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MTAP 1st day Compre Reviewer > ISBB Questionnaire > Flashcards

ISBB Questionnaire Flashcards

1
Q

Adaptive immunity can be described as follows except:

a. There is a differentiation of self from non-self
b. Usually responds after weeks of infection
c. Has a standardized magnitude of response
d. This kind of immunity is self-limited

A

c. Has a standardized magnitude of response

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2
Q

Who received a Nobel prize because of discovering phagocytosis?

a. Kholer & Milstein
b. Susumo Tonegawa
c. Edelman & Porter
d. Ellie Metchnikoff

A

d. Ellie Metchnikoff

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3
Q

Discovered hybridoma technique used for the production of monoclonal antibodies

a. Kholer & Milstein
b. Susumo Tonegawa
c. Edelman & Porter
d. Ellie Metchnikoff

A

a. Kholer & Milstein

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4
Q

discovered how the immune system produces millions of antibodies to combat almost any microorganism

a. Kholer & Milstein
b. Susumo Tonegawa
c. Edelman & Porter
d. Ellie Metchnikoff

A

b. Susumo Tonegawa

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5
Q

discovered chemical structure of antibodies

a. Kholer & Milstein
b. Susumo Tonegawa
c. Edelman & Porter
d. Ellie Metchnikoff

A

c. Edelman & Porter

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6
Q

The immunoglobulin class typically found in saliva, tears and other body secretions is

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD

A

c. IgA

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7
Q

smallest Ab, clinically significant, most common Ab, found in blood and other body fluids

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD

A

a. IgG

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8
Q

mainly in blood and lymph fluid, 1st Ab that the body makes when it fights new infection

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD

A

b. IgM

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9
Q

least understood Ab, only in small amounts in the blood

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD

A

d. IgD

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10
Q

which ab is described as small amounts in blood, lungs, skin, and mucous membranes; can be found in higher amounts when body overreacts to allergens or fighting an infection from a parasite

a. IgG
b. IgE
c. IgA
d. IgD

A

b. IgE

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11
Q

Type of interferon for non-specific immunity.

a. Type 1 interferon
b. Type 2 interferon
c. Type 3 interferon
d. Type 4 interferon

A

a. Type 1 interferon

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12
Q

Which interferon is secreted by the leukocytes?

a. Type 1 alpha interferon
b. Type 1 beta interferon
c. Type 2 interferon
d. Type 3 interferon

A

a. Type 1 alpha interferon

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13
Q

Which interferon is produced by double stranded fibroblasts?

a. Type 1 alpha interferon
b. Type 1 beta interferon
c. Type 2 interferon
d. Type 3 interferon

A

b. Type 1 beta interferon

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14
Q

Which interferon is a specific immunity, majority produced by T cells?

a. Type 1 interferon
b. Type 2 interferon
c. Type 3 interferon
d. Type 4 interferon

A

b. Type 2 interferon

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15
Q

Which interferon is consists of 4 lambda molecules; its function is similar to type 1 but less intense and serves mostly as first-line defense against the viruses in epithelium?

a. Type 1 interferon
b. Type 2 interferon
c. Type 3 interferon
d. Type 4 interferon

A

c. Type 3 interferon

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16
Q

Step in phagocytosis where enclosement of the pathogen into a phagocytic vacuole happens

a. Chemotaxis
b. Diapedesis
c. Elimination
d. Phagolysosome

A

d. Phagolysosome

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17
Q

Chemicals released by mast cells when sensitized.

a. Histamine
b. Heparin
c. Both
d. Neither

A

c. Both

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18
Q

The visible serologic reaction between soluble antigen and its specific antibody is:

a. Agglutination
b. Precipitation
c. Sensitization
d. Opsonization

A

b. Precipitation

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19
Q

The serological test that can be modified to selectively detect only specific IgM antibody in
untreated serum is:

a. ouchterlony
b. enzyme immunoassay
c. hemagglutination inhibition
d. passive hemagglutination

