ITE CA2 pharm 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Meperidine’s beneficial effects which receptor

A

Meperidine’s beneficial effects are multimodal and center around the kappa opioid receptor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

opioid associated with increases in heart rate and why

A

Meperidine has structural similarities to atropine. Which is why meperidine is the only opioid associated with increases in heart rate following administration. Meperidine also has some weak local anesthetic effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

mu receptor subclasses

A

The µ1 receptor produces the analgesic and physical dependence properties of most opioids

µ2 receptor results in respiratory depression, miosis, euphoria, decreased gastrointestinal motility, and physical dependence.

µ3 receptors are unknown but may mediate some anti-inflammatory activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

kappa receptor

A

The κ receptor mediates analgesia but also dysphoria, sedation, miosis, and inhibits antidiuretic hormone release.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

delta receptor

A

The δ receptor is responsible for analgesia, physical dependence, and perhaps antidepressant effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

nalbuphine recetpors

A

Nalbuphine works as a kappa-agonist/mu-antagonist analgesic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

methadone
receptors
types of pain to use it for
important side effect

A

Methadone exerts significant effects on the mu opioid receptor.

Methadone also acts on the NMDA receptor as an antagonist. NMDA receptor antagonism explains methadone’s effect for neuropathic pain and in opioid tolerance. Furthermore, the NMDA antagonism and serotonin reuptake inhibition make methadone an effective choice for chronic neuropathic pain as well as modulation of some of the psychological concerns of patients living with chronic pain.

Methadone does prolong the QT interval and should be monitored.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

morphine

  • receptor
  • metabolism
  • active metabolite
A

Morphine has its main effect on the mu opioid receptor.
Morphine is metabolized by the liver to morphine-3-glucuronide (M3G) and morphine-6-glucuronide (M6G). More morphine is metabolized to M3G than M6G.
However M6G is an active metabolite of morphine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Remifentanil

  • receptor
  • metabolism
A

Remifentanil has its main effect upon the mu opioid receptor. Remifentanil is unique with a very short half-life which is not affected by the infusion time. Remifentanil is metabolized by nonspecific plasma and tissue esterases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mesna

A

Mesna is an antioxidant that prevents cyclophosphamide induced hemorrhagic cystitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
Common Chemo-Toxicities:
Cisplatin, Carboplatin: 
Vincristine: 
Bleomycin, Busulfan: 
Doxorubicin:
Trastuzumab:
Cyclophosphamide: 
5-FU, 6-MP, methotrexate:
A
Common Chemo-Toxicities:
Cisplatin, Carboplatin: acoustic nerve damage, nephrotoxicity
Vincristine: peripheral neuropathy
Bleomycin, Busulfan: pulmonary fibrosis
Doxorubicin: cardiotoxicity
Trastuzumab: cardiotoxicity
Cyclophosphamide: hemorrhagic cystitis
5-FU, 6-MP, methotrexate: myelosuppression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Roc clearance

A

Approximately 25-30% of rocuronium is renally excreted. It is cleared primarily by hepatic uptake and hepatobiliary excretion.
More importantly, rocuronium is primarily excreted through the hepatobiliary system and prolonged paralysis can be seen in patients with cirrhosis and liver failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

NMBs not affected by renal failure

A

Of the commonly used NMBs, only succinylcholine and cisatracurium have minimal renal excretion and predictable durations of action in patients with renal failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Renal disease effect of half life on
Roc
vec
panc

A

The half-lives of vecuronium and pancuronium are significantly prolonged due to the accumulation of active metabolites that are renally excreted. In fact, 80% of pancuronium is renally excreted unchanged in the urine. By contrast, the half-life of rocuronium is only slightly prolonged (1.2-1.6 hours in normal patients vs. 1.6-1.7 hours in patients with end stage renal disease) since there are no active metabolites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Metabolites and their effects
Meperidine
Morphine
How they’re excreted and why it matters

