurs during meiosis and results in new combinations of alleles on each chromosome.

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15
Q

In areas where malaria is prevalent, individuals with which genotype have a survival advantage due to heterozygote superiority?

A. Homozygous dominant for the normal hemoglobin allele
B. Homozygous recessive for the sickle-cell allele
C. Heterozygous for the sickle-cell and normal hemoglobin alleles
D. Homozygous for the sickle-cell allele

A

C. Heterozygous for the sickle-cell and normal hemoglobin alleles

In malaria-prone areas, individuals with one sickle-cell allele and one normal hemoglobin allele (heterozygotes) have a survival advantage. This is known as heterozygote superiority or heterozygote advantage, as it provides some resistance to malaria without causing full sickle-cell disease.

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16
Q

Which of the following describes the principle that allele and genotype frequencies remain stable in a large, randomly mating population without evolutionary influences?

A. Heterozygote superiority
B. Diversifying selection
C. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
D. Frequency-dependent selection

A

C. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium describes a principle in population genetics stating that allele and genotype frequencies remain constant in a large, randomly mating population in the absence of evolutionary influences such as selection, mutation, migration, or genetic drift.

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17
Q

What happens to traits that are disadvantageous to an organism’s survival and reproduction in the process of natural selection?

a) They are more likely to be passed on to the next generation.
b) They are adopted into the population.
c) They are gradually discarded over time.
d) They lead to an increase in population size.

A

c) They are gradually discarded over time.

In natural selection, traits that hinder an organism’s survival or reproduction are less likely to be passed onto future generations. Over time, this reduces the frequency of disadvantageous traits in the population.

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18
Q

Which of the following is an example of a prezygotic isolating mechanism?

A. Mules being sterile hybrid offspring of horses and donkeys
B. Two species of frogs breeding at different times of the year
C. Hybrid plants that are less vigorous than their parent species
D. A species of plant that does not produce viable seed when cross-pollinated with another species

A

B. Two species of frogs breeding at different times of the year

Prezygotic isolating mechanisms prevent mating or fertilization between species before a zygote is formed. In this example, the two species of frogs breed at different times (temporal isolation), which prevents them from mating and producing offspring. The other options describe postzygotic mechanisms, which occur after fertilization.

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19
Q

Which mechanism of evolution allows individuals with advantageous traits to survive and reproduce more successfully in their environment?

a) Genetic drift
b) Gene flow
c) Natural selection
d) Mutation

A

c) Natural selection

Natural selection is the mechanism through which individuals with traits that offer survival or reproductive advantages are more likely to thrive and reproduce. This leads to the gradual increase of those advantageous traits in a population over time, making it a primary driver of evolution.

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20
Q

Which scenario best represents genetic drift?

A. A small population of birds is isolated on an island, and purely by chance, only individuals with blue feathers survive and reproduce.
B. A population of butterflies develops a resistance to pesticides after generations of exposure to pesticides in the environment.
C. A population of beetles evolves a stronger exoskeleton to protect themselves from predators in their environment.
D. A species of wildcats develops longer claws to hunt their prey more effectively.

A

A. A small population of birds is isolated on an island, and purely by chance, only individuals with blue feathers survive and reproduce.

Genetic drift is a random process that causes changes in allele frequencies in a population, especially in small populations. In this scenario, the survival of blue-feathered birds is due to chance rather than selection, illustrating how random events can lead to significant changes in a population’s genetic makeup. The other scenarios involve adaptive traits resulting from natural selection rather than genetic drift.

21
Q

A farmer notices that some plants in their field are healthier when intercropped with legumes. The soil analysis reveals higher fungal diversity in these areas. What explains the observed plant health?

A. The legumes release nitrogen that attracts beneficial insects.
B. Diverse mycorrhizal fungi promote better nutrient uptake and soil health.
C. Legumes produce antifungal compounds that protect nearby plants.
D. Mycorrhizal fungi prevent root competition among plants.

A

B. Diverse mycorrhizal fungi promote better nutrient uptake and soil health.

22
Q

(1) While much is known about phosphorus transfer, the exact processes of carbon movement,
particularly involving lipids, need further study. (2) Future research should investigate these
mechanisms and account for the diversity of plant and fungal partners to better understand their
ecological and global impacts.

A. statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
B. statement 2 is true, statement 1 is false
C. both statements are true
D. both statements are false.

A

C. both statements are true

23
Q

(1) Laboratory studies on plants focus on plant-fungus carbon (C) transfer and carbon-nitrogen
(C–N) exchanges. (2) However, they often use unlimited fungal species compared to the
diversity in nature.

A. statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
B. statement 2 is true, statement 1 is false
C. both statements are true
D. both statements are false.

A

D. both statements are false.

24
Q

These plants rely entirely on Common Mycorrhizal Networks (CMNs) for carbon and nutrients,
altering resource flow and soil nutrient cycling.

A. Mycoheterotrophic plants
B. Ryhnie fossil plant
C. Non-Mycorrhizal plants
D. Early Land plants

A

A. Mycoheterotrophic plants

25
Q

Farmers notice a decrease in phosphorus levels in their soil, which is affecting crop yield. They
decide to use mycorrhizal fungi to help. Which type of mycorrhizal fungi would be most effective
in assisting plant phosphorus uptake?