A

b. enzyme immunoassay

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20
Q

The Treponema pallidum Immobilization (TPI) test requires

a. Reagin
b. an extract of a pathogenic treponemes
c. Treponema pallidum fixed on a slide
d. living Treponema pallidum

A

d. living Treponema pallidum

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21
Q

C3 convertase in classical pathway

a. C4b2a
b. C3bBb
c. C4b2a3b
d. C3bBb3b

A

a. C4b2a

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22
Q

C3 convertase of alternative pathway

a. C4b2a
b. C3bBb
c. C4b2a3b
d. C3bBb3b

A

b. C3bBb

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23
Q

C5 convertase of lectin pathway

a. C4b2a
b. C3bBb
c. C4b2a3b
d. C3bBb3b

A

c. C4b2a3b

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24
Q

C5 convertase of alternative pathway

a. C4b2a
b. C3bBb
c. C4b2a3b
d. C3bBb3b

A

d. C3bBb3b

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25
Q

A graft between genetically unidentical individual of the same species

a. Autograft
b. Isograft
c. Allograft
d. Xenograft

A

c. Allograft

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26
Q

Part of antibody which binds foreign substance:

a. Epitope
b. Paratope
c. Hinge region
d. Fc region

A

b. Paratope

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27
Q

area in the Ag of the foreign body which binds to the Ab

a. Epitope
b. Paratope
c. Hinge region
d. Fc region

A

a. Epitope

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28
Q

Which IgG subclass is MOST efficient at crossing placenta?

a. IgG1
b. IgG2
c. IgG3
d. IGG4

A

a. IgG1

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29
Q

Lactic acid production during pathogenic infection could cause what cardinal sign of inflammation?

a. Rubor
b. Dolor
c. Calor
d. Tumor

A

b. Dolor

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30
Q

Techniques to inactivate serum:
1) Heat serum at 56 C for 30 minutes
2) Heat 60 to 62 C for 3 to 4 minutes
3) Refrigerate 56 C for 10 minutes
4) Addition of choline chloride

a. 1,3 and 4
b. 1 and 2
c. 1,2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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31
Q

Which one of the following immunoglobulins is produced in the greatest amount during anamnestic response?

a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgE

A

c. IgG

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32
Q
  1. It is also known as the complete pathway:

a. Classical
b. Alternative: Properdin pathway
c. MBL: Lectin pathway
d. Properdin

A

a. Classical

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33
Q

Membrane attack complex are made up of:

a. C4b56789
b. C5b6789
c. C3b456789
d. C5a6789

A

b. C5b6789

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34
Q

What are the CD markers to distinguish NK cell from other immune cells?

a. CD4 and CD8
b. CD2 and CD3
c. CD16 and CD56
d. CD12 and CD58

A

c. CD16 and CD56

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35
Q

sheep RBC receptor

a. CD4
b. CD2
c. CD16
d. CD12

A

b. CD2

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36
Q

T helper cells: receptor of MHC class II molecule

a. CD4
b. CD2
c. CD16
d. CD12

A

a. CD4

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37
Q

CD marker part of T cell Ag-receptor complex

a. CD4
b. CD2
c. CD3
d. CD12

A

c. CD3

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38
Q

CD marker part of T suppressor & T cytotoxic cells: receptor of MHC class I molecule

a. CD8
b. CD2
c. CD3
d. CD12

A

a. CD8

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39
Q
  1. Which of the following is the impaired mobility of neutrophil?

a. Neutropenia
b. Chronic Granulomatous Disease
c. Lazy leukocyte syndrome
d. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

A

c. Lazy leukocyte syndrome

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40
Q

Hives and itching are under what type of hypersensitivity?

a. Type 1 - Anaphylaxis, asthma, bee sting
b. Type 2 - transfusion reactions
c. Type 3 - SLE, serum sickness, arthus reaction
d. Type 4 - contact dermatitis, poison Ivy, tuberculin test, Leprosy

