ISBB Questionnaire Flashcards
Adaptive immunity can be described as follows except:
a. There is a differentiation of self from non-self
b. Usually responds after weeks of infection
c. Has a standardized magnitude of response
d. This kind of immunity is self-limited
c. Has a standardized magnitude of response
Who received a Nobel prize because of discovering phagocytosis?
a. Kholer & Milstein
b. Susumo Tonegawa
c. Edelman & Porter
d. Ellie Metchnikoff
d. Ellie Metchnikoff
Discovered hybridoma technique used for the production of monoclonal antibodies
a. Kholer & Milstein
b. Susumo Tonegawa
c. Edelman & Porter
d. Ellie Metchnikoff
a. Kholer & Milstein
discovered how the immune system produces millions of antibodies to combat almost any microorganism
a. Kholer & Milstein
b. Susumo Tonegawa
c. Edelman & Porter
d. Ellie Metchnikoff
b. Susumo Tonegawa
discovered chemical structure of antibodies
a. Kholer & Milstein
b. Susumo Tonegawa
c. Edelman & Porter
d. Ellie Metchnikoff
c. Edelman & Porter
The immunoglobulin class typically found in saliva, tears and other body secretions is
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD
c. IgA
smallest Ab, clinically significant, most common Ab, found in blood and other body fluids
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD
a. IgG
mainly in blood and lymph fluid, 1st Ab that the body makes when it fights new infection
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD
b. IgM
least understood Ab, only in small amounts in the blood
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD
d. IgD
which ab is described as small amounts in blood, lungs, skin, and mucous membranes; can be found in higher amounts when body overreacts to allergens or fighting an infection from a parasite
a. IgG
b. IgE
c. IgA
d. IgD
b. IgE
Type of interferon for non-specific immunity.
a. Type 1 interferon
b. Type 2 interferon
c. Type 3 interferon
d. Type 4 interferon
a. Type 1 interferon
Which interferon is secreted by the leukocytes?
a. Type 1 alpha interferon
b. Type 1 beta interferon
c. Type 2 interferon
d. Type 3 interferon
a. Type 1 alpha interferon
Which interferon is produced by double stranded fibroblasts?
a. Type 1 alpha interferon
b. Type 1 beta interferon
c. Type 2 interferon
d. Type 3 interferon
b. Type 1 beta interferon
Which interferon is a specific immunity, majority produced by T cells?
a. Type 1 interferon
b. Type 2 interferon
c. Type 3 interferon
d. Type 4 interferon
b. Type 2 interferon
Which interferon is consists of 4 lambda molecules; its function is similar to type 1 but less intense and serves mostly as first-line defense against the viruses in epithelium?
a. Type 1 interferon
b. Type 2 interferon
c. Type 3 interferon
d. Type 4 interferon
c. Type 3 interferon
Step in phagocytosis where enclosement of the pathogen into a phagocytic vacuole happens
a. Chemotaxis
b. Diapedesis
c. Elimination
d. Phagolysosome
d. Phagolysosome
Chemicals released by mast cells when sensitized.
a. Histamine
b. Heparin
c. Both
d. Neither
c. Both
The visible serologic reaction between soluble antigen and its specific antibody is:
a. Agglutination
b. Precipitation
c. Sensitization
d. Opsonization
b. Precipitation
The serological test that can be modified to selectively detect only specific IgM antibody in
untreated serum is:
a. ouchterlony
b. enzyme immunoassay
c. hemagglutination inhibition
d. passive hemagglutination
b. enzyme immunoassay
The Treponema pallidum Immobilization (TPI) test requires
a. Reagin
b. an extract of a pathogenic treponemes
c. Treponema pallidum fixed on a slide
d. living Treponema pallidum
d. living Treponema pallidum
C3 convertase in classical pathway
a. C4b2a
b. C3bBb
c. C4b2a3b
d. C3bBb3b
a. C4b2a
C3 convertase of alternative pathway
a. C4b2a
b. C3bBb
c. C4b2a3b
d. C3bBb3b
b. C3bBb
C5 convertase of lectin pathway
a. C4b2a
b. C3bBb
c. C4b2a3b
d. C3bBb3b
c. C4b2a3b
C5 convertase of alternative pathway
a. C4b2a
b. C3bBb
c. C4b2a3b
d. C3bBb3b
d. C3bBb3b
A graft between genetically unidentical individual of the same species
a. Autograft
b. Isograft
c. Allograft
d. Xenograft
c. Allograft
Part of antibody which binds foreign substance:
a. Epitope
b. Paratope
c. Hinge region
d. Fc region
b. Paratope
area in the Ag of the foreign body which binds to the Ab
a. Epitope
b. Paratope
c. Hinge region
d. Fc region
a. Epitope
Which IgG subclass is MOST efficient at crossing placenta?
a. IgG1
b. IgG2
c. IgG3
d. IGG4
a. IgG1
Lactic acid production during pathogenic infection could cause what cardinal sign of inflammation?
a. Rubor
b. Dolor
c. Calor
d. Tumor
b. Dolor
Techniques to inactivate serum:
1) Heat serum at 56 C for 30 minutes
2) Heat 60 to 62 C for 3 to 4 minutes
3) Refrigerate 56 C for 10 minutes
4) Addition of choline chloride
a. 1,3 and 4
b. 1 and 2
c. 1,2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which one of the following immunoglobulins is produced in the greatest amount during anamnestic response?
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgE
c. IgG
- It is also known as the complete pathway:
a. Classical
b. Alternative: Properdin pathway
c. MBL: Lectin pathway
d. Properdin
a. Classical
Membrane attack complex are made up of:
a. C4b56789
b. C5b6789
c. C3b456789
d. C5a6789
b. C5b6789
What are the CD markers to distinguish NK cell from other immune cells?
a. CD4 and CD8
b. CD2 and CD3
c. CD16 and CD56
d. CD12 and CD58
c. CD16 and CD56
sheep RBC receptor
a. CD4
b. CD2
c. CD16
d. CD12
b. CD2
T helper cells: receptor of MHC class II molecule
a. CD4
b. CD2
c. CD16
d. CD12
a. CD4
CD marker part of T cell Ag-receptor complex
a. CD4
b. CD2
c. CD3
d. CD12
c. CD3
CD marker part of T suppressor & T cytotoxic cells: receptor of MHC class I molecule
a. CD8
b. CD2
c. CD3
d. CD12
a. CD8
- Which of the following is the impaired mobility of neutrophil?
a. Neutropenia
b. Chronic Granulomatous Disease
c. Lazy leukocyte syndrome
d. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
c. Lazy leukocyte syndrome
Hives and itching are under what type of hypersensitivity?
a. Type 1 - Anaphylaxis, asthma, bee sting
b. Type 2 - transfusion reactions
c. Type 3 - SLE, serum sickness, arthus reaction
d. Type 4 - contact dermatitis, poison Ivy, tuberculin test, Leprosy
a. Type 1 - Anaphylaxis, asthma, bee sting
Which of the following cells represent approximately 1 percent of the white blood cells in peripheral blood. They have a half-life of about 3 days and they contain histamine-rich granules and high-affinity receptors for IgE?
a. Basophil - few granules, smooth membrane
b. Mast Cell - half-life: months, comprising 10% of the WBC, many granules, membrane
projections
c. Eosinophil
d. Neutrophil
a. Basophil - few granules, smooth membrane
The initial force of attraction that exists between a single Fab site on an antibody molecule and a
single epitope
a. Avidity - sum of all attractive forces between an Ag and Ab
b. Dissociation constant
c. Affinity
d. Zeta potential ʹ parameter that measures the electrochemical equilibrium at the particle-liquid
interface
c. Affinity
Adjuvants are added to vaccines to:
a. Decrease toxicity
b. Increase absorption
c. Increase specificity
d. Increase immune response
d. Increase immune response
Spurr formation is found on what type of reaction in Ouchterlony technique:
a. Identity
b. Partial identity
c. Non- identity
d. All of the Above
b. Partial identity
Stage of syphilitic infection with appearance of hard chancre.
a. Primary syphilis
b. Secondary syphilis
c. Latent syphilis
d. All of the Choices
a. Primary syphilis
Stage of syphilitic infection with characterized by generalized rash and lesions and Condylomata lata appearance
a. Primary syphilis
b. Secondary syphilis
c. Latent syphilis
d. All of the Choices
b. Secondary syphilis
Asymptomatic, Generally 2nd year of infection, Only indication of infection is a positive serologic test (no lesion and no dark field to
detect) No symptoms being shown
a. Primary syphilis
b. Secondary syphilis
c. Latent syphilis
d. All of the Choices
b. Secondary syphilis
stage of syphilis that has condylomata lata appearance
a. Primary syphilis
b. Secondary syphilis
c. Latent syphilis
d. All of the Choices
b. Secondary syphilis
Type of syphilis that the only indication of infection is a positive serologic test (no lesion and no dark field to detect)
a. Primary syphilis
b. Secondary syphilis
c. Latent syphilis
d. All of the Choices
c. Latent syphilis
stage of syphilis that has destructive lesions known as Gummas and tested in Neurosyphilis (spx: CSF)
a. Primary syphilis
b. Secondary syphilis
c. tertiary syphilis
d. All of the Choices
c. tertiary syphilis
Widal test is used for the diagnosis of what species?
a. Ricketssia
b. Proteus
c. Salmonella
d. Brucella
c. Salmonella
- test: diagnosis of Typhoid fever (S. typhi)
Strong reaction in OX-K indicates what rickettsial disease? (OX-19, OX-2)
a. Scrub
b. Rocky mountain spotted fever
c. Q fever
d. Rickettsial pox
a. Scrub
OX 19 reaction
a. Scrub
b. Rocky mountain spotted fever
c. Q fever
d. Rickettsial pox
b. Rocky mountain spotted fever
1st marker to appear in HBV infection
a. HBsAg
b. HbeAg
c. Anti-HBs
d. Anti-Hbe
a. HBsAg
high level of virus which indicates high infectivity
a. HBsAg
b. HbeAg
c. Anti-HBs
d. Anti-Hbe
b. HbeAg
The optimal ratio, when most antibody is precipitated by the least amount of antigen is referred to as:
a. Prozone
b. Post zone
c. Zone of equivalence
d. Zone of inhibition
c. Zone of equivalence
Ab excess
a. Prozone
b. Post zone
c. Zone of equivalence
d. Zone of inhibition
a. Prozone
Ag excess
a. Prozone
b. Post zone
c. Zone of equivalence
d. Zone of inhibition
b. Post zone
Rejection reaction in HLA typing when a patient that receives transplant shows bad signs within 2 weeks.
a. Hyperacute
b. Acute
c. Accelerated
d. Chronic
b. Acute (7-21 days)
Rejection reaction in HLA typing when a patient that receives transplant shows bad signs within minutes
a. Hyperacute
b. Acute
c. Accelerated
d. Chronic
a. Hyperacute
Rejection reaction in HLA typing when a patient that receives transplant shows bad signs within 2-5 days
a. Hyperacute
b. Acute
c. Accelerated
d. Chronic
c. Accelerated
Rejection reaction in HLA typing when a patient that receives transplant shows bad signs later than 3 months
a. Hyperacute
b. Acute
c. Accelerated
d. Chronic
d. Chronic
Known as the minor MHC antigen that is involved in complement component C2, C4 and factor B.
a. MHC II
b. MHC I
c. MHC III
d. Factor X
c. MHC III
MHC antigen that is present in all nucleated cells, process cytoplasmically derived antigens and presented to CD8+ cells
a. MHC II
b. MHC I
c. MHC III
d. Factor X
b. MHC I
MHC antigen that is present in macrophages in cell, dendritic cells and antigen presenting cells, process extracellularly derived antigens and presented to CD 4 + cells
a. MHC II
b. MHC I
c. MHC III
d. Factor X
a. MHC II
A device used to measure radioactivity in radioimmunoassay:
a. Spectrophotometer
b. Fluorometer
c. Scintillation counter
d. Transmission electron microscope
c. Scintillation counter
A serologic test for syphilis that depends on upon the detection of cadiolipin-lecithin- cholesterol
antigen.
a. FTA-ABS
b. TPI
c. RPR
d. MHA-TP
c. RPR
Nichol’s strain
a. FTA-ABS
b. TPI
c. RPR
d. MHA-TP
a. FTA-ABS
What is the most common bacterial contaminant in blood products?