A

The active metabolite in meperidine, normeperidine, causes seizure activity.
Morphine’s primary active metabolite, M6G, has a 100-fold greater potency, but exhibits an equal or decreased affinity for μ-receptors compared to morphine. Accumulation of M6G can result in respiratory depression. Morphine’s inactive metabolite, M3G, may cause myoclonus and allodynia. As morphine and meperidine metabolites are typically excreted via the kidneys, their side effects are prolonged in the setting of renal failure. ≈

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Barbiturates in renal failure

A

Barbiturates have decreased protein binding in renal failure which leads to higher concentrations of free active molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Allodynia

A

feeling pain from stuff that shouldn’t cause pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mivacurium in renal failure

How is it metabolized

A

Mivacurium activity is also independent of renal dysfunction because it is hydrolyzed by pseudocholinesterase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Propofol in renal failure

A

In general, propofol pharmacokinetics are similar between healthy patients and those with renal failure. Volume of distribution may be larger in uremic patients due to decreased albumin concentrations in that population. Total body clearance of propofol has been shown to be increased in uremic patients, which may seem counterintuitive. This is thought to be due to accelerated hepatic biotransformation in patients with renal failure. After a bolus dose of propofol, blood concentrations have been found to be lower between the 2-10 minute mark in renal failure patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

2 categories of calcium channel blockers and 3 drugs in each

A
Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers
-Nifedipine
-Nicardipine
-Amlodipine
Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers:
-Nimodipine
-Diltiazem
-Verapamil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Compare DHP CCB to non-DHP CCBs

A

Dihydropyridine CCB: decrease SVR
Non-DHP CCB: increased selectivity for myocardium, cardiac conduction system, coronary arteries; decreased platelet aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
Digoxin
mechanism
potentiated by
results in what electrolyte change
half life
antidote
A

Decrase Na/K ATPase activity, leads to increased intracellular Na/Ca exchange leads to increased contractility
potentiated by hypokalemia, thiazide diuretics, amiodarone, decreased renal fxn
results in hypercalcemia
half life 40 hours
antidote: digibind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cardiovascular effects of milrinone

A

The cardiovascular effects of milrinone can be summarized as: increased inotropy, increased lusitropy, increased ejection fraction, increased stroke volume, increased cardiac output, decreased afterload, decreased preload, pulmonary vasodilation, and systemic vasodilation.

TrueLearn Insight : Milrinone has been shown to improve mixed venous admixture through its reduction in myocardial oxygen consumption.

Since it does not act on the adrenergic alpha and beta receptors, milrinone has been proven effective as an inotrope in the setting of beta blockade and in the setting of beta receptor down-regulation (e.g. CHF). Milrinone is commonly used synergistically with adrenergic agents (e.g. epinephrine, norepinephrine). Milrinone is unique in its ability to increase cardiac index without increasing myocardial oxygen demand. It also improves myocardial relaxation (lusitropy) and augments coronary circulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

milrinone MoA

A

Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase III (PDE3) inhibitor which increases inotropy. Both an arterial and venodilator.
Milrinone, therefore, increases cAMP levels which causes its inodilator properties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Ketamine psychomimetic reactions decreased by

A

Ketamine is associated with a high incidence of psychomimetic reactions early in the recovery period. The incidence of these reactions can be decreased by coadministration of benzodiazepines, propofol, or barbiturates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Etomidate
effects on cortisol
mechanism of effects on cortisol

A

Etomidate inhibits the synthesis of cortisol transiently in all patients and should be avoided in patients with adrenal insufficiency. Etomidate specifically inhibits 11β-hydroxylase and 17α-hydroxylase in the cortisol pathway in a reversible dose-dependent fashion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Nicardipine metabolism and elimination

A

Nicardipine is metabolized by the liver and eliminated via gastrointestinal tract. Renal insufficiency has no effect on nicardipine use. Severe hepatic insufficiency results in significantly prolonged nicardipine half-life (normal half life is 60-100 min).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Nicardipine effects

