Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

2024 Assessment Exam 1 & 2 - Cornelius > Blood Products and Transfusion (Exam II) > Flashcards

Blood Products and Transfusion (Exam II) Flashcards

1
Q

What is blood comprised of primarily?

A

Plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What percentage of blood volume is made up by plasma?

A

55%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If we had to pick one thing to transfuse what would it be?

A
  • whole blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What blood type is a universal donor? Universal acceptor?

A
  • Donor = O neg
  • Acceptor = AB +
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are 2 Hb related issues we will see often in clinical settings?

A
  • β thalassemia → Hb Barts
  • α thalassemia → Hb H
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the possible blood antigen types? What are possible Rh factors?

A
  • Antigen → A, B, AB, O
  • Rh → Rh+ and Rh-
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Is the general population primarily Rh+ or Rh-?

A

Rh+ (85%) and Rh- (15%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What 4 things can cause a right shift of the OxyHb curve?

A
  • ↓ pH(↑ acidosis)
  • ↑ CO2
  • ↑ temp
  • ↑ 2,3-DPG

[⇒ ↑unloading or↓affinity]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T or F: If our O₂ saturation is good so is our PO₂?

A
  • False → O₂sat has nothing to do with PO₂ (could have 1 Hb fully saturated; ex. anemia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

For blood type O which Antigen is present on erythrocyte and which Antibody is in the serum?

A
  • Antigen: none
  • Antibody: Anti-A and Anti-B
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

For blood type AB which Antigen is present on erythrocyte and which Antibody is in the serum?

A
  • Antigen: A and B
  • Antibody: none
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

For blood type B, which Antigen is present on erythrocyte and which Antibody is in the serum?

A
  • Antigen: B
  • Antibody: Anti-A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

For blood type A which Antigen is present on erythrocyte and which Antibody is in the serum?

A
  • Antigen: A
  • Antibody: Anti-B
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

AB donor blood will react with which other blood types?

A
  • A, B, and O
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

B donor blood will react with which blood types?

A

A & O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A donor blood will react with which blood types?

A

B & O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

O donor blood will react with which blood types?

A
  • none
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When whole blood is centrifuged what separation products result?

A
  • Platelet rich plasma (PRP)
  • WBC
  • RBC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What happens if we centrifuge platelet rich plasma (PRP) again?

A
  • Separates plasma from platelets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where is PRP used in surgery?

A
  • Surgeon injects locally → ortho, dental, plastics cases commonly (for healthy cell growth)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 5 different blood components we can use for treatments?

A
  • RBC
  • FFP
  • Cryo
  • PLT
  • LTOWB - Low titer Group O Whole Blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the lifespan of WB?

A

~ 3 wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What chemicals are added to blood that allows it to be stored?

A
  • CPDA-1 → Citrate phosphate dextrose adenine; chelates Ca++ to prevent clotting
  • Phosphate → used as buffer
  • Dextrose → fuel source
  • Adenine → to support ATP synthesis (extends storage from 21 to 35 days)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Due to the chemicals used to allow blood to be stored what labs do we need to check when transfusing lots of blood?

A
  • Ca⁺⁺ (it will ↓) ⇒ less clotting
  • Glucose (it will ↑)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which electrolyte will stored blood have ↑ levels of? Why?

A
  • K⁺ d/t cells lysing as they degrade in the bag
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What happens to 2,3-DPG in stored blood?
What does this do to the OxyHb association curve?

A
  • ↓ 2,3-DPG
  • Left shift → impairs O2 delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

PRBCs contain ______ unless they have been specifically ________?

A
  • Leukocytes (WBCs)
  • Leukoreduced
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How much does 1 unit of PRBCs ↑ H&H level?

A
  • Hb: ↑ 1 g/dL
  • Hct: ↑ 3%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which blood transfusion product is a source of antithrombin III?

A

FFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the dose of FFP?

A
  • 10-15 mL/kg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How much will 1 unit of FFP ↑ level of each clotting factor?

A
  • ↑ 2 to 3% for each factor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are two specific uses of FFP Dr. C mentioned in class?

A
  • Heparin resistance d/t antithrombin deficiency
  • Treat angioedema (also use TXA along with FFP)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the INR of FFP?

A
  • ~1.5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What clotting factors does cryoprecipitate have?

A
  • Factor VIII: C
  • Factor VIII: vWF
  • Factor XIII
  • Fibrinogen
35
Q

What target of fibrinogen are we trying to maintain when using cryo?

A

100 mg/dL

36
Q

Which patient population is cryo really important for?

A
  • Pregnant women who are bleeding
37
Q

How much will one unit of PLT increase PLT count by?

A
  • 5000 to 10000
38
Q

Is there any clinical data that says warming platelets is bad?

A

Not recommended to use on a warming device for now (but studies show no significant impact)

39
Q

When platelets are low at what level will we start to spontaneously bleed?

A

PLT < 30000

40
Q

What is the deadly trauma triad when transfusing a patient?

A
  • Hypothermia
  • Coagulopathy
  • Acidosis
41
Q

When is WB indicated for transfusion?

A
  • To maintain volume and O2 carrying capacity in acute massive hemorrhage (> 20% blood volume loss )
42
Q

What are S/Sx of Hemolytic transfusion reaction?

A
  • fever
  • chill
  • hemoglobinemia
  • hemoglobinuria
  • hypotension
  • dyspnea.
43
Q

What are mediators of Hemolytic transfusion reactions?

A

IgM antibodies

44
Q

What are the S/S of nonhemolytic febrile transfusion reactions?