A

a. Type 1 - Anaphylaxis, asthma, bee sting

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41
Q

Which of the following cells represent approximately 1 percent of the white blood cells in peripheral blood. They have a half-life of about 3 days and they contain histamine-rich granules and high-affinity receptors for IgE?

a. Basophil - few granules, smooth membrane
b. Mast Cell - half-life: months, comprising 10% of the WBC, many granules, membrane
projections
c. Eosinophil
d. Neutrophil

A

a. Basophil - few granules, smooth membrane

42
Q

The initial force of attraction that exists between a single Fab site on an antibody molecule and a
single epitope

a. Avidity - sum of all attractive forces between an Ag and Ab
b. Dissociation constant
c. Affinity
d. Zeta potential ʹ parameter that measures the electrochemical equilibrium at the particle-liquid
interface

A

c. Affinity

43
Q

Adjuvants are added to vaccines to:

a. Decrease toxicity
b. Increase absorption
c. Increase specificity
d. Increase immune response

A

d. Increase immune response

44
Q

Spurr formation is found on what type of reaction in Ouchterlony technique:

a. Identity
b. Partial identity
c. Non- identity
d. All of the Above

A

b. Partial identity

45
Q

Stage of syphilitic infection with appearance of hard chancre.

a. Primary syphilis
b. Secondary syphilis
c. Latent syphilis
d. All of the Choices

A

a. Primary syphilis

46
Q

Stage of syphilitic infection with characterized by generalized rash and lesions and Condylomata lata appearance

a. Primary syphilis
b. Secondary syphilis
c. Latent syphilis
d. All of the Choices

A

b. Secondary syphilis

47
Q

Asymptomatic, Generally 2nd year of infection, Only indication of infection is a positive serologic test (no lesion and no dark field to
detect) No symptoms being shown

a. Primary syphilis
b. Secondary syphilis
c. Latent syphilis
d. All of the Choices

A

b. Secondary syphilis

48
Q

stage of syphilis that has condylomata lata appearance

a. Primary syphilis
b. Secondary syphilis
c. Latent syphilis
d. All of the Choices

A

b. Secondary syphilis

49
Q

Type of syphilis that the only indication of infection is a positive serologic test (no lesion and no dark field to detect)

a. Primary syphilis
b. Secondary syphilis
c. Latent syphilis
d. All of the Choices

A

c. Latent syphilis

50
Q

stage of syphilis that has destructive lesions known as Gummas and tested in Neurosyphilis (spx: CSF)

a. Primary syphilis
b. Secondary syphilis
c. tertiary syphilis
d. All of the Choices

A

c. tertiary syphilis

51
Q

Widal test is used for the diagnosis of what species?

a. Ricketssia
b. Proteus
c. Salmonella
d. Brucella

A

c. Salmonella

  • test: diagnosis of Typhoid fever (S. typhi)
52
Q

Strong reaction in OX-K indicates what rickettsial disease? (OX-19, OX-2)

a. Scrub
b. Rocky mountain spotted fever
c. Q fever
d. Rickettsial pox

A

a. Scrub

53
Q

OX 19 reaction

a. Scrub
b. Rocky mountain spotted fever
c. Q fever
d. Rickettsial pox

A

b. Rocky mountain spotted fever

54
Q

1st marker to appear in HBV infection

a. HBsAg
b. HbeAg
c. Anti-HBs
d. Anti-Hbe

A

a. HBsAg

55
Q

high level of virus which indicates high infectivity

a. HBsAg
b. HbeAg
c. Anti-HBs
d. Anti-Hbe

A

b. HbeAg

56
Q

The optimal ratio, when most antibody is precipitated by the least amount of antigen is referred to as:

a. Prozone
b. Post zone
c. Zone of equivalence
d. Zone of inhibition

A

c. Zone of equivalence

57
Q

Ab excess

a. Prozone
b. Post zone
c. Zone of equivalence
d. Zone of inhibition

A

a. Prozone

58
Q

Ag excess

a. Prozone
b. Post zone
c. Zone of equivalence
d. Zone of inhibition

A

b. Post zone

59
Q

Rejection reaction in HLA typing when a patient that receives transplant shows bad signs within 2 weeks.