A

coronary and peripheral arterial dilator.
Nicardipine (intravenous and oral) can cause an increase in heart rate in about 25% of the people. This tachycardia is NOT due to baroreceptor response, rather due to sympathetic activation. Nicardipine decreases systemic vascular resistance, but also increases cardiac contractility (C). The exact mechanism of this positive inotropic effect is unknown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
Nicardipine
affected how by renal insufficiency
effect on renal blood flow
effect on GFR
effect on renovascular resistance
A

Nicardipine dosage is not affected by renal insufficiency (D). The use of nicardipine increases both renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate and also decreases renovascular resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Metoclopramide

effects at what dosing

A

It is used perioperatively as an antiemetic. By promoting gastric emptying and increasing gastroesophageal sphincter tone, it may decrease the risk of pulmonary aspiration.

Per ASA guidelines, “Metoclopramide is a weak antiemetic and at a dose of 10 mg is not effective in reducing the incidence of nausea and vomiting.”

Higher doses (25-50 mg) may be necessary to have discernible benefit, but carry the risk of more side effects such as extrapyramidal symptoms. Metoclopramide has little effect on gastric acidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Metoclopramide and succinylcholine interaction

A

Metoclopramide inhibits plasma cholinesterase and can increase the duration of action of succinylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

half life of
flumazenil
midazolam

A

The duration of action of midazolam (half-life 1.7-2.6 hours) exceeds that of flumazenil (half-life 0.7-1.3 hours).

This makes recrudescence of benzodiazepine-induced somnolence after metabolism of flumazenil likely in this context.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what reversal agent can cause pulm edema

A

naloxone with large bolus doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Milrinone metab/excretion?

A

Milrinone is excreted via the kidneys in its unconjugated form and therefore dosage should be adjusted in the setting of renal failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

MIlrinone side effects

A

Common side effects of milrinone include tachycardia and hypotension. Thrombocytopenia was a clinical concern with the use of amrinone (renamed inamrinone) but is not significant with milrinone use after 48 hours of infusion. Higher doses of milrinone have been associated with atrial fibrillation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Hepatopulmonary syndrome

  • definition
  • etiology
  • how diagnose
  • treatment
A

Hepatopulmonary syndrome is the triad of intrapulmonary vascular dilatations IPVDs, increased A-a gradient, and hepatic failure. Excessive levels of circulating NO result in significant ventilation-perfusion mismatching. A positive contrast-enhanced echocardiography (CEE) supports the diagnosis in a patient without underlying cardiopulmonary disease. Liver transplantation is the only definitive treatment and complete resolution of abnormal gas exchange may take up to a year following transplantation.

Hypoxia is improved when the patient lies flat (platypnea) and is worsened when the patient stands (orthodeoxia). The intrapulmonary vascular dilations cause increased perfusion relative to ventilation. Standing further worsens this ventilation-perfusion mismatch since gravity causes increased perfusion and pooling in the less-ventilated lower lung segments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Common side effects of ondansetron include

A

Common side effects of ondansetron include QTc prolongation (20%, very rarely clinically significant), headache (11%), transient AST/ALT increases (5%), constipation (4%), rash (1%), flushing/warmth (< 1%), and dizziness (< 1%).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Intravenous administration of etomidate is associated with

A

Intravenous administration of etomidate is associated with pain on injection, postoperative nausea and vomiting, and superficial thrombophlebitis. Ways to prevent thrombophlebitis are to use larger veins, increasing the speed of injection, and pretreatment with lidocaine. Treatment options are controversial but include the use of NSAIDS and elastic stockings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

PGE1
uses
side effects

A

PGE1 is used to maintain patency or reopen the ductus arteriosus in “ductal dependent lesions” to improve blood flow to the lungs or systemic circulation depending on the nature of the congenital lesion. Side effects include apnea, hypotension, fevers, and CNS irritability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Dexmedetomidine metabolism and excretion

A

Dexmedetomidine is extensively metabolized in the liver before being excreted in urine and feces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Dexmedetomidine MoA and effects

A

Dexmedetomidine is a selective α2-adrenergic agonist (α2:α1 = 1600:1) that causes inhibition of presynaptic norepinephrine release from peripheral and central nervous system neurons (particularly those in the spinal cord and locus ceruleus in the brainstem). This results in analgesia, anxiolysis, sedation, and sympatholysis.

