Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EPPP > IO PSYCH SNOREFEST 2021 > Flashcards

IO PSYCH SNOREFEST 2021 Flashcards

1
Q

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act

A

Equal Employment Opportunity act; one can’t discriminate on basis of anything.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ADA

A

Bans discrimination in employment, transpo, access to building based on physical disabilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Griggs v Duke Power company

A

Tests that measured broad abilities, in which minority groups passed at a lower rate than whites, were unfair to use in regard to making hiring decisions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

3 problems can result in discrimination. First is adverse impact

A

Based on 4/5ths rule, which states that the percentage of minorities selected must be at least 4/5ths of the percentage of non-minorities selected.

EX: Med school applicants. If out of 100 non-minority applicants, twenty are selected, the selection ratio is .2. .2 times .8 is .16, so minimal acceptable rate for selection of minority applicants is 16%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Second problem is UNFAIRNESS

A

Unfairness occurs when minorities and non-minorities score differently on the predictor test, yet perform similarly on criterion.

EX: MCAT or GRE. Minorities tend to perform worse, but the performance is not representative of performance in grad/med school.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Third problem is DIFFERENTIAL VALIDITY

A

Differential validity means that the test is more valid for predicting the performance for one group than another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Job analysis

A

Describes the nature of the tasks performed by workers on a particular job.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Critical incident technique

A

Ascertaining the specific actions that lead to desirable or undesirable consequences on the job.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Biographical inventory

A

covers applicant’s life in greater detail. Correlates higher with desirable/undesirable characteristics. Good predictor of job success.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Interviewer biases (FNTIT):

A

First impression bias: tendency to be swayed by initial impression of candidate.

Negative information bias: tendency for 1 or 2 negative items to cause interviewer to overlook strengths.

Contrast effect: interviewer’s ratings of a candidate are affected by performance of previous candidate.

Interviewer prejudices: personal likes, dislikes, beliefs affecting assessment of applicant.

Halo effect: generalizing from one characteristic to the entire candidate in a positive or negative direction (attractiveness –> likeable).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Different job applicant tests (5):

A

Cognitive ability (good predictor), personality tests (bad predictor), interest tests (poor predictors), work sample (good), test batteries (good).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Assessment Center

A

Method of selection that places new job applicants and candidates for promotion in a simulated job situation. EX: Men in black lol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Selection procedures – multiple regression approach

A

Low scores on one predictor can be compensated for by high scores on another (e.g., low GPA accounted for by high SAT).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Selection procedures – multiple cutoff

A

Noncompensatory – only applicants who exceed the cutoff on each predictor will be considered (e.g., only if GPA is higher than 3, SAT higher than 1400).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Selection procedures – multiple hurdle

A

Predictors are applied in a particular order, and an applicant must pass the cutoff score on the first predictor in order to continue in the selection process. (e.g., first 3.0, then 1400).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Performance is a function of ____, ____, and ____.

A

Ability, motivation, opportunity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Three methods for employee appraisals

A

Objective, subjective, focused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Subjective- Comparative

Straight rankings

A

Listing workers from best to worst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Subjective- Comparative

Forced distribution

A

Ranked to fit a distribution(bell curve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Subjective- Comparative

Paired comparison

A

Each employee is compared to every other employee in pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Subjective- Individual methods

Graphic rating

A

Involves ratings on several aspects (quantity, punctuality) assessed on Likert scale.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Subjective- Individual methods

Behaviorally anchored rating scales

A

Based on critical incidents. EX: employees rated on various aspects of job that are linked to performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Subjective- Individual methods

Behavioral observation scale

A

BOS involves rating the extent to which a person engages in every behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Subjective- Individual methods

Forced choice

A

Rater must choose between 2 seemingly equally desirable/undesirable choices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Subjective- Individual methods

Behavioral checklist

A

Checks of all descriptives that apply to employees being rated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Instrument errors

Deficiency errors

A

Excluding important aspects of the job from evaluations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Instrument errors

Contamination errors

A

Rating an employee on non-important aspects of the jobs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Tasked-based rater biases

Strictness set

A

Rater is overly strict and gives everyone low ratings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Tasked-based rater biases

Leniency set

A

Rater is overly lenient and gives everyone scores high..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Tasked-based rater biases

Central tendency set

A

Rater tends to rate everyone as average

31
Q

Ratee-based biases

Halo error

A

Employee’s performance rating is based on one positive or negative aspect of the individual e.g., style of dress

32
Q

Ratee-based biases

Personal biases

A

Occurs when prejudices affect evaluation of employees.

33
Q

Other sources of error

Recency bias

A

Tendency of an evaluator to be most influenced by an employee’s recent behaviors

34
Q

Other sources of error

Attribution errors

A

Tendency of supervisors to attribute poor performance to internal factors for workers they don’t like, and to external factors for workers they do like.

35
Q

Other sources of error

Other

A

Supervisors tend to rate employees higher when the supervisor participated in the hiring decision.

36
Q

Holland’s personality-job fit theory

A

Individuals and job traits can be matched, and that close matches will correlate with job success/satisfaction.

37
Q

Holland’s personality types categorization (RIASEC)

A

Realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional.

38
Q

Realistic

A

Refers to physical activities that require skill, strength, and coordination.

39
Q

Investigative

A

Involves thinking, organizing, and understanding.

40
Q

Artistic

A

Ambiguous and unsystematic activities that allow creative expression.

41
Q

Social

A

Activities that involve helping and developing other jobs.

42
Q

Enterprising

A

Opportunity to influence others and obtain power

43
Q

Conventional

A

Rule-regulated, orderly, unambiguous.

44
Q

Career maturity

A

Individual’s ability to effectively master the tasks of a given stage in preparation for moving to the next stage.

45
Q

Krumboltz’s social learning theory

A

Career development is based on social learning, environmental conditions, genetic influences, and learning experiences.

46
Q

Tiedeman and O’hara’s theory of career development

A

Differentiation: making distinctions about the different aspects of oneself, and the environment.

Integration: unifying these different aspects resulting in better decision making.

47
Q

Schein’s career anchor theory

A

People’s self-concepts or “career anchors” revolved around 8 categories: autonomy, security, technical competence, general managerial competence, entrepreneurial creativity, service to a cause, pure challenge, and lifestyle.

48
Q

Hawthorne effect

A

People work harder when they are being directly supervised.

49
Q

Fielder’s contingency (LPC) theory

A

Looks at whether the leader is task-oriented or relationship oriented. LPC theory predicts that leaders who are not highly preferred are most effective as leaders in situations that are highly favorable or unfavorable.

50
Q

Cognitive Resource Theory

A

Looks at whether a directive vs. non-directive leadership style will be more effective depending on the cognitive resources of the employees.

51
Q

Vroom & Yetton’s normative model

A

Focuses on a single aspect of leadership, decision making.

52
Q

House’s path-goal theory

A

Recommends that the leader increase personal payoffs for subordinates and make the paths to the payoffs easier.

53
Q

Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership

A

If the employee isn’t ready to perform, leader should tell them what to do; if they are more ready to perform, they need less task orientation from the leader.

54
Q

Motivation - Herzberg’s two-factor theory

A

Lower level needs: relates to job context, such as pay, working conditions, supervision. Dissatisfaction results when lower level needs are not met, but meeting them doesn’t produce satisfaction

Upper level needs: motivators or satisfiers, related to job content, including achievement, responsibility, and opportunity. Meeting these needs INCREASE satisfaction and motivation.

Argues: enrichment and enlargement affect workers by reducing boredom. AKA vertically expanding job responsibilities.

55
Q

Alderfer’s ERG theory

A

Divides needs into those based on existence, relatedness, and growth.

56
Q

General expectancy theory of motivation

A

People behave in ways that are based on their perceived expectancy that certain rewards will follow, and that in the workplace employees perform at a level that results in the greatest payoff.

57
Q

Adams’s equity theory

A

Ratio of self-inputs/slef-outcomes versus others’ inputs/others’ outcomes. inequity is a motivating state; we’ll adjust our performance if we see things that appear unfair.

If you and someone else do the same work and you get more bonuses, then the other person will decrease his work effort.

58
Q

Locke’s goal setting approach

A

Goals should be:

  1. Specific
  2. Intermediate - high level difficulty
  3. able to elicit feedback
  4. Self-efficacy will increase performance
  5. Employees must accept goals
59
Q

Self-concept theory

A

Self-concept changes over life and develops as a result of experience. Career development mirrors self-concept.

60
Q

Transformational leaders

A

Focus on empowering workers through inspiration and charisma

Transformational leaders use intellectual stimulation in order to influence subordinates.

61
Q

Benefits of realistic job preview?

A

Increases longevity of employment

62
Q

Theory Y

A

Workers can be expected to seek challenges on the job

63
Q

When a worker enjoys the type of work he does, what could you expect to see?

A

Decreased tardiness and missed days

64
Q

Organizational development

A

Goal is increased performance. Involves focus on relationships, and is based on systems theory.

65
Q

Which employees have lower turnover rates?

A

Poorly paid, under-40’s.

Low reward so higher intrinsic motivation to keep going./

66
Q

Job satisfaction

A

It stems from innate factors.

It increases with age.

There is a direct relationship between job satisfaction and physical and mental health problems.

67
Q

Quality control circles

A

a group of workers who do the same or similar work, who meet regularly to identify, analyze and solve work-related problems

68
Q

Gender and leadership

A

Group members tend to turn to male bosses more commonly than female bosses for info on how to complete a task.

69
Q

What trait is most associated with job performance across all jobs?

A

Conscientiousness

70
Q

Protocol analysis

A

subjects are trained to think aloud as they solve a problem, and their verbal behaviour forms the basic data to be analyzed.

71
Q

When should management reward group performance more than individual performance?

A

on a task that is high in interdependence.

72
Q

Who conducted the tests in brown v board of education

A

Kenneth Clark

73
Q

When does group polarization occur

A

When group members make more extreme decisions than they would have individually

74
Q

Comparing job enrichment vs job enlargement

A

Job enrichment involves more responsibility

Job enlargement increases variety.

EPPP (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions