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2024 Assessment Exam 1 & 2 - Cornelius > Ischemic Heart Disease (Exam II) > Flashcards

Ischemic Heart Disease (Exam II) Flashcards

1
Q

What chemical mediators are released from ischemia that activate cardiac nociceptors?

A

Adenosine and Bradykinin

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2
Q

What is the path for cardiac pain signals to reach the spinal cord?

A

Cardiac nociceptors → Afferent Neurons → T1 - T5 SNS ganglia.

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3
Q

Differentiate stable vs unstable angina.

A
  • Stable - No change in chest pain severity or frequency in 2-mo period.
  • Unstable - Increasing frequency and severity of chest pain.
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4
Q

Are cardiac biomarkers (troponin) present with unstable angina?

A

NO. If they were, that would be an MI.

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5
Q

What EKG abnormality is associated with old MI’s and/or current ischemia?

A

T-wave inversion

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6
Q

What is nuclear stress testing utilized for?

A

Coronary Perfusion assessment
-tracer activity in perfused vs ischemic areas

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7
Q

What determines the significance of CAD during a nuclear stress test?

A

Size of the perfusion abnormality

Arrows point to arrows of lesser perfusion.

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8
Q

What test can differentiate a new vs an old perfusion abnormality?

A

Nuclear Stress Testing

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9
Q

What nuclear stress test tracers are used with exercise?

A

Thallium

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10
Q

What nuclear stress test drugs are used without exercise?

A

Atropine
Dobutamine
Pacing

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11
Q

When are adenosine and dipyridamole used with nuclear stress testing? Why?

A

Used after test to dilate normal, non-ischemic areas of the heart.

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12
Q

What test would be useful for imaging wall motion abnormalities or valvular function?

A

Echocardiography

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13
Q

What is Prinzmetal Angina?

A

Coronary vasospasm

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14
Q

What is the mechanism of action for aspirin?

A

COX-1 Inhibition → TXA2 inhibition → Plt aggregation inhibition.

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15
Q

How can aspirin be reversed?

A

Trick question. It can’t be, platelets are damaged until they die and are replaced. (7-14 days)

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16
Q

What is the mechanism of action of abciximab, eptifibatide, and tirofiban?

A

Platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists

Inhibit platelet activation, adhesion, and aggregation.

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17
Q

What drugs (discussed in lecture) are P2Y12 inhibitors?

A

Clopidogrel and Prasugrel

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18
Q

What common drug class will antagonize P2Y12 inhibitors?

A

PPIs

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19
Q

How does Prasugrel compare to Clopidogrel?

A

More predictable pharmacokinetics but greater bleeding risk.

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20
Q

How do P2Y12 inhibitors work?

A

Inhibit ADP receptor P2Y12 and thus inhibit platelet aggregation.

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21
Q

What drug classes are synergistic with nitrates?

A
  • β-blockers
  • CCBs
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22
Q

When are nitrates contraindicated?

A
  • Aortic Stenosis
  • Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
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23
Q

What drug class is the only one proven to prolong life in CAD patients?

A

β-blockers

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24
Q

What properties do β-blockers have?

A
  • Anti-ischemia
  • Anti-HTN
  • Anti-dysrhythmic
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25
Q

Which β blockers are cardioselective?

A
  • Atenolol
  • Metoprolol
  • Acebutolol
  • Bisoprolol
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26
Q

Which β blockers are non-selective?

A
  • Propanolol
  • Nadolol
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27
Q

What risk is associated with non-selective β blockers in asthma patients?

A

↑ risk of bronchospasm in reactive airway disease patients.

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28
Q

What drug class is uniquely effective in decreasing the severity/frequency of coronary vasospasm?

A

CCBs

29
Q

Angiotensin II will increase what four things?

A
  • Myocardial hypertrophy
  • Interstitial myocardial fibrosis
  • Coronary vasoconstriction
  • Inflammatory responses
30
Q

Is troponin or CK-MB more specific for myocardial injury?

A

Troponin

31
Q

How soon will troponin start to increase after myocardial injury? How long might they remain elevated?

A
  • 3 hours
  • 7-10 days
32
Q

What diagnostic studies might indicate a myocardial infarction?

A
  • EKG: abnormality (ex. LBBB)
  • US: Regional wall motion abnormalities
33
Q

What are indications for PCI treatment of an MI?

A
  • Contraindicated tPa therapy
  • Severe HF and/or pulm edema
  • S/S for 2-3 hours
  • Mature clot
34
Q

What risks are associated with PCI (percutaneous coronary intervention) ?

A
  • Endothelial destruction
  • Bleeding
  • Thrombosis
35
Q

What is Dual Antiplatelet Therapy (DAPT) ?

A
  • ASA w/ P2Y12
36
Q

How long would one want to wait for elective surgery post angioplasty with no stenting?

A

2 - 4 weeks

37
Q

How long would one want to wait for elective surgery post angioplasty with bare-metal stent placement?

A

At least 30 days (12 weeks preferable)

38
Q

How long would one want to wait for elective surgery post angioplasty with drug-eluting stent placement?

A

At least 6 months (12 months if post ACS)

39
Q

How long would one want to wait for elective surgery post-CABG?

A

At least 6 weeks (12 weeks preferable)

40
Q

In these ACS pts, Is glycopyrrolate or atropine preferred for treatment of bradycardia?

A

Glycopyrrolate

41
Q

Are β blockers or ACE-inhibitors continued peri-operatively?

A

β-blockers

42
Q

Are β blockers or ACE-inhibitors discontinued 24 hours prior to surgery?

A

ACE inhibitors

43
Q

What components are worth 1 point on the Revised Cardiac Risk Index (6) ?

A
44
Q

What % risk of major cardiac events would be conferred by a RCRI score of 0 ?

A

0.4%

45
Q

What % risk of major cardiac events would be conferred by a RCRI score of 1 ?

A

1.0%

46
Q

What % risk of major cardiac events would be conferred by a RCRI score of 2 ?

A

2.4%

47
Q

What % risk of major cardiac events would be conferred by a RCRI score of ≥3 ?

A

5.4%

48
Q

What does 1 MET equal?

A

3.5mLO₂/kg/min

49
Q

What drug is the preferred treatment for tachycardia?

A

Esmolol

50
Q

What anticholinergic is the better option for treatment of bradycardia in CAD patients?

A

Glycopyrrolate > Atropine

51
Q

What coronary artery would you expect to be effected from abnormalities noted on II, III, and aVF?

A

RCA

52
Q

What coronary artery would you expect to be affected from abnormalities noted on I and aVL?

A

Circumflex artery

53
Q

What coronary artery would you expect to be effected from abnormalities noted on V3 - V5?

A

LAD

54
Q

How would you describe acute coronary syndrome?

A

acute or worsening oxygen supply/demand balance

55
Q

What criteria suggests an NSTEMI diagnosis?

A
  • NSTEMI has No ST-elevation
  • Ischemic type chest pain
  • troponin/CK-MB positive
56
Q

What differentiates unstable angina from MI?

A

Negative troponin & no ST elevation

57
Q

What criteria suggests a STEMI diagnosis?

A

Troponin change &
Evidence of myocardial ischemia:

  • Ischemic symptoms
  • EKG changes (ST, LBBB, pathological Q)
  • wall motion abnormality on imaging
  • ID of thrombus on angiography
58
Q

What are some contraindications for tPa?

A
  • Major surgery
  • uncontrolled HTN
  • aneurysms
  • recent thrombolytics
  • active bleeding
59
Q

Is thrombolytic therapy indicated for NSTEMI?

A

No

60
Q

Raking leaves, gardening would be what MET equivalent?

A

4 METs

61
Q

Climbing 1 flight of stairs, dancing or bicycling would be what MET equivalent?

A

5 METs

62
Q

What are the 3 surgical urgency criteria?

A
  • Emergency: need sx within 6 hr
  • Urgent: need sx within 6-24 hr
  • Time-sensitive: need sx within 1-6 weeks
63
Q

What kind of cardiac criteria would you avoid anesthesia?

A
  • Recent MI
  • unstable/severe angina
  • Decompensated HF
  • Severe valvular disease
  • significant dysrhythmias
64
Q

What are the 2 most important non-modifiable risk factors for coronary artery atherosclerosis?

A
  • Male
  • Increasing age
65
Q

Stable angina generally suggest occlusion of ____%

A

~70%

66
Q

Chronic stable angina is generally characterized as?

A

Chest pain that doesn’t change in frequency/severity in 2 month period

67
Q

What is pseudonormalization of T waves?

A

When a pt has chronically inverted T waves from previous MI/ischemia and now are upright and “normal” during myocardial ischemia

68
Q

How soon should initiation of tPa be for ischemic event?

A
  • Within 30-60 min of hospital arrival
  • Within 12 hours of symptom onset.
69
Q

How soon should PCI occur after an ischemic event?

A
  • Within 90 minutes of hospital arrival
  • Within 12 hours of symptom onset.

2024 Assessment Exam 1 & 2 - Cornelius (26 decks)

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