ITA-Block 2 Flashcards

0
Q

Radial piston

A

Composed of an odd number of cylinders arranged in a circle

Increased drag and reduced visibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Piston engine

A

Engine turns a propellor to push or pull AC through the air.

Can be liquid or air cooled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Horizontally opposed piston

A

Even number of cylinders set opposite each other

Decreased drag and increased visibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Turbojet

A

Air from outside the AC is compressed and mixed with gas which ignites and expands to drive the turbine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Turbofan

A

The fan propels the air through to the combustion chamber for more thrust than a turbojet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Turboprop

A

A combination of propeller and jet engine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Fine pitch propeller

A

Rotates more quickly
Less drag
Better for take off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Coarse pitch propeller

A

Slower RPM

Better for cruising altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Fixed pitch

A

Blade angle set to give the best general performance under all flight conditions.
Trade off for best take off performance and for best cruise performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Variable pitch

A

Adjustable: prop blades may be adjusted on the ground

Controllable: prop blades may be adjusted in flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Constant speed propeller

A

Fixed with a governor that alters the angle of the blade to always maintain the same RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Feathering

A

Blades are turned to extreme coarse pitch

Used to reduce drag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Mechanical blockage reversers

A

Bucket doors are deployed to deflect the exhaust forward to produce reverse thrust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Aerodynamic blockage system

A

Causes exhaust gases to redirect thrust outward and forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Asymmetrical thrust

A

Yawing of an aircraft due to a failed engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ailerons

A

On trailing edge of the wing
Move opposite each other
Cause AC to roll
Controlled by turning the steering column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Elevators

A

Trailing edge of horizontal stabilizer (tail)
Changes pitch of the AC
Controlled by pushing and pulling the steering column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Rudders

A

Located on the tail
Controls the AC yaw
Controlled by using the rudder pedals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Trim tabs

A

Located on trailing edge of ailerons, rudders, elevators
Maintains altitude without using controls
Controlled by the turning of a control wheel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Flaps

A

Located on the trailing edge of the wing
Primarily increase lift
3 types: lift, lift-drag, and drag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Speed brakes

A

Hinged doors usually located on the rear of the fuselage to create drag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Slots

A

Passageways just behind the leading edge used to smooth out the airflow over the wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Slats

A

Airfoils in the leading edge of the wing used to smooth airflow over the wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Spoilers

A

Fitted into the top of the wing to reduce lift. Usually deployed after touchdown.
May be partially extended during flight to increase descent or reduce airspeed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Vortex generators

A

Small plates on the wing used to generate vortices to improve the performance of the wing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Control locks

A

May be placed on rudders ailerons or elevators to prevent their movement and therefore prevent damage
Brightly coloured to be removed by pilots pre-flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Conventional wheels

A

Tail dragger or tail wheel
Two wheels: one at front, one at back
Good for landing on rough strips and when visibility, often due to the propeller, is low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Tricycle wheel

A

Two wheels are located behind the centre of gravity and one wheel is located at the nose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Bicycle wheel

A

Main landing gear is located at both the front and the rear of the AC.
Outrigger wheels are usually located near the wing tips.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Retractable wheels

A

Wheels that are retracted into the fuselage or wings to decrease drag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Static pressure

A

The pressure of the air surrounding the AC at flight altitude
Decreases with altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Dynamic pressure

A

Additional force exerted on the body of the plane by the resistance of air movement
Increases with speed and air density
Information gathered from pitot head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Pitot pressure

A

The sum of static and dynamic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Airspeed indicator

A

Shows ACs speed in the air, not over the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Machmeter

A

The ratio of an ACs true airspeed to the speed of sound.

Mach 1.0 is equal to the speed of sound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Speed of sound

A

1120 feet per second

Varies with temp, pressure and air density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Altimeter instrument

A

Measures the pressure height of an aircraft above sea level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Vertical speed indicator

A

Measures the change in atmospheric pressure occurring with the change of height
Used to display the rate of climb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Attitude indicator

A

Provides the pilot with a mechanical reference to the natural horizon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Heading indicator

A

Indicates the AC heading and helps pilot to get to a required heading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Turn coordinator

A

Indicates the rate of turn as well as whether or not the turn is coordinated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Air density

A

Dense air provides more lift than less dense
Moist air is less dense than dry
Hot air is less dense than cool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Profile drag

A

Drag created by skin friction between the air and the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Parasite drag

A

Drag produced by parts of the aircraft that do not produce lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Induced drag

A

Occurs with the increase in lift because of the difference in the direction that the air flows over and under the wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Longitudinal axis

A

Runs through the fuselage from the nose to the tail

46
Q

Lateral axis

A

Runs from wing tip to wing tip

47
Q

Vertical axis

A

Runs vertical through the fuselage, near where the other town axes meet

48
Q

Standard atmospheric conditions

A

15 degrees Celsius
29.92 inches of mercury
Sea level

49
Q

How does height above sea level affect pressure?

A

The higher above sea level, the lower the pressure

50
Q

How does temperature affect air density?

A

The higher the temperature, the less dense the air

51
Q

How does pressure affect air density?

A

The lower the pressure, the more dense the air.

52
Q

How does temperature affect indicated airspeed?

A

The higher the temperature, the less the indicated airspeed.

53
Q

How does temperature affect the amount of runway needed to land and take off?

A

The higher the temperature, the more runway required to land or take off

54
Q

How does temperature affect the rate of climb of an AC?

A

The higher the temperature, the less the rate of climb.

55
Q

How does pressure affect airspeed?

A

As pressure increases, airspeed decreases.

56
Q

How does pressure affect the amount of room needed for take off and landing?

A

The higher the pressure, the less room required for take off and landing

57
Q

How does pressure affect the ACs rate of climb?

A

The higher the pressure, the greater the rate of climb.

58
Q

Heading

A

The radial to which the nose of the aircraft is pointing.

59
Q

Track

A

The path of the aircraft over the ground.
Influenced by wind.
If there is a direct headwind, tailwind, or if there is no wind, the track is the same as the heading.

60
Q

Drift

A

The difference between an ACs heading and track.

61
Q

Out of wind

A

When an AC lands with a crosswind.

62
Q

True airspeed

A

The actual airspeed of the AC
Corrected for temperature and altitude.
The speed at which the pilot will file on a flight plan.

63
Q

Indicated airspeed

A

The airspeed read from the indicator.

Must be corrected due to temperature and altitude.

64
Q

Ground speed

A

The true airspeed plus or minus the speed of any tailwind, headwind or crosswind.

65
Q

Aircraft cannot reduce airspeed and commence descent simultaneously

A
  • reduce power, maintain altitude, airspeed reduces, AC descends
  • reduce power, push nose down to maintain speed, AC descends
66
Q

Speed limit below 10,000 feet

A

250knots

67
Q

Speed limit below 3,000 feet within 10 NM of a controlled airport

A

200 knots

68
Q

Stalling speed

A

The speed below which an aircraft will lose lift.

69
Q

How does the bank of an aircraft affect stall speed?

A

The stall speed increases with the bank angle of the AC

70
Q

How does the use of flaps affect the stall speed?

A

Lift enhancing flaps: stall speed is lowered
Drag inducing flaps: stall speed increases
Lift/drag flaps: dependant on the angle, stall speed is reduced.

71
Q

Wake turbulence

A

The turbulent air behind an aircraft.

72
Q

Wing tip vortices

A

Turbulence caused by the high pressure on the underside of the wing trying to flow to the low pressure on top of the wing
Left wing vortex is clockwise
Right wing vortex is counter clockwise

73
Q

Rotor tip vortices

A

Turbulence caused by rotor blades.
Is usually greater than winged AC because of the lower operating speeds
Left side vortex is clockwise
Right side vortex is counter clockwise

74
Q

Jet engine thrust stream

A

Area of turbulence created behind an aircraft’s jet engines.

75
Q

Prop wash

A

The turbulence created by propeller driven AC

76
Q

Rotor downwash

A

The downward turbulence created by a helicopter in hovering or forward flight
Greatest while hovering
Spreads in all directions once the turbulence reaches the ground

77
Q

Induced roll

A

When an aircraft rolls with the vortex

AC with larger wing spans are more capable of counteracting the roll

78
Q

Light aircraft weight

A

12,500 lbs or less

5700kgs or less

79
Q

Medium aircraft weight

A

More than 12,500 lbs but less than 300,000 lbs

More than 5700 kgs but less than 136,000 kgs

80
Q

Heavy aircraft weight

A

More than 300,000 lbs

More than 136,000 kgs

81
Q

At what temperature does the heaviest icing usually occur?