a. Hyperacute
b. Acute
c. Accelerated
d. Chronic

A

b. Acute (7-21 days)

60
Q

Rejection reaction in HLA typing when a patient that receives transplant shows bad signs within minutes

a. Hyperacute
b. Acute
c. Accelerated
d. Chronic

A

a. Hyperacute

61
Q

Rejection reaction in HLA typing when a patient that receives transplant shows bad signs within 2-5 days

a. Hyperacute
b. Acute
c. Accelerated
d. Chronic

A

c. Accelerated

62
Q

Rejection reaction in HLA typing when a patient that receives transplant shows bad signs later than 3 months

a. Hyperacute
b. Acute
c. Accelerated
d. Chronic

A

d. Chronic

63
Q

Known as the minor MHC antigen that is involved in complement component C2, C4 and factor B.

a. MHC II
b. MHC I
c. MHC III
d. Factor X

A

c. MHC III

64
Q

MHC antigen that is present in all nucleated cells, process cytoplasmically derived antigens and presented to CD8+ cells

a. MHC II
b. MHC I
c. MHC III
d. Factor X

A

b. MHC I

65
Q

MHC antigen that is present in macrophages in cell, dendritic cells and antigen presenting cells, process extracellularly derived antigens and presented to CD 4 + cells

a. MHC II
b. MHC I
c. MHC III
d. Factor X

A

a. MHC II

66
Q

A device used to measure radioactivity in radioimmunoassay:

a. Spectrophotometer
b. Fluorometer
c. Scintillation counter
d. Transmission electron microscope

A

c. Scintillation counter

67
Q

A serologic test for syphilis that depends on upon the detection of cadiolipin-lecithin- cholesterol
antigen.

a. FTA-ABS
b. TPI
c. RPR
d. MHA-TP

A

c. RPR

68
Q

Nichol’s strain

a. FTA-ABS
b. TPI
c. RPR
d. MHA-TP

A

a. FTA-ABS

69
Q

What is the most common bacterial contaminant in blood products?

a. S. liquefaciens
b. S. epidermidis
c. Y. enterocolitica
d. B. cereus

A

c. Y. enterocolitica

70
Q

fried rice syndrome- one of the most common causes of food poisoning

a. S. liquefaciens
b. S. epidermidis
c. Y. enterocolitica
d. B. cereus

A

d. B. cereus

71
Q

Transfer of cells or tissues to a member of different species:

a. Xenograft
b. Allograft
c. Isograft
d. Autograft

A

a. Xenograft

72
Q

Transfer of cells or tissues to the same individual

a. Xenograft
b. Allograft
c. Isograft
d. Autograft

A

d. Autograft

73
Q

Transfer of cells or tissues from an identical individual

a. Xenograft
b. Allograft
c. Isograft
d. Autograft

A

c. Isograft

73
Q

Transfer of cells or tissues from a non-identical of the same species

a. Xenograft
b. Allograft
c. Isograft
d. Autograft

A

d. Autograft

74
Q

Most sensitive test for HbsAg detection:

a. Ouchterlony double diffusion
b. Reversed passive hemagglutination
c. Counter electrophoresis
d. Complement fixation

A

b. Reversed passive hemagglutination (3rd generation test)

75
Q

1st generation test for HbsAg detection

a. Ouchterlony double diffusion
b. Reversed passive hemagglutination
c. Counter electrophoresis
d. Complement fixation

A

a. Ouchterlony double diffusion

76
Q

2nd generation test/s for HbsAg detection

a. Ouchterlony double diffusion
b. both c and d
c. Counter electrophoresis
d. Complement fixation

A

b. both c and d

77
Q

Most common and easiest method to detect VZV antibodies:

a. Tzanck test
b. DAT
c. ELISA
d. FAMA

A

c. ELISA

78
Q

reference method to detect VZV antibodies

a. Tzanck test
b. DAT
c. ELISA
d. FAMA

A

d. FAMA

79
Q

test that uses stained smear to detect inclusions for VZV antibodies

a. Tzanck test
b. DAT
c. ELISA
d. FAMA

A

a. Tzanck test

80
Q

Tumor marker for choriocarcinoma:

a. CEA
b. PSA
c. AFP
d. HCG

A

d. HCG
(Human chorionic gonadotropin)

81
Q

Tumor marker for prostate

a. CEA
b. PSA
c. AFP
d. HCG

A

b. PSA
(Prostate-Specific Antigen)

82
Q

Tumor marker for liver

a. CEA
b. PSA
c. AFP
d. HCG

A

c. AFP
Alpha Fetoprotein

83
Q

If an IgG spike is observed on serum electrophoretic pattern, what diagnosis does this suggest?

a. Multiple myeloma
b. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia
c. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
d. Hypogammaglobulinemia

A

a. Multiple myeloma

84
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by:

a. Joint pain and tenderness
b. Presence of rheumatoid factor in the blood
c. Associated with HLA-DR genes
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

85
Q
  1. The major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is located on:

a. Chromosome 3
b. Chromosome 6
c. Chromosome 21
d. Chromosome 22

A

b. Chromosome 6

86
Q

P gene is located on

a. Chromosome 3
b. Chromosome 6
c. Chromosome 21
d. Chromosome 22

A

a. Chromosome 3

87
Q

P1 gene is located on

a. Chromosome 3
b. Chromosome 6
c. Chromosome 21
d. Chromosome 22

A

c. Chromosome 21

88
Q

Which of the following antigens is a MHC class II antigen?

a. HLA-A
b. HLA-DQ
c. HLA-DR
d. Both b and c

A

a. HLA-A

89
Q

An early marker of beta pancreatic cell destruction is _____ antibody.

a. Anti-DNA: SLE
b. Anti-islet cell
c. Antinuclear
d. Anti-intrinsic factor

A

b. Anti-islet cell

90
Q

associated with pernicious anemia

a. Anti-DNA: SLE
b. Anti-islet cell
c. Antinuclear
d. Anti-intrinsic factor

A

d. Anti-intrinsic factor

91
Q

Mannose binding protein in the lectin pathway is most similar to which classical pathway component?

a. C3
b. C1rs
c. C1q
d. C4

A

c. C1q

92
Q

increase level indicates acute inflammatory disease

a. C3
b. C1rs
c. C1q
d. C4

A

a. C3

93
Q

most sensitive indicator of disease activity

a. C3
b. C1rs
c. C1q
d. C4

A

d. C4

94
Q

Which of the following is associated with artificial acquired passive immunity?

a. Clinical infection
b. Tetanus vaccine
c. Breast milk
d. RhIg

A

d. RhIg

95
Q

naturally acquired passive immunity

a. Clinical infection
b. Tetanus vaccine
c. Breast milk
d. RhIg

A

c. Breast milk

96
Q

artificially acquired active immunity

a. Clinical infection
b. Tetanus vaccine
c. Breast milk
d. RhIg

A

b. Tetanus vaccine

97
Q

Cross pattern(s) in Ouchterlony Double Diffusion means:

a. Non-identity
b. Partial identity
c. All the above

A

a. Non-identity

98
Q

In which zone might an antibody-screening test be false negative?

a. Prozone
b. Zone of equivalence
c. Postzone
d. None of the above

A

a. Prozone

99
Q

Patients at risk for graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) include each of the following, except recipients of

a. bone marrow transplants
b. lung transplants
c. liver transplants
d. irradiated leukocytes

A

d. irradiated leukocytes

100
Q

Which of the following is associated with anaphylaxis?

a. Buildup of IgE on mast cells
b. Activation of complement
c. Increase in cytotoxic T cells
d. Large amount of circulating IgG

A

a. Buildup of IgE on mast cells

MTAP 1st day Compre Reviewer (10 decks)

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