42
Q

Dexmedetomidine
how many compartment model
context sensitive half time range
affected by renal failure?

A

Dexmedetomidine is rapidly distributed following intravenous administration and exhibits nonlinear three-compartment model pharmacokinetics. The three-compartment model consists of a central compartment and two peripheral compartments, one of which is a rapidly equilibrating compartment while the other is a slowly equilibrating compartment.

This pharmacokinetic model explains dexmedetomidine’s wide context-sensitive half-time range: four minutes after a 10-minute infusion versus four hours after an 8-hour infusion.

Interestingly, dexmedetomidine’s pharmacokinetics are not significantly affected by patient age, weight, or the presence of renal failure.

43
Q

Upon which site does gabapentin most likely have its effect in treating chronic neuropathic pain conditions

A

Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant effective in several neuropathic pain conditions including post-herpetic neuralgia and painful diabetic neuropathy. Gabapentin has efficacy at the α2-delta subunit of calcium channels.

44
Q
Site of action for these meds:
lamotrigine
topiramate
carbamazepine
levetiracetam
drug class
A

lamotrigine: Ca channels
topiramate: GABAa, T-type Ca channels, glutamate receptors
carbamazepine: voltage-dependent sodium channels
levetiracetam: preseynaptic calcium channel glycoprotein SV2A
anti-convulsants

45
Q

Medications that most commonly cause drug fever include

and what is the treatment

A

Medications that most commonly cause drug fever include amphotericin, cephalosporins, penicillins, phenytoin, procainamide, and quinidine. Other medications known to cause drug fever include cimetidine, carbamazepine, hydralazine, rifampin, streptokinase, and vancomycin.
Treatment involves stopping an offending medication and is otherwise supportive.

46
Q

How does hydrocortisone assist with septic shock

A

Hydrocortisone inhibits nitric oxide synthesis.

47
Q

NSAIDs
MoA
Maximum analgesic effect?

A

NSAIDs are COX inhibitors that can be used as an effective mode of therapy for postoperative and chronic pain. They exhibit a “ceiling effect” meaning they are ineffective beyond a certain dose; unlike pure opioids agonists.

NSAIDs lead to a decrease in the production of prostaglandins. Prostaglandin E2 is the key mediator of both peripheral and central pain sensitization.

48
Q

Cox 1 vs cox 2

A

COX-1 is the constitutive enzyme that produces prostaglandins, which are important for general “house-keeping” functions such as gastric protection and hemostasis. COX-2, on the other hand, is the inducible form of the enzyme that produces prostaglandins that mediate pain, inflammation, fever, and carcinogenesis.

49
Q

NSAIDs in spine surgery

A

Both COX-1 and COX-2 play significant roles in bone fusion following fracture, and the use of the traditional NSAIDs has been found to inhibit the healing process, particularly following lumbar spinal fusion surgery

50
Q

Cardiovascular medications that can be given intramuscularly include, but are not limited to:

A

Cardiovascular medications that can be given intramuscularly include, but are not limited to: atropine, glycopyrrolate, ephedrine, epinephrine, phenylephrine, and hydralazine.

51
Q

Dexmedetomidine hemodynamic effects as bolus and infusion on
BP
CO
HR

A

Dexmedetomidine has varying hemodynamic effects depending on whether it is given as a bolus or as an infusion. A bolus can produce transient hypertension while an infusion may cause a slight decrease in pressure that returns to baseline as the infusion continues. Cardiac output and heart rate decrease to varying degrees with bolus and infusion dosing.

52
Q

Why biphasic response precedex

A

The biphasic response occurs because alpha-2 receptors are located in two locations producing different responses. Initially, dexmedetomidine acts on peripheral alpha-2 receptors and causes vasoconstriction in the peripheral vasculature. Subsequently, the centrally located alpha-2 receptors are stimulated. The central receptors reduce the sympathetic tone and increase the parasympathetic outflow. It also acts to reset the baroreceptor system to a lower set blood pressure.