A

-9 to 0 degrees Celsius

82
Q

Two requirements for ice formation

A

AC must be flying through visible water (cloud, rain)

Water droplets or the temperature of the surface must be 0 degrees Celsius or below

83
Q

Super-cooled water droplets

A

Water droplets below 0 degrees Celsius

84
Q

Ice can accumulate as quickly as…

A

One inch per minute

85
Q

Clear ice

A

Transparent/translucent ice coating
Very difficult to remove
Rapid build up

86
Q

Rime ice

A

White or milky, opaque, granular

Accumulates relatively slowly and is rather easy to remove

87
Q

Frost

A

Light, whitish, feathery, crystalline
Forms after humid nights when surface temp. is below 0 degrees
Thins and evaporates with flight in warm air
Increases stalling speed, distorts air flow; may be impossible to take off.

88
Q

Light icing

A

Not normally a problem unless AC is exposed for a lengthy period of time

89
Q

Moderate icing

A

Diversion might be required if rate of accumulation poses a risk of a hazardous icing situation

90
Q

Severe icing

A

Rate of accumulation is such that anti icing and deicing may fail to reduce or control the hazard.
A change in heading or altitude is essential

91
Q

Systems used to prevent or limit icing

A

Fluids
Heating devices
Rubber coverings (deicer boots)

92
Q

Carburetor icing

A

Fuel mixture cools rapidly as it passes through the carburetor, freezing water vapour in the carburetor passage
May form in clear air with high humidity
Temp. Between -6 and 21 degrees Celsius

93
Q

When reporting icing, include:

A
Intensity
Type
Location
Time
Aircraft type
94
Q

Convective currents

A

Disturbed airflow resulting from air moving vertically in convective currents
Caused by rising or descending air or
A cold air mass moving over warm air or water

95
Q

Mechanical disturbance

A

Disturbed airflow resulting from air moving past or over obstructions such as irregular terrain

96
Q

Four categories of turbulence

A

Convective currents
Mechanical disturbance
Wind shear
Wake turbulence

97
Q

Intensities of turbulence

A

Light (LGT)
Moderate (MDT)
Severs (SVR)

98
Q

Altitude at which mechanical turbulence is encountered

A

2000 feet above ground level and higher

99
Q

Wind shear

A

Change in wind speed or wind direction that creates turbulence

100
Q

High level wind shear

A

Encountered 20,000 feet and above
Change of wind speed or direction as it leaves the jet stream
Also known as clear air turbulence (CAT)
Quite violent

101
Q

Conditions for low level wind shear

A

Some fronts:
Fronts moving at 30 knots or more
A temperature difference at the front surface of 5 degrees Celsius or more
Or thunderstorms

102
Q

How far ahead of a thunderstorm can low level wind shear exist?

A

Up to 15 NM

103
Q

Lateral shearing

A

Wind approaching AC from the side

Could push AC off course during landing

104
Q

Tailwind shearing to headwind or calm

A

Headwind could pitch nose up (AC above glide path)
Airspeed increases
Lift increases
AC could land short of runway

105
Q

Headwind shearing to tailwind or calm

A

Airspeed decreases
Nose pitches
Altitude decreases
AC could overshoot runway

106
Q

Correcting tailwind shearing to headwind or calm

A

Pilot must decrease power so that AC does not overshoot the runway

107
Q

Correction for headwind shearing to tailwind or calm

A

Power must be increased so that the AC does not land short of the runway

108
Q

Information included in wind shear warnings

A

Direction of wind on both sides of front
Speed of wind on both sides of front
Altitude

109
Q

Occasional turbulence

A

Less that one third of the time

110
Q

Intermittent turbulence

A

One third to two thirds of the time

111
Q

Continuous turbulence

A

More than two thirds of the time

112
Q

Up drafts/down drafts

A

Vertical air currents
2000-6000 FPM
Can be found several thousand feet above a storm or 20 miles away from a storm

113
Q

Microbursts

A

Intense, localized downdrafts
2km in diameter above ground, 4km on ground
Two mins maximum intensity, over within ten mins