A. Ectomycorrhizal fungi (ECMF)
B. Arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi (AMF)
C. Mucoromycotina fungi
D. Free-living soil bacteria

A

B. Arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi (AMF)

26
Q

This environmental factor can stress symbiosis but demonstrate the resilience of fungal
associations.

A. Lower CO₂ Levels
B. Higher CO₂ Levels
C. Higher Temperatures
D. Lower Temperatures

A

A. Lower CO₂ Levels

27
Q

This environmental factor can increase photosynthate transfer to fungi, enhancing fungal growth
and nutrient exchange.

A. Lower CO₂ Levels
B. Higher CO₂ Levels
C. Higher Temperatures
D. Lower Temperatures

A

B. Higher CO₂ Levels

28
Q

How do common mycorrhizal networks influence carbon and nutrient cycling in ecosystems?

A. They trap nutrients in fungal tissues, reducing nutrient availability for plants.
B. They create competitive hierarchies among plants, limiting biodiversity.
C. They redistribute carbon and nutrients across different plants, promoting resource
sharing.
D. They increase soil carbon storage but reduce nutrient availability for plants.

A

C. They redistribute carbon and nutrients across different plants, promoting resource
sharing.

29
Q

In a drought-prone area, some plants appear healthier and yield more crops. Analysis shows these plants are linked to a mycorrhizal network. What is a plausible reason for this observation?

A. Mycorrhizal fungi reduce water evaporation from the soil.
B. The fungi enhance the plant’s access to water and nutrients through their hyphal networks.
C. The fungi produce growth hormones that increase drought resistance.
D. The fungi create a barrier that prevents pathogen entry.

A

B. The fungi enhance the plant’s access to water and nutrients through their hyphal networks.

30
Q

Refers to a mutualistic association between fungi and plant roots, where both partners benefit from the exchange of nutrients.

A. Mycorrhizal Symbiose
B. Arbuscular Mycorrhizal
C. Glomeromycotina
D. Ectomycorrhizal Fungi

A

A. Mycorrhizal Symbiose

31
Q

Which of the following is the most abundant micro-organism on Earth?

A. Escherichia coli
B. Archaeoglobus fulgidus
C. Microcoleus chthonoplastes
D. SAR11

A

D. SAR11

32
Q

Environmental DNA analysis suggests that known species may constitute only ______ of all prokaryotes, with less than ______ being culturable.

A. 2 - 3%; 0.5%
B. 1 - 2%; 0.5%
C. 2.5 - 3.75%; 0.1%
D. 1 - 2%; 0.1%

A

D. 1 - 2%; 0.1%

33
Q

The Great Plate Count Anomaly posits that most of the microbes seen in the microscope cannot currently be grown under laboratory conditions. The following are mentioned causes of the anomaly in the journal except:

A. Rich medium developed in the nineteenth century by medical microbiologists for the isolation of human pathogens are highly unsuitable for the recovery of micro-organisms from oligotrophic environments.
B. Low nutrient media such as, for example, the R2A agar medium marketed by Difco, generally give higher counting efficiencies. For some micro-organisms even such poor media may have far too high organic carbon concentrations
C. Many prokaryotes live in close symbiotic associations, forming consortia whose members depend on each other for existence, and can therefore not be isolated in a pure culture.
D. Many bacteria have general nutritional needs and common environmental preferences, making it difficult for common growth media to simulate natural environments

A

D. Many bacteria have general nutritional needs and common environmental preferences, making it difficult for common growth media to simulate natural environments

34
Q

Which of the following statement is true regarding FISH?

A. FISH stands for Fluorescence In Situ Hybrids
B. This approach was pioneered by Hicks et al. (1989) and it was often used in combination with other staining methods
C. The process involves 15S rRNA-targeted fluorescently labelled probes, which are used to specifically detect cells with the corresponding rRNA structure.
D. It is an isolation technique employed for uncultured microbial species

A

D. It is an isolation technique employed for uncultured microbial species

35
Q

The Concept of Bacterial Ubiquity refers to:

A. The tendency of a bacteria to reproduce asexually
B. The tendency of a bacteria to survive in extreme environments, such as the vacuum of space
C. The presence of archaebacteria in the ocean floor
D. The presence of bacteria everywhere in the environment

A

D. The presence of bacteria everywhere in the environment

36
Q

Which of the following statement is true regarding VBNC?

A. It refers to the non-culturable state of bacteria believed to be caused by several factors, such as salinity, oxidation, and temperature
B. The phenomenon has been described for organisms such as Vibrio chlorelae and V. vunificus
C. VBNC cells do not exhibit metabolic activity
D. It stands for “Viable But Non-Culturable State”

A

D. It stands for “Viable But Non-Culturable State”

37
Q

Which of the following statement is false?

A. Prokaryotes have never yet been the subject of concern of environmental activists who advocate for the protection of endangered animal and plant species.
B. The extinction of animals carrying specific bacterial symbionts or pathogens could cause the extinction of the corresponding prokaryotic symbiote
C. Some species of prokaryotes are deliberately eliminated for eradication, such as in the case of disease-causing bacteria
D. Simonsiella muelleri, the causative agent of leprosy, is intentionally targeted for eradication by the World Health Organization.

A

D. Simonsiella muelleri, the causative agent of leprosy, is intentionally targeted for eradication by the World Health Organization.

38
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is false regarding prokaryote classification?

A. Bergey’s manual of systematic bacteriology provided an operative division of the prokaryote world into two domains: Archaea and Bacteria
B. Bergey’s manual is widely adopted by bacteriologists, the classification being based on small-subunit rRNA sequences.
C. Some names, such as Bacillus and Proteus, are shared by the prokaryotes with plants and animals
D. Botanists consider Cyanobacteria part of the plant world, calling them Cyanophyta (blue-green algae) since bacteriologists no longer classify them under the Bacterial Code due to their similarity with plants

A

D. Botanists consider Cyanobacteria part of the plant world, calling them Cyanophyta (blue-green algae) since bacteriologists no longer classify them under the Bacterial Code due to their similarity with plants

39
Q

What geological feature near the mouth of the Kotuikan River provides evidence of early Cambrian and pre-Cambrian life?

a. Carbonate rocks containing simple fossils and trace fossils of worm-like creatures
b. A volcanic breccia layer dating to 600 million years ago
c. A continuous sequence of glacial deposits from the Proterozoic Eon
d. Limestone layers exclusively containing skeletal remains of modern animals

A

A. Carbonate rocks containing simple fossils and trace fossils of worm-like creatures

40
Q

How does the transition from the Ediacaran to the Cambrian period represent an evolutionary leap?

A) Ediacaran organisms evolved directly into modern vertebrates.
B) Cambrian organisms introduced features like hard parts, greater mobility, and complex ecosystems.
C) Bilaterian animals were completely absent in the Cambrian.
D) Cambrian organisms eliminated all traces of Ediacaran life without introducing new features.

A

B) Cambrian organisms introduced features like hard parts, greater mobility, and complex ecosystems.

41
Q

Which of the following are actual paleontological fossil deposits?

a. Burnaby, Chongqing, Polenta Formation
b. Williamsburg, Shenzhen, Orion Passet
c. Bandle, Shurima, Freljord Formation
d. Burgess, Chengjiang, Sirius Passet.

A

d. Burgess, Chengjiang, Sirius Passet.

42
Q

Which of the following is not a description of the Cambrian Period?

a. It is the origin of life of Kingdom Animalia.
b. It is when already pre-diverged clades diversified further.
c. It is when organisms started diversifying into multicellular forms.
d. It is when the initial divergence of major clades started occurring.

A

b. It is when already pre-diverged clades diversified further.

43
Q

Why are acoel flatworms significant in discussions of bilaterian evolution?

A) They are primitive cnidarians.
B) They exhibit traits of early bilaterians and may have diverged before the three clades formed.
C) They are classified as basal deuterostomes based on morphology.
D) They lack any resemblance to Urbilateria.

A

B) They exhibit traits of early bilaterians and may have diverged before the three clades formed.

44
Q

Which characteristic was likely NOT present in Urbilateria?

A) Bilateral symmetry
B) Simple photoreceptor structures
C) Complex eyes and limbs
D) Primitive appendages for feeding

A

C) Complex eyes and limbs

45
Q

What is the Diploblast-Bilaterian Gap?

A. Evolutionary period where Bilaterians evolved into Diploblasts
B. The evolutionary transition from diploblasts into bilaterians, involving significant genetic and developmental innovations.
C. A period in evolutionary history where diploblasts transformed into cnidarians and bilaterians
with minimal genetic changes
D. An empty period of the evolutionary timeline where life shifted towards being on land

A

B. The evolutionary transition from diploblasts into bilaterians, involving significant genetic and developmental innovations.

46
Q

What enabled the development of larger, macroscopic parts?

A. The evolution of bilaterians
B. Type 1 embryogenesis
C. Hox Genes
D. Set-aside Cells

A

D. Set-aside Cells

47
Q

Why was the rise in oxygen levels during the late Proterozoic important for animal evolution?

a. It caused animals to evolve directly.
b. It removed environmental barriers, allowing larger and more complex animals to thrive.
c. It triggered mass extinctions that ended all early life forms.
d. It only affected plant life.

A

b. It removed environmental barriers, allowing larger and more complex animals to thrive.

48
Q

What evidence supports the increase in oxygen levels during the late Proterozoic?

a. Fossilized skeletons of large animals.
b. Strong positive excursions in carbon isotopes and sulfur data.
c. Trace fossils showing diverse bilaterians.
d. Rapid temperature increases in the climate record.

A

b. Strong positive excursions in carbon isotopes and sulfur data.

49
Q

How did the late Proterozoic ice ages impact early animal evolution?

a. They accelerated the evolution of complex animals.
b. They created harsh conditions that slowed evolution but opened opportunities for diversification afterward.
c. They caused immediate diversification of all animal groups.
d. They had no significant impact on animal evolution.

A

b. They created harsh conditions that slowed evolution but opened opportunities for diversification afterward.