53
Q

_____ is a neurotoxin that potently inhibits acetylcholinesterase, causing continual transmission of nerve impulses and inability to control respiratory muscles

A

Sarin

54
Q

_____ inhibits fast sodium currents in myocytes, thus preventing contraction of respiratory muscles.

A

Tetrodotoxin

55
Q

buprenorphine

A

Buprenorphine is a partial mu agonist. Its maximum opioid effects are less than those of full agonists.

56
Q

standard initial therapy for tricyclic antidepressent (TCA) toxicity

A

sodium bicarb

57
Q

EKG changes with methadone

A

QT prolongation; dose dependent especially greater than 120 mg/day,

58
Q

Common medications that can lead to hyperkalemia and QRS widening include

A

Common medications that can lead to hyperkalemia and QRS widening include angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blocking medications, potassium sparing diuretics, tacrolimus, succinylcholine, heparin, and certain antifungals.

59
Q

Prolongation of the PR interval can be seen with

A

Prolongation of the PR interval can be seen with digitalis toxicity, and can increase to the point of first-degree atrioventricular block (C). This can also occur with high doses of beta antagonists and non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocking medications.

60
Q

Shortening of the PR interval

A

Shortening of the PR interval can occur when accessory tracts are present that allow atrial depolarization to reach the ventricles by means other than the atrioventricular node (D). The most common of these include Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) and Lown-Ganong-Levine (LGL) syndromes.

61
Q

Methadone additional MOA

A

Methadone has NMDA antagonistic properties in addition to opioid receptor agonism.

62
Q
Effect on hepatic artery flow:
angiotensin II
Sevoflurane
Glucagon
Vasopressin
A

angiotensin II - decreases
Sevoflurane - decreases
Glucagon - increases
Vasopressin - decreases

63
Q

Immediate temporizing therapy of clinically significant hypercalcemia includes

A

Immediate temporizing therapy of clinically significant hypercalcemia includes volume replacement with normal saline and loop diuretics.

64
Q

phentolamine

A

alpha blocker

65
Q

Effect of age on neuromuscular blocking drugs

how change induction dose

A

No change in the initial dose of a neuromuscular blocking agent is required for geriatric patients when compared to young adults. The effects of aging on neuromuscular blocking agents include: delayed onset of action, reduced requirements for maintenance dosing, and prolonged duration of action.

66
Q

Mechanisms of action of medications for aspiration prophylaxis:
Metoclopramide
H2 antagonists
Sodium citrate

A

Mechanisms of action of medications for aspiration prophylaxis:
Metoclopramide - increases LES tone and gastric emptying.
Ranitidine and other H2 antagonists - decreases both the amount and acidity of gastric secretions.
Sodium citrate - decreases the acidity of gastric contents.

67
Q
NMDA receptor:
type of receptor
function
activated by
mediated by
A

The NMDA receptor is an inotropic glutamate receptor that
functions as a nonspecific ion channel when activated.
Activation only occurs when glutamate is bound to the receptor AND the cell is depolarized.
The receptor’s effects are primarily mediated via increased intracellular calcium.

68
Q

Terbutaline
drug class
use
side effects

A

beta agonist (greater affinity for beta 2 than 1)
tocolytic
tachycardia, hypokalemia, hyperglycemia

69
Q

lipophillic opioids

difference

A

fentanyl, alfentanil, sufentanil, remifentanil

lipophilic opioids rapidly cross the blood-brain barrier, producing more rapid analgesia effects compared to less lipophilic opioids such as morphine.
Lipophilic opioids are also cleared from the CNS more rapidly, explaining why fentanyl is cleared from the CNS faster than morphine

70
Q

morphine
plasma half-life
analgesic action

A

half life 2 hours

analgesic action 4-5 hours

71
Q

______ is the current gold standard for perioperative DVT and PE chemoprophylaxis due to its ability to decrease the incidence of venous thromboembolism while only minimally increasing the risk for major surgical bleeding.