a. S. liquefaciens
b. S. epidermidis
c. Y. enterocolitica
d. B. cereus
c. Y. enterocolitica
fried rice syndrome- one of the most common causes of food poisoning
a. S. liquefaciens
b. S. epidermidis
c. Y. enterocolitica
d. B. cereus
d. B. cereus
Transfer of cells or tissues to a member of different species:
a. Xenograft
b. Allograft
c. Isograft
d. Autograft
a. Xenograft
Transfer of cells or tissues to the same individual
a. Xenograft
b. Allograft
c. Isograft
d. Autograft
d. Autograft
Transfer of cells or tissues from an identical individual
a. Xenograft
b. Allograft
c. Isograft
d. Autograft
c. Isograft
Transfer of cells or tissues from a non-identical of the same species
a. Xenograft
b. Allograft
c. Isograft
d. Autograft
d. Autograft
Most sensitive test for HbsAg detection:
a. Ouchterlony double diffusion
b. Reversed passive hemagglutination
c. Counter electrophoresis
d. Complement fixation
b. Reversed passive hemagglutination (3rd generation test)
1st generation test for HbsAg detection
a. Ouchterlony double diffusion
b. Reversed passive hemagglutination
c. Counter electrophoresis
d. Complement fixation
a. Ouchterlony double diffusion
2nd generation test/s for HbsAg detection
a. Ouchterlony double diffusion
b. both c and d
c. Counter electrophoresis
d. Complement fixation
b. both c and d
Most common and easiest method to detect VZV antibodies:
a. Tzanck test
b. DAT
c. ELISA
d. FAMA
c. ELISA
reference method to detect VZV antibodies
a. Tzanck test
b. DAT
c. ELISA
d. FAMA
d. FAMA
test that uses stained smear to detect inclusions for VZV antibodies
a. Tzanck test
b. DAT
c. ELISA
d. FAMA
a. Tzanck test
Tumor marker for choriocarcinoma:
a. CEA
b. PSA
c. AFP
d. HCG
d. HCG
(Human chorionic gonadotropin)
Tumor marker for prostate
a. CEA
b. PSA
c. AFP
d. HCG
b. PSA
(Prostate-Specific Antigen)
Tumor marker for liver
a. CEA
b. PSA
c. AFP
d. HCG
c. AFP
Alpha Fetoprotein
If an IgG spike is observed on serum electrophoretic pattern, what diagnosis does this suggest?
a. Multiple myeloma
b. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia
c. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
d. Hypogammaglobulinemia
a. Multiple myeloma
Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by:
a. Joint pain and tenderness
b. Presence of rheumatoid factor in the blood
c. Associated with HLA-DR genes
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
- The major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is located on:
a. Chromosome 3
b. Chromosome 6
c. Chromosome 21
d. Chromosome 22
b. Chromosome 6
P gene is located on
a. Chromosome 3
b. Chromosome 6
c. Chromosome 21
d. Chromosome 22
a. Chromosome 3
P1 gene is located on
a. Chromosome 3
b. Chromosome 6
c. Chromosome 21
d. Chromosome 22
c. Chromosome 21
Which of the following antigens is a MHC class II antigen?
a. HLA-A
b. HLA-DQ
c. HLA-DR
d. Both b and c
a. HLA-A
An early marker of beta pancreatic cell destruction is _____ antibody.
a. Anti-DNA: SLE
b. Anti-islet cell
c. Antinuclear
d. Anti-intrinsic factor
b. Anti-islet cell
associated with pernicious anemia
a. Anti-DNA: SLE
b. Anti-islet cell
c. Antinuclear
d. Anti-intrinsic factor
d. Anti-intrinsic factor
Mannose binding protein in the lectin pathway is most similar to which classical pathway component?
a. C3
b. C1rs
c. C1q
d. C4
c. C1q
increase level indicates acute inflammatory disease
a. C3
b. C1rs
c. C1q
d. C4
a. C3
most sensitive indicator of disease activity
a. C3
b. C1rs
c. C1q
d. C4
d. C4
Which of the following is associated with artificial acquired passive immunity?
a. Clinical infection
b. Tetanus vaccine
c. Breast milk
d. RhIg
d. RhIg
naturally acquired passive immunity
a. Clinical infection
b. Tetanus vaccine
c. Breast milk
d. RhIg
c. Breast milk
artificially acquired active immunity
a. Clinical infection
b. Tetanus vaccine
c. Breast milk
d. RhIg
b. Tetanus vaccine
Cross pattern(s) in Ouchterlony Double Diffusion means:
a. Non-identity
b. Partial identity
c. All the above
a. Non-identity
In which zone might an antibody-screening test be false negative?
a. Prozone
b. Zone of equivalence
c. Postzone
d. None of the above
a. Prozone
Patients at risk for graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) include each of the following, except recipients of
a. bone marrow transplants
b. lung transplants
c. liver transplants
d. irradiated leukocytes
d. irradiated leukocytes
Which of the following is associated with anaphylaxis?
a. Buildup of IgE on mast cells
b. Activation of complement
c. Increase in cytotoxic T cells
d. Large amount of circulating IgG
a. Buildup of IgE on mast cells