A

Fever and chills

45
Q

What are the mediators of non-hemolytic febrile transfusion reactions?

A

HLA Class I Ag antibodies

46
Q

How do we treat Non-hemolytic febrile transfusion reactions?

A
  • Antipyretics
  • Use leukocyte reduced products
47
Q

What are some S/S of an allergic transfusion reaction?

A
  • urticaria
  • erythema
  • itching
  • anaphylaxis.
48
Q

What are the mediators of allergic transfusion reactions?

A
  • plasma proteins
  • IgA antibodies
49
Q

How do we treat allergic transfusion reactions?

A
  • antihistamines
  • treat symptoms
50
Q

What are S/S of Non-cardiogenic pulmonary transfusion reactions?

A
  • ARDS
  • Fever
  • Chill
  • Hypotension
  • Cyanosis
  • noncardiac pulmonary edema
51
Q

What are the mediators for a non-cardiogenic pulmonary transfusion reaction?

A

donor/recipient WBC antibodies

52
Q

How do we treat Non-cardiogenic pulmonary transfusion reactions?

A
  • Lots of PEEP
  • Steroids
53
Q

What is TRALI?

A

Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury - temporarily r/t to blood transfusion within 1st 6 hrs of a transfusion

54
Q

What is the mortality rate from TRALI?

A

5-25%
Most pt recovering within 72 hrs
-Ecmo good option for tx

55
Q

What are the 3 acute nonimmunologic effects of transfusion reaction?

A
  • Bacterial contamination
  • Circulatory overload (TACO)
  • Hemolysis d/t physical /chemical means
56
Q

What are the three delayed immunologic effects of transfusion reaction?

A
  • Hemolytic transfusion reactions
  • Transfusion associated Graft-versus-host disease
  • Post-transfusion purpura
57
Q

How can you differentiate between TRALI and TACO?

A
  • TRALI → Fever, HoTN
  • TACO → HTN, Signs of circulatory overload
58
Q

What classes of hemorrhage are there and what is associated blood loss for each?

A
  • Class 1 = up to 750 mL (< 15%)
  • Class 2 = 750 to 1500 mL (15-30%)
  • Class 3 = 1500 to 2000 mL (30-40%)
  • Class 4 = > 2000 mL (>40%)
59
Q

What are 3 definitions of MTP in Adults?

A
  • Total blood volume is replaced within 24 hours
  • 50% of total blood volume is replaced in 3 hours ←Most common
  • Rapid bleeding rate = 4 units RBCS transfused within 4 hours or 150 mL/min blood loss
60
Q

What is considered MTP for Kids?

A
  • > 40mL/kg transfusion
61
Q

What is balanced resuscitation?

A
  • 1:1:1 ratio (PLT:Plasma:RBC)
62
Q

What are the fibrinogen levels of Cryo, FFP, and LTOWB?

A
  • Cryo = 2500 mg
  • LTOWB = 1000 mg
  • FFP = 400 mg
63
Q

What is the difference between stored whole blood (SWB) and LTOWB?

A
  • SWB anticoagulants < LTOWB
64
Q

What are the recommendations for whole blood transfusion in kids?

A
  • If they are <15 yr old or <40 kg then limit WB to 30 mL/kg
65
Q

Which clotting factors required Ca⁺⁺ to work?

A

2, 7, 9, 10

66
Q

Which drug has more elemental calcium; Ca gluconate or CaCl?

A
  • Calcium Chloride: 270 mg/10mL (27mg/mL)
  • Calcium Gluconate: 90 mg/10ml (9mg/mL)
67
Q

How much will 1, 2, and 5 units of blood decrease iCa?

A
  • 1 unit = drop to 1.13 mmol/L
  • 2 unit = drop to < 1mmol/L
  • 5 units = drop to < 0.8 mmol/L
68
Q

What is the value for TEG-ACT (rapid)?

A
  • Activated Clotting Time
  • 80-140 sec
69
Q

What is the normal value for R time?

A
  • Reaction Time
  • 5.0 - 10.0 min
70
Q

What is the normal value for K time?

A
  • Kinetic time
  • 1-3 minutes
71
Q

What is the normal value for α angle?

A
  • 53 - 72°
72
Q

What is the normal value for MA?

A
  • Max Amplitude
  • 50-70mm
73
Q

What is the normal value for G value?

A
  • Clot strength
  • 5.3-12.4 dynes/cm2
74
Q

What is the normal value for LY 30?

A
  • Clot lysis at 30 min
  • 0-3%
75
Q

If TEG-ACT is > 140 what do we transfuse?

A
  • FFP
76
Q

If R time is > 10 what do we transfuse?

A
  • FFP
77
Q

If K time is > 3 what do we transfuse?

A
  • Cryo
78
Q

If α angle < 53° what do we transfuse?

A
  • Cryo and platelets
79
Q

If MA < 50 what do we transfuse?

A
  • PLT
80
Q

If LY30 > 3% what do we transfuse?

A

TXA (Tranexamic Acid)

81
Q

What are the contents of FFP?

A
  • plasma
  • clotting factors
  • proteins
82
Q

What are the criteria for TRALI?

A
  • Occuring during or within 6 hrs of transfusion
  • P/F ratio < 300 or SpO2 < 90%
  • Pulmonary infiltrates
  • No evidence of circulatory overload
83
Q

What 4 things can cause a left shift of the OxyHb curve?

A
  • ↑ pH (↓acidosis)
  • ↓ CO2
  • ↓ temp
  • ↓ 2,3-DPG

[⇒ ↓unloading or ↑affinity]

2024 Assessment Exam 1 & 2 - Cornelius (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions