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MTAP 2 BABY > isbb 1st quiz > Flashcards

isbb 1st quiz Flashcards

1
Q

Study of host’s reaction when foreign substances are introduced into the body

A

Immunology

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2
Q

A foreign substance that induces such an immune response

A

Immunogens

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3
Q

Immunogens are capable of triggering an adaptive immune response by inducing the formation of antibodies or

A

Through sensitized t-cells in an immunocompetent host

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4
Q

All immunogens are antigens - T or F?

All antigens are immunogens - T or F

A

All immunogens are antigens - True

All antigens are immunogens - False

Not all antigens are immunogens

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5
Q

Practice of deliberately exposing an individual to material from smallpox lesions was known as

A

Variolation

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6
Q

Discovered a remarkable relationship between exposure to cowpox and immunity to smallpox

A

Edward jenner

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7
Q

Injecting cellular material became known as

A

Vaccination

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8
Q

A phenomenon in which exposure to one agent produces protection against another agent

A

Cross-immunity

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9
Q

Who is the father of immunology

A

Louis pasteur

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10
Q

Attenuated vaccin is a form of

A

Artificially acquired active immunity

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11
Q

Produced by killing the organism but still capable of activating the immune response

A

Inactivated vax

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12
Q

Give date and name of scientist/s

Discovery of small pox vaccination

A

1798, Edward Jenner

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13
Q

Give date and name of scientist/s

Phagocytosis

A

1862, Haeckel

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14
Q

Give date and name of scientist/s

Live, attenuated chicken cholera and anthrax vaccine

A

1880-1881, Louis Pasteur

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15
Q

Give date and name of scientist/s

Cellular theory of immunity through phagocytosis

A

1883-1905, Elie Metchnikoff

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16
Q

Give date and name of scientist/s

Proposed humoral theory of immunity

A

1890, Von behring, Kitasata

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17
Q

Give date and name of scientist/s

Antibody formation theory

A

1900, Ehrlich

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18
Q

Give date and name of scientist/s

Immediate-hypersensitivity anaphylaxis

A

1902, Arthus

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19
Q

Give date and name of scientist/s

Hypothesis of antigen-antibody binding

A

1938, Marrack

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20
Q

Give date and name of scientist/s

Development of polio vaccine

A

1949, Salk and Sabin

Salk - inactivated
Sabin - Attenuated

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21
Q

Give date and name of scientist/s

Vaccine against yellow fever

A

1951, Reed

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22
Q

Give date and name of scientist/s

Clonal selection theory

A

1957, Burnet

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23
Q

Give date and name of scientist/s

Hla
Similar with fingerprint. Can be use in paternity testing

A

1958-1962

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24
Q

Give date and name of scientist/s

T-cell and B-cell cooperation in immune response

A

1964-1968

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25
Q

Give date and name of scientist/s

Identification of antibody molecule

A

1972

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26
Q

Give date and name of scientist/s

First monoclonal antibodies

A

1975, Kohler george

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27
Q

Give date and name of scientist/s

Identification of genes for T-cells receptor

A

1985-1987

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28
Q

Give date and name of scientist/s

Monoclonal hepatitis B vaccine

A

1986

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29
Q

Give date and name of scientist/s

FOCP3, the gene directing regulatory T cell development

A

2001

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30
Q

Give date and name of scientist/s

Development of HPV vaccine

A

2005, Brazer

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31
Q

Own antibody attacks your own antigen is called

A

Autoimmune

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32
Q

Structured to recognize, respond, and destroy a wide variety of invading organism that would otherwise be capable of promoting infections, harm to the body

A

Immune system

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33
Q

Reaction during first encounter to antigen

A

Primary response

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34
Q

Reaction to following encounters to antigen

A

Secondary response

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35
Q

Ability of an individual to resist infections by means of normally PRESENT body functions

A

Natural immunity

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36
Q

Natural immunity is also known as

A

Innate immunity or Nonspecific immunity

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37
Q

When does natural immunity occur

A

At birth, it is naturally occurring thus it is present at birth

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38
Q

Characteristic of natural immunity

A

Standardized response to all antigens -Reactivity is the same

Lacks memory

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39
Q

Examples of natural immunity

A

Skin
Cells (PMNs, Macrophages, NK cells)
Acidity of stomach
Ciliated trachea
Basophil, Neutrophil, Eosinophil, Monocyte
Tears, saliva, Sweat

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40
Q

Type of resistance that is characterized by specificity for each individual pathogen or microbial agent

A

Acquired immunity

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41
Q

Acquired immunity is also known as

A

Adaptive immunity or Specific Immunity

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42
Q

Characteristics of Acquired immunity

A

Has diverse response
has memory cell

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43
Q

External defense system is called

A

First line of defense

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44
Q

Composed of structural barriers that prevent most infectious agent from entering the body

A

External defense system

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45
Q

Secretion of Sweat glands

A

Lactic acid

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46
Q

Secretion of Sebaceous glans

A

Fatty acid

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47
Q

Secretion of acidity of stomach

A

HCl

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48
Q

Secretion of Tears and saliva

A

Lysozymes

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49
Q

Second line of defense

A

Internal defense system

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50
Q

Designed to recognize molecules that are unique to infectious organism

A

Internal defense system

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51
Q

Process involved in internal defense system

A

Phagocytosis
Inflammation and Fever
Natural anti-microbial substances

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52
Q

Kills viruses and tumor cells prior to exposure

A

NK cells

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53
Q

A kind of lymphocyte which has a capability to recognize antigens without being exposed to it

A

NK cells

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54
Q

Kills cancer OR tumor cells

A

LAK cells

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55
Q

Meaning of LAK cells

A

Lymphokine-activated Killer cells

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56
Q

Increase in allergic reactions and parasitic disease

A

Eosinophils

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57
Q

Involved in immediate hypersensitivity reactions type 1

A

Basophils

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58
Q

Involved in allergic reaction together with basophils

A

Mast cells

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59
Q

Macrophages in Lungs

A

Pulmonary alveolar macrophages

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60
Q

Macrophages in Liver

A

Kupffer cells

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61
Q

Macrophages in Connective tissues

A

Histiocytes

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62
Q

Macrophages in Skin

A

Langerhans cells

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63
Q

Macrophages in Nervous tissue

A

Microglia

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64
Q

Macrophages in bone

A

Osteoclasts

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65
Q

Macrophages in Kidney

A

Mesangial cells (glomerulus)

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66
Q

Function is to phagocytosed ANTIGEN and PRESENT it to T-helper cells

A

Dendritic cells

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67
Q

Function is to present antigen to T-CELLS

A

APCs (Antigen presenting cells)

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68
Q

A protein discovered in the fruit fly Drosophila

A

PRR (Pattern recognition receptors) / Toll-like receptors

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69
Q

Provides surveilance

A

Pattern recognition receptors / Toll-like receptors

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70
Q

To recognize portion, substance, or compound in a microorganism

A

Toll-like receptors

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71
Q

Engulfment of cells and particulate matter by leukocyte macrophage and other cells

A

Phagocytosis

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72
Q

Cells are attracted to the site of inflammation by chemical substances

A

Chemotaxis

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73
Q

Towards the stimulus or site

A

Positive chemotaxis

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74
Q

Away from stimulus or site

A

Negative chemotaxis

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75
Q

Examples of chemotaxins

A

Complement protein: C5a, C5b, C6, C7
Protein in coagulation cascade
Substances seen in bacteria, virus
Secretion of mast cells, macrophage

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76
Q

Coating of antibody and/or complement to facilitate phagocytosis

A

Opsonization

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77
Q

Greek word of opsonization which means to prepare for eating

A

Opsonein

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78
Q

A type of phagocytosis that recognize opsonins such as IgG, CRP, and C3b bound to microorganisms

A

Indirect

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79
Q

A type of phagocytosis via pattern receptors that recognize lipid and carbohydrate sequences on microorganisms

A

Direct

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80
Q

Occurs when the cytoplasmic pseudopods enclosed the particles within a vacuole

A

Oxygen dependent: Respiratory burst

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81
Q

Production of nitric oxide from oxidation of L-arginine by NO synthase which is produced by IFN-gamma activated cells

A

Oxygen independent

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82
Q

Is induced when the phagocytic cell comes in contact with a microorganism

A

Nitric oxide synthetase

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83
Q

A soluble, highly labile, free radical gas that is capable of operating against organisms that invade the cytosol

A

Nitric oxide

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84
Q

Nitric oxide is converted to ____ and other products, which are highly toxic to bacteria, yeast, and viruses

A

Peroxynitrite

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85
Q

Overall reaction of the body to injury or invasion by an infectious agent

A

Inflammataion

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86
Q

Were originally named because they literally interfere with viral replication process in an infected cell

A

Interferon

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87
Q

Interferon that is produced primarily during INNATE response to viral infection

A

Type 1 IFN or non-immune IFN

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88
Q

Interferon that is primarily produced by MONONUCLEAR PHAGOCYTES

A

IFN-ALPHA

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89
Q

Interferon that is primarily produced by FIBROBLAST

A

IFN-Beta

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90
Q

Interferon that is primarily produced as a component of the SPECIFIC IMMUNE RESPONSE to viral and other pathogens

Produced by T cells

A

Type 2 IFN or Immune IFN

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91
Q

Major mediator of the innate defense against GRAM NEGATIVE BACTERIA

A

Tumor necrosis factor

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92
Q

Also directly trigger apoptotic death of some tumor cells through a receptor-mediated mechanism

A

Tumor Necrosis Factor

93
Q

Induce secretion of APR

A

Tumor necrosis Factor

94
Q

Type of TNF that is also known as cachectin and are produced by macrophages

A

TNF-alpha

95
Q

Type of TNF that is also known as lymphotoxin and are produced by CD4+ and CD8+ cells

A

TNF-beta

96
Q

A complex series of more than 30 soluble and cell-bound proteins that interact in a very specific way to enhance host defense mechanisms against foreign cells

A

Complement pathway

97
Q

How to inactivate complement system

A

Extract blood and get the serum. Expose the serum in 56C for 30 minutes

98
Q

Antibody dependent pathway

A

Classical pathway

99
Q

Properdin system or antibody-independent pathway

A

Alternate pathway

100
Q

Its major constituent is mannose-binding lectin

Not activated by humans

A

Lectin pathway

101
Q

Third line of defense

A

Adaptive immunity

102
Q

Lymphokines are released by

A

Lymphocyte

103
Q

Antibodies are released by

A

Plasma cells

104
Q

CD2, CD3, CD5, CD4

A

T helper cells

105
Q

CD2, CD3, CD5, CD8

A

Cytotoxic T cells

106
Q

CD19, CD21, CD23

A

B cells

107
Q

Presence of CD25 means?

A

It is an activated B or T cells

108
Q

CD16, CD56, CD94

A

NK Cells

109
Q

CD10 is discovered first in what disease?

A

ALL

110
Q

CD19, CD45R, CD43, CD24, and c-Kit

A

Pro-B cell

111
Q

Intracellular proteins found in pro-B cells

A

Terminal deoxyribonucleotide transferase (TdT)
and
Recombination-activating genes
RAG-1 and RAG-2

112
Q

First heavy chains are synthesized in the?

A

μ (mu) chains

113
Q

μ chains belong to the class of immunoglobulins called?

A

IgM

114
Q

CD19, CD45R, CD24

A

Pre-B cells

115
Q

Other surface proteins that appear on immature B cells

A

CD21, CD40

116
Q

Mature B cells express what Ig?

A

IgM and IgD

117
Q

What stage of B cell differentiation is the rearrangement of heavy chains

A

Pro-B cell

118
Q

What stage of the B cell differentiation is the formation of mu chains on cytoplasm. Expression of mu and surrogate light chains which is not fully matured. The IgM is not yet fully developed

A

Pre-B cell

119
Q

What stage of the B cell differentiation is Formation of mature IgM on cell surface. Mu chain disappear on cytoplasm

A

Immature B cells

120
Q

What stage of the B cell differentiation is Happens on spleen (Outside bone marrow) IgD and IgM are expressed on the surface of B cell

A

Mature B cells

121
Q

How many % of T cells survive T cell maturation process

A

3%

122
Q

Lymphocyte precursors are called

A

Thymocytes

123
Q

Outer cortex

A

Immature T cells

124
Q

Inner medula

A

Mature T cells

125
Q

First stages of T cell maturation happens in?

A

Cortex

126
Q

Technique to separate mononuclear cells from other cells

A

Density Gradient centrifugation with Ficoll-Hypaque

127
Q

Technique can also be used to identify any types of cells

Uses antibody reagent

Forward light scatter will detect:

Side light scatter will detect:

A

Cell Flow Cytometry

Forward light scatter: Cell size

Side light scatter: Cellular granularity

128
Q

Uses antibody reagent accompanied with a fluorochrome

uses fluorescence microscope

+ result depends on the color of fluorochrome

A

Immunofluorescence microscopy

129
Q

Fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC)

A

Apple green

130
Q

Tetramethyl rhodamine (TRITC)

A

Red

131
Q

Uses monoclonal antibodies with a fluorescent tag fluorescein and phycoerythrin (489nm) rhodamine (545nm)

Antibodies used must be specific to the antigen being detected

Detects antigen

A

Direct immunofluorescence

132
Q

Uses unlabeled antibody that first combines with the antigen by itself and a second antibody that is complexed with a dye

Detects antibody

A

Indirect immunofluorescence

133
Q

Lymphocytes are separated from whole blood and then mixed with a suspension of sheep red blood cells

Sheep RBC has a high affinity to CD2 markers

A

Rosette test

134
Q

Dalton size for an immunogen to stimulate a host response

A

> 10,000 daltons

135
Q

Chemical composition of an immunogen that stimulate a host response

A

Proteins, Carbohydrates, Polysaccharides

136
Q

Are molecular shapes or configurations that are recognized by B or T cells

A

Epitopes

137
Q

Epitopes consists of how many amino acids

A

6 to 15 amino acids

138
Q

Composed of primary structures

May form waves

A

Linear epitopes

139
Q

Composed of primary, secondary, and tertiary structure

Results from the folding of one chain or multiple chain

A

Conformational epitope

140
Q

Function of MHC

A

If the structure of immunogen is conformation epitope, MHC will make it linear. THEN MHC can now present it to T cells (CD4 or CD8)

141
Q

T or F?
B cell can react with linear or conformational epitopes

A

True

142
Q

Incomplete antigens because size is called

A

Haptens

143
Q

What makes haptens immunogenic

A

Haptens are non-immunogenic material. But when it is combined with a carrier, it creates a new antigenic determinants that makes it immunogenic

144
Q

Antigens that belongs to the host

A

Autoantigens

145
Q

Antigens from other members of the host’s species

E.g Rh-negative blood transfused to an Rh-positive human

A

Alloantigens

146
Q

Antigens from other species

A

Heteroantigens

147
Q

Antigen that exist in unrelated plants or animals but which are either IDENTICAL or CLOSELY RELATED in structure

A

Heterophile antigens

148
Q

A substance administered with an immunogen that increases the immune response

A

Adjuvants

149
Q

Gene coding for the MHC molecules are found in

A

the short arm of chromosome 6

150
Q

MHC molecules that are coded for at three differentiate locations or loci

Termed as HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C or?

A

Class I molecules

MHCIa, MHC Ib, MHC, Ic

151
Q

MHC class that situated in the D region and there are several different loci

HLA-DR, HLA-DP, and HLA-DQ

A

Class II genes

152
Q

MHC class that is NOT expressed in cell. Located in between class I and class II regions

It’s main function is production of complement proteins, and production of cytokines

A

Class II genes

153
Q

Nonclassical class I of MHC molecules

A

HLA-E, HLA-F, HLA-G

154
Q

Nonclassical class II of MHC molecules

A

HLA-DM, HLA-DL, HLA-DO

155
Q

An alternate forms of a gene that code for slightly different varieties of the same product

A

Alleles

156
Q

Has at least 580 different alleles

A

HLA-A

157
Q

Has at least 921 different alleles

A

HLA-B

158
Q

Has at least 312 different alleles

A

HLA-C

159
Q

The major class II molecules MHC

A

DP, DQ, and DR

160
Q

Consists of two noncovalently bound polypeptide chains that are both encoded by genes in the MHC complex

A

DP, DQ, DR

161
Q

Expressed at the highest level in class II molecules

Accounts for about one-half of all the class II molecules

A

DR

162
Q

Majority of Class II molecules are found on?

A

B cells and other Antigen presenting cells (B cells, Monocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells)

163
Q

Main role of class I and class II MHC are?

A

To bind peptides within cells and transport them to plasma membrane, where T cells can recognize them in the phenomenon known as “antigen presentation”

164
Q

MHC class I and II are synthesized in?

A

The Rough endoplasmic reticulum

165
Q

What keeps the alpha chain in a partially folded state while it awaits binding to beta2-macroglobulin

A

Calnexin

166
Q

Three other chaperone molecules that are associated with the complex and help to stabilize it for peptide binding

A

Calreticulin, tapasin, and ERp57

167
Q

Effective for endogenous antigens such as tumors, viruses, parasites

Presented in CD8+ T-cytotoxic cells

Proteasomes/proteosome

Transporting peptides
TAP1
TAP2

A

Class I HLA

168
Q

Effective for exogenous antigens such as bacteria

Presented in CD4+ T-helper cells

Invariant chain, invariant chain peptides

A

Class II HLA

169
Q

A packet of enzymes that plays a major role in antigen presentation as well as antigen processing

A

Proteasomes

170
Q

Helps TAP transporters to have a close proximity to the newly formed MHC class I molecule and mediates interaction with them so that peptides can be loaded onto the class I molecules

A

Tapasin

171
Q

What prevents interaction of the binding site with any endogenous peptides in the ER

Main function is to maintain structure

A

Invariant chain

172
Q

Small soluble proteins that regulate the immune system, orchestrating both innate immunity and the adaptive response to infection

A

Cytokines

173
Q

How do you induce a response from cyotkines

A

It is induced in response to specific stimuli such as bacterial lipopolysaccharides, flagellin, or other bacterial products. Through the ligation of cell adhesion molecules or through the recognition of foreign antigens by host lymphocytes

174
Q

Affecting the same cell that secreted it

A

Autocrine

175
Q

Affecting a target cell in close proximity

A

Paracrine

176
Q

Exert systemic activities (Spread all over body system)

A

Endocrine

177
Q

Inflammatory cytokines

A

IL-1, IL-6, IL-8, TNF-Alpha

178
Q

Mediator of the innate immune response

A

IL-1

179
Q

Principal mediator of the ACUTE INFLAMMATORY response to GRAM-NEGATIVE bacteria and other infectious microbes

Stimulates gene transcription or induces apoptosis

A

Tumor Necrosis Factor

180
Q

Most prominent member of TNF family

A

TNF-alpha

181
Q

TNF-alpha is secreted by

A

Activated macrophages and activated monocytes

182
Q

A single protein produced by both lymphoid and nonlymphoid cell types

Part of the cytokine cascade released in response to lipopolysaccharide and plays an important role in acute phase reactions and the adaptive immune response

A

IL-6

183
Q

Part of the family of cytokines that enhance motility and promote migration of many types of WBC

A

Chemokines

184
Q

Chemokines that contains a single amino acid between the first and second cysteines

A

Alpha or CXC chemokines

185
Q

Has adjacent cysteine residue

A

Beta or CC, chemokines

186
Q

Lacks one of the cysteines

A

C chemokines

187
Q

Has three amino acids between the cysteines

A

CX3C chemokines

188
Q

Characterized as a factor that induced growth arrest in tumor cells

A

TGF-B

189
Q

What interleukin acts synergistically to stimulate IFN-gamma

A

IL-12 and IL-18

190
Q

Also known as the T-cell growth factor

A

IL-2

191
Q

Drives the growth and differentiation of both T and B cells and induces lytic activity in NK cells

A

IL-2

192
Q

Induces production of interleukins involved in adaptive immunity

A

TH2 Cytokines

193
Q

Triggers activation, proliferation and differentiation of B-cells

A

IL-4

194
Q

Inhibits production of pro-inflammatory cytokines by mononuclear phagocytes

A

IL-10

195
Q

Spike pattern electrophoresis

A

Monoclonal gammopathy

196
Q

Bridge pattern electrophoresis

A

Polyclonal gammopathy

197
Q

Responsible for the specificity of antibody

A

The variable region

198
Q

Responsible for flexibility of antibody
Composed of amino acid proline

Located between CH1 and CH2

A

Hinge region

199
Q

Has hinge region
Light chain domains are variable light chain and constant light chain

Heavy chain is composed of variable heavy chain and constant heavy chain 1,2,3

A

IgG, IgA, IgD

200
Q

Does not have hinge region

Total of 5 domains for heavy chain
VH, CH 1,2,3,4

A

IgE and IgM

201
Q

Monomer immunoglobulin (2 antigen binding sites)

A

IgG, IgD, IGe
IgM - If attached to B cell
IgA - when in serum

202
Q

Dimer immunoglobulin (4 antigen binding site)

A

IgA - when in secretions

203
Q

Polymer immunoglobulin (more than 4 antigen binding sites)

A

IgM - when in secretions

204
Q

Predominant Immunoglobulin in humans

23 days half-life

A

IgG

205
Q

Four major classes of IgG

A

a) IgG1: 67% - most efficient in crossing placenta
b) IgG2: 22 % - can’t cross placenta
c) IgG3: 7 % - most efficient in complement fixation
d) IgG4: 4 % - can’t perform complement fixation

206
Q

Known as macroglobulin because of sedimentation rate of 19S which represent a molecular weight of approx. 970,000

A

IgM

207
Q

Most primitive immunoglobulin

A

IgM

208
Q

Second predominant immunoglobulin

A

IgA

209
Q

Found on the surface of immunocompetent but unstimulated B lymphocytes

Second lowest Immunoglobulin

A

IgD

210
Q

Least abundant immunoglobulin

Most heat-labile of all Ig

A

IgE

211
Q

Activated complement system end product

A

Cell lysis

212
Q

Acts as anaphylatoxins

A

C3b, C4b, C5b

213
Q

Chronic activation of complement system leads to?

A

Inflammation and tissue damage

214
Q

APR are produced by?

A

Hepatocytes within 12-24 hours

215
Q

C1 component is produced in?

A

Epithelial cells and factor D

216
Q

Inactivated precursors

A

Zymogens

217
Q

Involves proteins that are triggered by antigen-antibody combination

A

Classical pathway

218
Q

Activated by protein properdin

A

Antibody independent pathway

219
Q

Properdin system stabilizes

A

C3 convertase of alternative pathway C4bBb

220
Q

Mannose binding lectin is its major constituents

A

Lectin pathway

221
Q

C1 subunit that generates enzyme activity to begin the cascade

A

C1r, and C1s

222
Q

Composed of six strands that form six globular heads with a collagen like tail portion

A

C1q

223
Q

End product of the activation unit

A

C5 convertase

224
Q

Second most abundant complement protein

A

C4

225
Q

Most significant step in the entire process of complement activation

A

Cleaving of C3 component to form C3a and C3b

226
Q

Major function of C3b

A

Formation of the MAC (membrane attack complex)

227
Q

Main role is to inactivate C1 by binding to the active sites of C1r and C1s

A

C1 inhibitor or C1INH

228
Q
A

MTAP 2 BABY (6 decks)

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