A

Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the current gold standard for perioperative DVT and PE chemoprophylaxis due to its ability to decrease the incidence of venous thromboembolism while only minimally increasing the risk for major surgical bleeding.

72
Q

relative contraindications to beta blockers (if something else is available)

A

severe COPD and diabetes mellitus are relative contraindications to the use of beta-blockers

73
Q

Labetalol receptor actions

A

β1 antagonist, partial β2 agonist, and an α1-receptor antagonist

74
Q

Etomidate MoA

A

Etomidate exerts its clinical effect at the GABAA receptor by binding to specific sites on the receptor which enhances the affinity for GABA binding. Etomidate only directly activates the receptor at supra-clinical doses

75
Q

Etomidate clearance

A

Etomidate is highly protein bound (~75%) and metabolized by liver ester hydrolysis to inactive metabolites that are primarily excreted by the kidneys

76
Q

Name 3 potassium sparing duretics

A

A mnemonic for the potassium-sparing diuretics is: “The K+ STAys,” for Spironolactone, Triamterene, and Amiloride.

77
Q

Thiazide diuretics metabolic derrangements

A

electrolyte abnormalities observed with thiazide diuretics include hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hyperuricemia.

78
Q

loop diuretics metabolic derrangements

A

Hypokalemia and hyponatremia can be observed after administration of loop diuretics such as furosemide and bumetanide

79
Q

When avoid which uterotonics

A

Carboprost should be avoided in patients with a history of asthma and methylergonovine should be avoided in patients with hypertension or preeclampsia.

80
Q

Sacubitril

A

Sacubitril is an antihypertensive drug that acts by inhibiting the enzyme neprilysin (the enzyme that breaks down ANP and BNP). It is currently available as a combination with valsartan. No specific guidelines are available relative to stopping or continuing sacubitril during the perioperative period.

81
Q

Initial treatment for hypercalcemia

A

Initial treatment for hypercalcemia should be aimed at volume correction. With restoration of the patient’s fluid deficit furosemide can be used to decrease calcium levels.

Bisphosphonates are considered part of first-line therapy, however since they do not acutely decrease calcium levels they are not first choice for acute hypercalcemia.
Calcitonin is considered second-line therapy for hypercalcemia. Calcitonin takes 24-48 hours to work and 25% of patients may not have a response. Natural calcitonin is made by C-cell in the thyroid. Calcitonin antagonizes the effects of parathyroid stimulating hormone (PTH).

82
Q

droperidol problems

A

extrapyramidal symptoms

QT prolongation

83
Q

The maximum recommended dose of lidocaine that may be injected during tumescent liposuction is

A

The maximum recommended dose of lidocaine that may be injected during tumescent liposuction is 55 mg/kg.

84
Q

The maximum recommended dose of epinephrine during tumescent liposuction is

A

The maximum recommended dose of epinephrine is 0.055 mg/kg (1:1,000,000 concentration).

85
Q

For each day after interruption of any irreversible antiplatelet agent (aspirin, clopidogrel), approximately 10% to 14% of normal platelet function is restored thus it can take 7 to 10 days for an entire platelet pool to be replenished which irreversibly inhibits platelet function.

A

For each day after interruption of any agent, approximately 10% to 14% of normal platelet function is restored thus it can take 7 to 10 days for an entire platelet pool to be replenished which irreversibly inhibits platelet function.

86
Q
Scopolamine 
MoA
timing
common side effects
contraindications
A

Scopolamine is an antimuscarinic drug that, when applied as a transdermal patch, can help prevent or treat PONV for up to 72 hours. The patch should be applied at least four hours prior to the need for its antiemetic action (peak 24 hours). The patch should never be cut or otherwise damaged as this can alter drug delivery. Common side effects include blurred vision, dry mouth, and agitation. Scopolamine is relatively contraindicated in patients with glaucoma since the drug’s mydriatic and cycloplegic effects can raise IOP.

87
Q

CNS depression secondary to anticholinergic medication can be reversed by

A

CNS depression secondary to anticholinergic medication can be reversed by physostigmine, an anticholinesterase that crosses the blood-brain barrier.

Pyridostigmine mnemonic: pyramids are large, large things cannot cross the blood-brain barrier.
(alternatively) pyramid base has 4 edges/corners, quaternary structures do not cross the blood-brain barrier.

88
Q

dexmedetomidine excretion

A

Dexmedetomidine undergoes almost complete biotransformation in the liver through the cytochrome P450 system with very little excretion of unchanged medication. Approximately 95% of the metabolites are excreted in the urine although there is little known about the activity of the metabolites. Because of this, patients with hepatic failure may need a decreased dose and patients with renal failure may have an accumulation of metabolites with larger doses and prolonged infusion.

89
Q

chloroprocaine metabolism

A

Chloroprocaine is rapidly metabolized by plasma cholinesterase (half-life in the plasma is about 20 seconds), therefore leaving very little drug available to cross the placenta.

90
Q

Local anesthetics site and mechanism of action

A

Local anesthetics facilitate peripheral nervous blockade by reversibly binding to the intracellular portion of the voltage-gated sodium channels.

91
Q

side effects of NSAIDs in elderly

A

In elderly patients, 10-20% will experience dyspepsia with NSAID use. There is an increased risk of atrial fibrillation, development of congestive heart failure, renal toxicity, and gastrointestinal bleeding. However, these risks are lower than that of dyspepsia.

92
Q

3 mechanisms for nitroprusside toxicity

A

Nitroprusside is metabolized to cyanide ions and toxicity can occur following lengthy infusions. The three major mechanisms for nitroprusside toxicity are

1) Cyanide ions bind to cytochrome c oxidase and inhibit cellular aerobic respiration.
2) Formation of cyanmethemoglobin which is unable to carry oxygen.
3) Thiocyanate production which causes CNS-related effects.

93
Q

CYP3A4 inhibitors

A

Patients taking CYP3A4 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lidocaine toxicity. A few examples include: grapefruit juice, verapamil, diltiazem, amiodarone, and omeprazole.

94
Q

Pancuronium elimination

A

Pancuronium should be avoided in renal disease. Pancuronium elimination occurs by kidneys at approximately 80%.

95
Q

Vecuronium elimination

A

Vecuronium and rocuronium are primarily biliary excreted with about 20% renal elimination.

96
Q

Mivacurium elimination

A

Mivacurium is degraded by plasma cholinesterases, and therefore not affected by renal failure.

97
Q

Best meds to relieve opioid-induced biliary colic

A

Atropine, papaverine, and naloxone can relieve opioid-induced biliary colic.

98
Q

Misoprostol

A

Misoprostol is a commonly used synthetic analog of prostaglandin E1 which causes cervical ripening and increases in uterine tone. It may be administered by oral, sublingual, buccal, vaginal, or rectal routes. Uterine rupture is a possible side effect when misoprostol is used for induction of labor in patients with a history of cesarean section. Other uncommon side effects include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting.

99
Q

magnesium effect on BP and mechanism

A

Vasodilation occurs with magnesium therapy and causes a decrease in blood pressure and in some cases hypotension.
Vasodilation occurs by calcium antagonism in vascular smooth muscle and by increased production of nitric oxide and prostacyclin I2.

100
Q

Sugammadex is a synthetic, modified γ-_______

A

Sugammadex is a synthetic, modified γ-cyclodextrin (an 8-glucose ring). Accordingly, a patient with hypersensitivity to cyclodextrins is at significantly increased risk for an anaphylactic reaction to sugammadex and its use is contraindicated.

101
Q

Sugammadex is physically incompatible with ___

A

Sugammadex is physically incompatible with ondansetron, ranitidine, and verapamil and should not be co-administered with these medications. If sugammadex and one of the above drugs are to be administered in the same line, the line should be adequately flushed with saline between administration of the two drugs.