Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Random (Pre-Reg) > January > Flashcards

January Flashcards

1
Q

What is SPIRIVA Respimat?

A

The only soft mist inhaler available in the LAMA class, offering patients an alternative to dry powder inhalers.

It is licensed as a maintenance bronchodilator to relieve symptoms in adult COPD patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is fludroxycortide tape used for?

A

Chronic, localised recalcitrant dermatoses.

12/24 hours, for children treatment should be limited to five days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Entorocort CR (budesonide 3mg) capsules used for?

A

The induction of remission in adults with Crohn’s disease affecting the ileum and/or the ascending colon.

It is also the only budesonide formulation indicated for the full range of active microscopic colitis diseases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is tinidazole?

A

Tinidazole is a nitroimidazole antimicrobial medication. Similar to metronidazole.

Tinidazole is generally more expensive, but reaches higher levels in serum and GI tract, it also has a higher half-life than metronidazole (12.5 hours vs 7.3 hours) and fewer GI side effects.

Due to long half-life, alcohol should be avoided for 72 hours after completion of a course of tinidazole.

Nitroimidazoles are the only class of antimicrobials to be effective in treating TV infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Stalevo?

A

Combination of levodopa, carbidopa, entacapone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is entacapone?

A

inhibitor of breakdown, selective reversible inhibitor of the enzyme catechol-o-methyl transferase (COMT). Stops catechol-o-methyltransferase from breaking down and metabolising levodopa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is ropinorole?

A

Non-ergoline class of dopamine agonist, used in parkinsons and restlessleg syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is baricitinib?

A

Used in RA, small molecule inhibitor of JAK kinase, JAK1 + 2.

Only if methotrexate not tolerated or with methotrexate via patient access scheme.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is indoramin?

A

Alpha-1 selective adrenoreceptor with direct myocardial depression action, therefore it does not cause reflex tachycardia.

USed in BPH and hypertension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is meloxicam?

A

NSAID closely related to piroxicam, used for exacerbation of osteoarthritis, in pain and inflammation in RA. Ankylosing spndylitis (spine, AS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is ketotifen?

A

1st gen non-competitive H1 antihistamine and mast cell stabiliser. Its opthalmic form is used in allergic conjuctivitis and the tablet for allergic rhinitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is contained in the COC?

A

Synthetic versions of the sex hormones oestrogen and progesterone, steady levels of which convince the pituitary gland of a pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does the oestrogen component of COCs suppress ovulation?

A

The oestrogen component of COCs suppresses ovulation by stopping the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does the progesterone component of COCs prevent pregnancy?

A

Thickening of the mucus in the endometrium (neck) of the womb makes it more difficult for sperm to reach the egg.

Progesterone also thins the lining of the womb, making it difficult for an egg to implant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Is taking the COC associated with breast cancer?

A

Yes 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Is taking the COC associated with ovarian cancer?

A

No, the risk of ovarian cancers is reduced 50% after 5 yers of COC usage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Is taking the COC associated with cervical cancer?

A

Yes, cervical cancer risk is doubled after >5 years of COC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If a patient starts Zoely, Elaine, Daylette or Qlaira on day 2 or later will they need additional contraception?

A

Yes, 7 days for all except Qlaira which needs 9 days of additional contraceptive protection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Are you protected straight away if you take the COC on the first day of your cycle?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If you start your COC on the fifth day of the cycle are you protected from pregnancy?

A

Yes, fifth day or earlier means protection is immediate, unless the cycle is very short.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If you start the COC on day 18 are you protected?

A

Any other day after the first 5 and you will need additional precautions

22
Q

What should a patient who has missed COC on week 1 do?

A

Taken the missed pill straight away and further pills as usual, extra precautions are needed for the next 7 days. EHC is recommended if unprotected sex has occurred.

For Qlaira, zoely, Eloine and daylette consult product literature.

23
Q

What should a patient do if a COC is missed during week 2?

A

Take the missed pill straight away and further pills as usual.
Extra precautions are needed for next 7 days.

For Qlaira, zoely, Eloine and daylette consult product literature.

24
Q

What should a patient do if they have missed a COC in week 3?

A

Take the missed pill straight away and further pills as usual. Omit the pill free interval (for inactive pills).

Extra precautions are needed for the next seven days.
For Qlaira, zoely, Eloine and daylette consult product literature.

25
Q

What is tobramycin?

A

Aminoglycoside, active against gram-negative, especially pseudomonas species.

Tobramycin nebuliser solution is used in chronic pulmonary P.aeruginosa infection in CF patients.

26
Q

What is colomycin?

A

Polymyxin A and B, used against P.aeroginosa, actinebacter and klebsiella. Not BA via mouth, hence needs to be given by injection for systematic effect.

27
Q

What is lamvudine?

A

Known as 3TC, antiretroviral used to treat HIV and chronic hep B when other options not possible. Active against HIV 1 and HIV 2.

28
Q

What is the active ingredient in Seebri Breezhaler?

A

Glycoryrronium an antimuscarinic active that does not cross BBB, used for COPD and inhibits cholinergic transmission.

IT does reduce the bodies sweating ability.

Can be used in anaesthesia for reducing secretions.

29
Q

What is Equasym XL?

A

Methylphenidate, works in ADHD by increasing dopamine levels.

30
Q

What spectrum is flucloxacillin?

A

Narrow, beta lactam penicillin

31
Q

What is colchicine used for/why does it work?

A

Can be used for:
Acute gout
Short-term prophylaxis during initial therapy with allopurionol and uricosuric drugs.

Prophylaxis of familial mediterranean fever.

Works by binding to tubulin preventing the construction of the microtubules needed for mitosis and cell replication.

32
Q

Can gabapentin be used for pain in viral meningitis?

A

Apparently yes.

33
Q

What is the Pill-in-the-pocket approach?

A

Where people have infrequent paroxysms and few symptoms, or where symptoms of AF are induced by known precipitants (alcohol, coffee) a ‘no drug treatment strategy’ or pill-in-the-pocket approach can be considered and discussed with a patient.

Propafenone or flecainide.

34
Q

What are the monitoring requirements with Orlistat use?

A

In order to continue therapy after 3 months, patient must have lost at least 5% of pre-treatment body weight (less in type 2 diabetes).

35
Q

NS3/4A inhibitors, NS5A inhibitors and NS5B inhibitors are used in the treatment of what?

A

HCV

36
Q

Why can modulating the serotonin and noradrenaline concentrations in the brain be effective in fibromyalgia treatment?

A

Serotonin and noradrenaline are involved with the pain-processing pathways via their action on descending inhibitory pathways in the brain and spinal cord.

37
Q

What two SNRI medications are recommended for the treatment of fibromyalgia?

A

Duloxetine and milnacipran.

38
Q

Why might milnacipran be preferred in a patient suffering from fibromyalgia with many co-morbidities?

A

Duloxetine is metabolised via p450 2D6 pathway, a system which metabolises around 25% of clinically used drugs. Therefore there is a high risk of drug interactions.

Variations in the metabolism of duloxetine can occur due to polymorphisms of the 2D6 gene.

39
Q

SNRIs can be combined with pregabalin and simple analgesics, however, caution should be taken when combining SNRIs with TCAs or tramadol. Why is this?

A

Potential risk of serotonin syndrome.

40
Q

Both gabapentin and pregabalin have some place in fibromyalgia treatment, how do they work?

A

Gabapentin: exerts it actions via modulating neuronal voltage gated calcium channels. Has a shorter half-life than pregabalin.

Pregabalin: binds to voltage-gated calcium channels, reducing calcium influx at sensitised spinal cord neutrons, thereby reducing the release of neuroactive molecules, including glutamate, substance P and noradrenaline into the synapse.

41
Q

Amitriptyline is a TCA often used in fibromyalgia management. What are it’s common side effects?

A

Dry mouth, constipation, daytime drowsiness and mental clouding. Like pregabalin, patients may benefit from taking it in the evening to promote sleep and minimise daytime side effects.

42
Q

Are NSAIDs and glucocorticoids useful in the treatment of fibromyalgia? Why?

A

NSAIDs and glucocorticoids act peripherally to reduce inflammation at the site of tissue damage.
As the pain experienced by patients with fibromyalgia is not nociceptive, these medications are not useful.

43
Q

Why might fibromyalgia patients respond poorly to opioid treatment?

A

Evidence suggests that patients with fibromyalgia have abnormal endogenous opioidergic activity. Reduced mu-opioid receptor binding in several central nervous system centres that are involved in processing pain has been seen.

Endogenous opioids Have also been shown to be elevated in the CSF of fibromyalgia patients. Together, these findings may be suggestive of chronically activated endogenous opioid system leading to down regulation of opioid receptors.

44
Q

What is Sacubitril/Valsartan used for?

A

Heart failure.

45
Q

Public health England recommends what as firstline treatment for non- severe c.diff infection?

A

Oral metronidazole

46
Q

For a diagnosis of depression to be made against DSM-4, at least how many of the symptoms must have been present during the same two-week period and must represent a change from previous functioning?

A

5

47
Q

Which two CCBs are very commonly associated with an increased incidence of peripheral oedema?

A

Felodipine and diltiazem

48
Q

NICE has licensed and approved Thalidomide for the treatment of what in older patients over 70 who are ineligible for an autologous stem cell transplant?

A

Multiple myeloma a haematological cancer characterised by the overproduction of abnormal plasma cells in the bone marrow.

49
Q

All women with pre-existing diabetes should take high-dose POM folic acid 5mg once a day for at least three months before conception and up until what point?

A

12 weeks’ gestation

50
Q

A diabetic patient with a callous and nerve damage (neuropathy) is it what risk of a foot ulcer? What is the recommended review period?

A

Moderate risk, review three-six months with foot protection service.

51
Q

Outside of the intensive care unit, NICE recommends what as first-line therapy for the management of sepsis?

A

Fluid resuscitation

Random (Pre-Reg) (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions