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histopath lec > INTRODUCTION TO PATHOLOGY > Flashcards

INTRODUCTION TO PATHOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

Area of science focusing on all the changes in cells, tissues, and organs that underlie a disease.

A

Pathology

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2
Q

It is the study of diseases

A

Pathology

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3
Q

What are the 4 aspects of pathology?

A
  1. Etiology
  2. Pathogenesis
  3. Molecular and Morphologic Changes
  4. Functional Derangement & Clinical Manifestations
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4
Q

This refers to the cause: genetic/acquired

A

Etiology

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5
Q

What are 2 causes based on etiology?

A
  1. Genetic
  2. Acquired
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6
Q

It is the manner/sequence of events on how the disease had developed.

A

Pathogenesis

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7
Q

This refers to the changes in cells -> tissues -> organs due to disease.

A

Molecular and Morphologic Changes

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8
Q

Even the normal functioning of organs would be affected, and as a result, the patient will show manifestation of disease.

True or False

A

TRUE

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9
Q

This refers to the incomplete/defective development of a tissue/organ

Abnormalities of cell growth/developmental defects

A

Aplasia

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10
Q

Aplasia shows some resemblance to the normal adult structure.

True or False

A

False

shows no resemblance

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11
Q

What are the paired structures for Aplasia?

A

kidneys & gland

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12
Q

This is the complete non-appearance/absence of an organ

Abnormalities of cell growth/developmental defects

A

Agenesia

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13
Q

This is the failure of an organ to reach its normal mature adult size (normal appearance)

Abnormalities of cell growth/developmental defects

A

Hypoplasia

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14
Q

This is the failure of an organ to form an opening - condition in which an office or passage in the body is closed or absent

Abnormalities of cell growth/developmental defects

A

Atresia

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15
Q

What is blocked/absent in biliary atresia?

A

biliary duct

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16
Q

Biliary atresia does not happen in newborns

True or false

A

FALSE

may happen in newborns

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17
Q

This happens when the anus is missing or doesn’t have a hole.

A

Imperforate anus

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18
Q

It is a type of birth defect of a baby’s ear where there is an absence of the ear canal

A

microtia

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19
Q

An injury can be characterized into what?

A

Reversible or irreversible

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20
Q

In general, what causes an injury?

A

Injurious Stimuli or Stressful Stimuli —> Normal Cells

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21
Q

all normal cells may be exposed to a lot of injurious stimuli or stressful stimuli and exposure to those stimuli can lead to what?

A

Injury

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22
Q

What causes adapted Normal Cells?

A

Reversible Injury —> “cellular adaptations”

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23
Q

In irreversible injury, the unaffected cell can get back to its normal state or condition by using a single cellular adaptation mechanisms

True or False

A

False

reversible injury; affected cell; multiple cellular adaptations

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24
Q

Reversible Injury using “cellular adaptations” causes what?

A

Adapted Normal Cells

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25
Q

Irreversible Injury —> “apoptosis (physiologic), necrosis (pathologic)” causes what?

A

Dead cells

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26
Q

This is the type of injury wherein the affected cell can no longer get back to its normal state. It is considered “the point of no return”

A

Irreversible injury

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27
Q

This type of injury causes cell death

A

Irreversible injury

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28
Q

What are the two categories of cell death?

A

apoptosis and necrosis

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29
Q

Among the two categories of cell death, which among the two are patterns of cell death?

A

both are patterns of cell death.

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30
Q

Apoptosis is a natural process

True or False

A

True

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31
Q

This is the type of cell death due to a disease

A

Necrosis

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32
Q

This is the type of cell death that is physiologic

A

Apoptosis

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33
Q

This refers to acquired decrease in tissue or organ size

A

Atrophy

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34
Q

What are the two types of atrophy?

A
  1. physiologic
  2. pathologic
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35
Q

This is the type of atrophy that occurs as a consequence of maturation.

A

Physiologic

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36
Q

Give an example of a physiologic atrophy

A

atrophy of thymus during puberty & atrophy of brain and sex organs

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37
Q

At birth the thymus is very big, but as one ages, the thymus gets smaller.

True or False

A

True

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38
Q

The fact that the thymus decreases in size, as the person ages is what type of atrophy?

A

physiologic atrophy

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39
Q

In physiologic atrophy, the thymus increases in size, as the person ages

True or False

A

False

the thymus decreases

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40
Q

the brain and sex organs undergo atrophy at the age of what?

A

At the age of 50

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41
Q

The decrease in size of the brain and sex organs, at age 50, is normal.

True or False

A

True

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42
Q

decrease in uterus and breast size after childbirth is an example of physiologic atrophy

True or False

A

True

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43
Q

this is the type of atrophy wherein there is a decrease in tissue or organ size is due to a disease

A

Pathologic atrophy

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44
Q

What are the 6 types of pathologic atrophy?

PVEESA

A
  1. Pressure atrophy
  2. Vascular atrophy
  3. Exhaustion atrophy
  4. Endocrine atrophy
  5. starvation/Hunger atrophy
  6. Atrophy of Disuse
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45
Q

This pathologic atrophy may happen because of the sudden cut off of blood supply

A

Vascular atrophy

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46
Q

This pathologic atrophy may happen due to lack of nutritional supply; lack of nourishment

A

starvation/Hunger atrophy

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47
Q

This atrophy may develop due to excessive workload.

A

Exhaustion atrophy

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48
Q

This type of atrophy may happen because of lack of hormones needed to maintain normal size.

A

Endocrine atrophy

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49
Q

This is the type of atrophy wherein there is a decrease in tissue or organ size is due to inactivity of diminished function; lack of activity

A

Atrophy of Disuse

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50
Q

This happens when there is persistent pressure/continuous pressure on an organ or tissue may cause direct injury to the cell causing it to become smaller; too much pressure exerted to an organ or tissue

A

Pressure atrophy

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51
Q

hyper means what?

A

increase

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52
Q

In both hypertrophy or hyperplasia there is an increase in tissue or organ size.

true or false

A

True

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53
Q

This is due to an increase in the size of individual cells comprising an organ.

A

Hypertrophy

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54
Q

This is the type of atrophy wherein NO NEW CELLS ARE PRODUCED.

A

Hypertrophy

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55
Q

this is an increase of [skeletal] muscle due to excessive exercise.

A

Physiologic hypertrophy

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56
Q

This may happen if one of the paired organs is removed.

A

Compensatory hypertrophy

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57
Q

Give an example of compensatory hyperplasia

A

RENAL HYPERPLASIA

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58
Q

When one of your kidneys are removed, the other kidney will increase in size. This is called…

A

compensatory hypertrophy.

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59
Q

Give an example of Pathologic hypertrophy

A

hypertrophy of myocardium due to aortic valve disease or hypertension

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60
Q

hypertrophy of myocardium due to aortic valve disease or hypertension is what type of hypertrophy?

A

Pathologic hypertrophy

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61
Q

This is due to an increase in the number of cells making up the organ.

A

Hyperplasia

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62
Q

in hypertrophy, new cells are produced.

true or false

A

false

hyperplasia

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63
Q

Erythroid bone marrow Hyperplasia is what type of hyperplasia?

A

Physiologic

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64
Q

The increase in breast size during puberty is what type of hyperplasia?

A

physiologic hyperplasia

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65
Q

The increase in breast and uterus size during pregnancy is what type of hyperplasia?

A

physiologic hyperplasia

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66
Q

bone marrow hyperplasia (Erythroid bone marrow hyperplasia) may develop in what conditions?

A

may develop among individuals living in high altitudes.

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67
Q

This type of hyperplasia that may develop among individuals living in high altitudes.

A

bone marrow hyperplasia (Erythroid bone marrow hyperplasia)

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68
Q

This type of hyperplasia is due to disease

A

Pathologic

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69
Q

This type of hyperplasia may give rise to neoplasm

A

Pathologic hyperplasia

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70
Q

This is the type of hyperplasia that may be due to stimulation of growth factors.

A

Pathologic hyperplasia

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71
Q

This hyperplasia happens with infants from a diabetic mother

A

PATHOLOGIC HYPERPLASIA

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72
Q

Hyperplasia of pancreatic islet in infants of a diabetic mother (stimulated by high glucose level)

What type of hyperplasia?

A

PATHOLOGIC HYPERPLASIA

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73
Q

Lymphoid tissue hyperplasia occurring after localized inflammation

What type of hyperplasia?

A

PATHOLOGIC HYPERPLASIA

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74
Q

Increase in the number of lymph nodules (as noted in TB of cervical lymph nodes)

What type of hyperplasia?

A

PATHOLOGIC HYPERPLASIA

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75
Q

Hyperplasia of endometrium due to excessive production of estrogen (excess hormonal stimulation)

What type of hyperplasia?

A

PATHOLOGIC HYPERPLASIA

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76
Q

Diffuse crowding of epithelial cells forming papillary projections

What is this disease called?

A

Grave’s Disease

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77
Q

Grave’s Disease

What type of hyperplasia?

A

PATHOLOGIC HYPERPLASIA

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78
Q

This involves transformation of adult cell to another adult cell type

A

Metaplasia

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79
Q

Metaplasia is considered as an IRREVERSIBLE PROCESS

True or False

A

False

Reversible process

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80
Q

This refers to the ADULT to ADULT TRANSFORMATION

A

Metaplasia

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81
Q

Give two examples of metaplasia

E&M

A

Epithelial metaplasia and Mesenchymal metaplasia

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82
Q

This is the type of metaplasia if the cells involved are EPITHELIAL CELLS

A

Epithelial metaplasia

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83
Q

This is the type of metaplasia if the cell involved are CONNECTIVE TISSUE CELLS

A

Mesenchymal metaplasia

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84
Q

Dysplasia is a reversible process

True or false

A

True

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85
Q

Dysplasia is also known as …

two terms

A

Pre-neoplastic Lesion or Atypical Metaplasia

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86
Q

Metaplasia and dysplasia are both reversible processes

True or false

A

TRUE

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87
Q

compared to metaplasia, in dysplasia there is NO CELL TRANSFORMATION

True or false

A

TRUE

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88
Q

Affected cells in dysplasia shows a change in what?

A

change in SIZE, SHAPE, and ORIENTATION

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89
Q

De-differentiation is also known as

A

Anaplasia

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90
Q

Anaplasia is also a reversible process

True or False

A

False

anaplasia is a irreversible process

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91
Q

Anaplasia is also a reversible process

True or False

A

False

anaplasia is an irreversible process

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92
Q

This is characterized by transformation of adult cell to PRIMITIVE or EMBRYONIC CELL TYPE

A

Anaplasia

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93
Q

Anaplasia is characterized by transformation of adult cell to what?

A

PRIMITIVE or EMBRYONIC CELL TYPE

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94
Q

This is often used as a CRITERION for malignancy

A

Anaplasia

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95
Q

Anaplasia is often used as a criterion for what?

A

criterion for malignancy

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96
Q

This refers to the process of TUMOR FORMATION

A

Neoplasia

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97
Q

Neoplasia is characterized by what?

A

Abnormal cells

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98
Q

These are cells that serve no purpose/function

A

Abnormal cells

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99
Q

Continuous proliferation of abnormal cells leads to formation of tumor, formation of new growth

True or False

A

TRUE

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100
Q

Also called tumor or new growth

A

Neoplasm

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101
Q

Neoplasm is also called …

A

Also called tumor or new growth

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102
Q

This is the study of tumors or neoplasm

A

Oncology

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103
Q

This is a common term for all malignant tumors

A

Cancer

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104
Q

Cancer is the common term for what?

A

for all malignant tumors

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105
Q

Oncology is the study of what?

A

Study of tumors or neoplasm

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106
Q

What are the two types of cancer according to behavior?

A
  1. Benign
  2. Malignant
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107
Q

This type of injury will definitely lead to cell death

A

Irreversible injury

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108
Q

This refers to programmed cell death

A

Apoptosis

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109
Q

apoptosis is considered as a physiologic phenomenon while necrosis is said to be pathologic

True ot False

A

True

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110
Q

When you say pathologic, the death of the cell is due to what?

A

due to a disease

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111
Q

This happens when the cells’ DNA and proteins are damaged beyond repair.

A

Apoptosis

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112
Q

In apoptosis, what happens when the cells’ DNA and proteins are damaged?

A

The cell kills itself by apoptosis

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113
Q

In apoptosis, the affected cell becomes bigger.

True or False

A

False

becomes smaller

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114
Q

In apoptosis, the affected cell becomes bigger.

True or False

A

False

becomes smaller

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115
Q

In this pattern of cell death, there is a reduction in cell size.

A

Apoptosis

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116
Q

there is cell shrinkage in necrosis

True or False

A

False

apoptosis

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117
Q

The plasma membrane remains intact and since the plasma membrane remains intact, the cellular contents do not leak out.

True or False

A

True

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118
Q

What is the reason why in apoptosis there is no inflammation?

A

no inflammation since there is no leakage of cellular contents

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119
Q

why is there no leakage of cellular contents in apoptosis?

A

because the plasma membrane remains intact

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120
Q

This pattern of cell death is considered accidental and unregulated

A

Necrosis

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121
Q

Apoptosis; cell shrinkage - necrosis;

A

cell swelling

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122
Q

In necrosis, what is enlarged?

A

affected cells are usually enlarged

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123
Q

In necrosis, what happens to the plasma membrane?

A

The plasma membrane is disrupted

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124
Q

In necrosis, what happens when there is a leakage?

A

there is inflammation

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125
Q

Inflammation ocurs because of what?

A

Because of a leakage of cellular contents in the plasma membrane

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126
Q

Give one example of Dysplasia

A

cervical intraepithelial neoplasia

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127
Q

This is a stage in the cellular evolution to
cancer

A

a pre-neoplastic lesion

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128
Q

In Dysplasia, there is normal growth and differentiation ; variation of size and shape

True or False

A

False

Abnormal growth… ; variation of size and shape and orientation

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129
Q

What is another term for Dysplasia?

PA

A

Pre-neoplastic Lesion or Atypical Metaplasia

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130
Q

This cellular adaptation may lead to cancer but not necessarily

A

Dysplasia

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131
Q

This is a type of necrosis due to sudden cutoff of blood supply.

A

Coagulative necrosis

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132
Q

This type of necrosis usually happens in solid organs like the heart kidneys and adrenal glands but definitely not in the brain.

A

Coagulative necrosis

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133
Q

Coagulative necrosis is a type of necrosis usually happens in solid organs like the heart kidneys, adrenal glands, and the brain.

True or False

A

False

Definitely not in the brain

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134
Q

Coagulative necrosis usually happens in solid organs like what?

A
  • heart
  • kidneys
  • adrenal glands
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135
Q

In coagulative necrosis, the affected organ on gross inspection, appears like what?

A

Appears like a boiled material

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136
Q

This type of necrosis may happen due to complete digestion of dead cells.

A

Liquefactive necrosis

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137
Q

This type of necrosis is characterized by softening of necrotic material due to the action of hydrolytic enzymes

A

Liqufactive necrosis

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138
Q

Liquefactive necrosis is characterized by softening of necrotic material due to the action of what?

A

due to the action of hydrolytic enzymes

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139
Q

In liquefactive necrosis, affected organs appear …

A

appears liquidy and creamy yellow

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140
Q

Affected organs in liquefactive necrosis appears liquidy and creamy yellow because of what?

A

because of pus

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140
Q

Affected organs in liquefactive necrosis appears liquidy and creamy yellow because of what?

A

because of pus

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141
Q

This type of necrosis is a combination of coagulative and liquefactive necrosis.

A

Caseous necrosis

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142
Q

The affected organs of this type or necrosis appears soft and greasy resembling cottage cheese.

A

Caseous necrosis

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143
Q

Affected organs of caseous necrosis appears as what?

A

appears soft and greasy resembling cottage cheese.

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144
Q

Caseous necrosis is usually seen in what?

A

in tuberculosis

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145
Q

This type of necrosis is usually seen in tuberculosis

A

Caseous necrosis

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146
Q

This type of necrosis is due to immune reactions in the blood vessels.

A

Fibrinoid necrosis

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147
Q

In this type of necrosis, the changes are too small to see grossly.

A

Fibrinoid necrosis

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148
Q

In fibrinoid necrosis, the affected vessel appears thickened macroscropically.

True or False

A

False

Microscropically

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149
Q

This type of necrosis is seen in acute pancreatitis

A

Fat necrosis

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150
Q

Fat necrosis is seen in acute pancreatitis

True or False

A

True

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151
Q

In fat necrosis, the necrotic material appears like what?

A

Necrotic material appears like chalky white precipitate.

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152
Q

In this type of necrosis, the necrotic material appears like a chalky white precipitate

A

Fat necrosis

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153
Q

This type of necrosis is not actually a specific pattern of cell death.

A

Gangrenous necrosis

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154
Q

This type of necrosis is usually applied to a limb generally to the lower leg that has lost its blood supply.

A

Gangrenous necrosis

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155
Q

Gangrenous necrosis is a type of necrosis that is usually applied where? that has lost its blood supply.

A

to a limb generally to the lower leg that has lost its blood supply

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156
Q

refers to a leg to a lower extremity that has lost its blood supply.

A

Gangrenous

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157
Q

What are the two types of gangrenous necrosis?

A
  1. wet gangrene
  2. dry gangrene
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158
Q

Wet gangrene is due to what?

A

Due to venous occlusion

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159
Q

Dry gangrene is due to what?

A

Due to arterial occlusion

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160
Q

This type of gangrene is due to venous occlusion

A

Wet gangrene

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161
Q

This type of gangrene is due to arterial occlusion

A

Dry gangrene

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162
Q

This is actually a tissue reaction to an injury.

A

Inflammation

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163
Q

It is a vascular response to an injury.

A

Inflammation

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164
Q

what are the five cardinal signs of inflammation?

Ouch! Red Hot Tumor FuntionLaes (functionless)

A
  1. Pain
  2. Redness
  3. Heat
  4. Swelling
  5. Loss of function
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165
Q

Dolor is …

A

Pain

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166
Q

Rubor is …

A

Redness

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167
Q

Tumor is …

A

Swelling

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168
Q

Loss of function is …

A

Functio laesa

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169
Q

This is s due to increased dilation of blood vessels resulting in an increase rate of blood flow at the site of injury.

A

Rubor

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170
Q

Rubor is due to decreased dilation of blood vessels resulting in an increased rate of blood flow at the site of injury.

True or False

A

False

increased dilation

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171
Q

In rubor, increased dilation of blood vessels results to what?

A

Results to an increased rate of blood flow at the site of injury.

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172
Q

What causes redness?

A

the increased dilatation of blood vessels in the rate of blood flow.

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173
Q

This is due to the release of chemical substances like bradykinin that stimulates nerve endings for pain.

A

Dolor/Pain

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174
Q

Dolor is due to the release of chemical substances like what?

A

due to substances like bradykinin

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175
Q

What does chemical substances like bradykinin do?

A

they stimulate nerve endings for pain.

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176
Q

What causes dolor?

A

the release of chemical substances like bradykinin causing stimulation of nerve endings for pain.

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177
Q

This is due to the transfer of internal heat to the surface or to the site of injury

A

Calor/Heat

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178
Q

This is due to the extravascular accumulation of fluid.

A

Tumor/swelling

179
Q

Tumor is due to the intravascular accumulation of fluid.

True or False

A

False

extravascular accumulation of fluid

180
Q

Functio laesa is due to the destruction of what?

A

destruction of the functioning unit of the tissue.

181
Q

This is due to the destruction of the functioning unit of the tissue.

A

Functio laesa/loss of function

182
Q

This is the type of cell death that is a programmed/physiologic type of cell death.

A

Apoptosis

183
Q

This refers to the death of the entire body.

A

Somatic death

184
Q

In Somatic death, there are no changes that can be noted in the body.

True or False

A

False

there are changes noted in the body

185
Q

Changes in somatic death may be classified into what?

A
  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
186
Q

This is the change in somatic death wherein the changes can be noted immediately after that.

A

Primary changes

187
Q

Primary changes are changes can be observed immediately after death.

True or False

A

True

188
Q

These are the changes that can be noted a few hours after death.

A

Secondary changes

189
Q

What are the SEVEN secondary changes in somatic death?

PPLARDA (sounds like legarda)

A
  1. Putrefaction
  2. Postmortem clotting
  3. Livor Mortis/Lividity/Postmortem Hemolysis
  4. Algor mortis
  5. Rigor mortis
  6. Desiccation
  7. Autolysis
190
Q

What are the two terms of Livor mortis?

A

Lividity/Postmortem Hemolysis

191
Q

This refers to the cooling of the body.

A

Algor mortis

192
Q

This is the FIRST secondary change to appear in somatic death

A

Algor mortis

193
Q

This secondary change is important in establishing time of death.

A

Algor mortis

194
Q

Why is algor mortis important in establishing time of death?

A

Because this happens at a rate of 7°F.

195
Q

At what temperature rate does algor mortis happen?

A

7°F

196
Q

In short, why is algor mortis important in estalishing the time of death?

A

because the body temperature decreases every hour.

197
Q

In algor mortis, the rate of decerase in temperature is faster in what conditions?

A
  • faster in cold weather
  • Faster in malnourished individuals
198
Q

In algor mortis, the decrease in temperature is usually hastened if the cause of death is infection.

True

A

False

usually delayed

199
Q

Why is there usually a delay if the cause of death is infection?

A

If there is infection, there is an increase in temperature.

200
Q

For instance, at the time of death, the patient had fever, will the cooling of the dead person be faster or slower than it should be?

A

slower

201
Q

This refers to the purplish discoloration of the skin.

A

Livor Mortis/Lividity/Postmortem Hemolysis

202
Q

In livor mortis, the purplish discoloration of the skin is due to what?

A

Due to sinking of fluid blood into capillaries of the dependent parts of the body.

203
Q

The purplish discoloration of the skin due to sinking of fluid blood into veins of the independent parts of the body.

True or False

A

False

into the capillaries of the dependent parts

204
Q

Rigor mortis is lso called …

A

Rigidity

205
Q

This refers to the stiffening of muscles

A

Rigor mortis

206
Q

Rigor mortis occurs how many hours after death?

A

6-12 hours

207
Q

Rigor mortis persists for how many day/s?

A

3-4 days

208
Q

This is the secondary change in somatic death wherein the blood inside the body will clot.

A

Postmortem clotting

209
Q

This is the clotting of blood in somatic death.

A

Postmortem clotting

210
Q

This is the drying & wrinkling of the anterior chamber of the eye and cornea.

A

Desiccation

211
Q

Dessication is the drying and wrinkling of what?

A

of the anterior chamber of the eye and cornea.

212
Q

This is the examination of cells desquamated/shed from epithelial surfaces

A

EXFOLIATIVE CYTOLOGY

213
Q

these are leftovers used in cell block technique

A

Sediments

214
Q

what are examples of gynecological specimens?

GCN

A
  • Cervicoginal smears (PAP smear)
  • Nipple discharge
  • Gastric or bronchial secretions
215
Q

What are the types of non-gynecological specimens?

CUPS

A
  • Pleural and peritoneal fluid
  • Sputum
  • Urine sediment
  • CSF
216
Q

PAP smear

Gynecological or non-gynecological

A

Gynecological specimens

217
Q

Sputum

Gynecological or non-gynecological

A

Non-gynecological

218
Q

Nipple discharge

Gynecological or non-gynecological

A

Gynecological

219
Q

Pleural and peritoneal fluid

Gynecological or non-gynecological

A

Non-gynecological

220
Q

Urine sediment

Gynecological or non-gynecological

A

Non-gynecological

221
Q

CSF

gynecological or non-gynecological

A

non-gynecological

222
Q

Gastric or bronchial secretions

Gynecological or non-gynecological

A

Gynecological

223
Q

What are the advantages of exfoliative cytology?

A
  • Cost effective
  • Simple
  • Low application rate
  • High diagnostic accuracy
224
Q

Smears are usually made from preserved material

True or False

A

False

Fresh material

225
Q

Requisition form must contain the following:

Preparation of Smear

A

Patient’s ID, name, age, date, and type of specimen

226
Q

What are some methods of smear preparation?

A
  • Streaking
  • Spreading
  • Pull-apart
  • Touch or impression smear/abraded cytology
227
Q

PAP smears are not centrifuged

True or False

A

True

228
Q

Why are PAP smears not centrifuged?

A

because they are received as smeared slides already

229
Q

As soon as we receive the non-gyne and gyne specimens, we do centrifugation except for pap smears.

True or False

A

True

230
Q

Centrifugation -> sediments -> smear prep

A

True

231
Q

after centrifugation we use the sediments for smear preparation.

True or False

A

True

232
Q

Specimen with decreased proteins do not require the addition of adhesives.

True or False

A

FALSE

specimens with increased protein

233
Q

specimens with increased proteins which means they do not require the addition of WHAT?

A

adhesives.

234
Q

Enumerate the specimens that require addition of adhesive

CUBE

A
  • Concentrated sputum
  • Urinary sediments
  • Broncho Alveolar Lavage (BAL)
  • Enzymatic lavage from GIT
235
Q

Enumerate the types of adhesives used for specimens with increased proteins

PLACe

A
  • Pure serum or plasma
  • Leuconostoc culture
  • APES
  • Celloidin ether alcohol
236
Q

If the protein content is very high it will require addition of adhesives but if protein content is low it will not require addition of adhesives

True or false

A

high; not require - low; require

237
Q

What is the routine tissue adhesive?

A

Mayer’s egg albumin

238
Q

In cytology, we only seldom use Mayer’s egg albumin

True or False

A

False

we NEVER use Mayer’s egg albumin for cytology

239
Q

Adhesive must be permeable to both fixative and stain; Must not retain the stain

True or False

A

True

240
Q

Why don’t we use Mayer’s egg albumin in cytology?

A

Because Mayer’s egg albumin is intensely stained by the counterstain used in paps/kapag ginamit mo during staining it will take up the color/dye makukulayan yung Mayer’s egg albumin.

241
Q

FIXATION

Smears must be prepared and immediately immersed in fixative while still moist and before drying occurs

true or false

A

True

242
Q

Why must we FIX exfoliated cells ASAP?

A

since exfoliated cells decompose rapidly which may destroy cellular and nuclear details

243
Q

What happens if cellular and nuclear details are destroyed?

A

it will give inadequate results for diagnosis

244
Q

How long and how many rotations per minute must centrifugation be?

A

Centrifuge at 2000 rpm for 2 minutes

245
Q

After centrifugation, what happens to the supernatant and sediment?

A

supernatant must be decanted; use sediment for smear preparation

246
Q

Extra sediment uses what technique?

A

Cell block technique

247
Q

Since cells decompose rapidly, what must be done?

A

fix asap

248
Q

If the sepcimen is not a smear (i.e., urine sample, CSF), what must be done first?

A

centrifuge

249
Q

For specimens that are not a smear (i.e., urine sample, CSF), what must be done after centrifugation?

A

Remove the supernatant fluid, and use the sediments for smear preparation.

250
Q

Common 7 Fixatives for Cytologic smears

A
  • 95% ethyl alcohol
  • Equal parts of 95% ethyl alcohol & ether
  • Equal parts of tertiary butyl alcohol and 1 part 95% ethanol
  • Carnoy’s fluid
  • Spraycyte or cyto spray
  • Schaudinn’s Fluid
  • Saccomano preservative
251
Q

Common Fixatives for Cytologic smears

This is considered the best but not commonly used because it is flammable.

A

Equal parts of 95% ethyl alcohol & ether

252
Q

Why is Equal parts of 95% ethyl alcohol & ether considered the best but not commonly used?

A

because it is flammable.

253
Q

This is the fixative commonly used for cytology.

A

95% ethyl alcohol

254
Q

The tissue fixative is how many percent formalin?

A

10%

255
Q

The routine cytological fixative is how many percent ethanol?

A

95% ethanol

256
Q

This fixative is used for bloody specimens

A

Carnoy’s fluid

257
Q

Carnoy’s fluid is used for what?

A

used for blood specimens

258
Q

Spraycyte or cyto spray is a combinaion of what?

A

Combination of Polyethylene glycol and isopropyl alcohol

259
Q

This fixative is a combination of Polyethylene glycol and isopropyl alcohol

A

Spraycyte or cyto spray

260
Q

Spraycyte or cyto spray must be kept how many feet away from the slide?

A

1 foot

261
Q

Spraycyte must be kept 2 feet distance from the slide.

True or False

A

False

262
Q

This is the type of fixative that must be kept 1 foot away from the slide

A

Spraycyte or cyto spray

263
Q

This is actually a combination of 50% ethanol and 20% carbo wax.

A

Saccomano preservative

264
Q

Saccomano preservative is a combination of what?

A

combination of 50% ethanol and 20% carbo wax.

265
Q

What does PAP smear stand for?

A

Papanicolau smear and stain

266
Q

This is a screening test for cervical cancer.

A

PAP smear

267
Q

PAP smears are a screening test for what?

A

Screening test for cervical cancer.

268
Q

What are the 6 uses of PAP smear?

DDOMBE

A
  1. Determination of etiology of certain infections
  2. Determination of ovarian function
  3. One test to assess infertility
  4. Medico legal examination of sexual assault
  5. Evaluation of response of malignancy to post radiation or chemotherapy
  6. Barr Body determination
269
Q

He is the father of cytopathology

A

George Papanicolaou

270
Q

This is a stain that consists of 3 stains, developed by George Papanicolaou

A

Pap stain

271
Q

What is the reason why it is called PAP Smear?

A

because we use the PAPANICOLAOU STAIN

272
Q

What are the 3 stains used in PAP stain?

A
  • Harris hematoxylin
  • OG 6
  • EA 50
273
Q

What is H&E stain?

A

HEMATOXYLIN and EOSIN

274
Q

This is used in Papanicolaou stain in order to stain the NUCLEUS

A

Harris Hematoxylin/NUCLEAR STAIN

275
Q

This is the first dye to be applied

A

Primary dye

276
Q

This is the FIRST counter stain

A

OG 6

277
Q

Harris hematoxylin is used to stain what?

A

to stain the nucleus

278
Q

This is the FIRST counterstain

A

OG 6

279
Q

OG 6 is used to stain the what?

A

To stain the CYTOPLASM of MATURE superficial cells

280
Q

This is used to stain the CYTOPLASM of MATURE superficial cells

A

OG 6 (Orange green 6)

281
Q

OG 6 is made up of …

A

Orange green, 0.5 solution in 95% alcohol & phosphotungstic acid

282
Q

This is the second counter stain

A

EA 50

283
Q

This stains the CYTOPLASM of IMMATURE cells

A

EA 50

284
Q

EA 50 is used to stain what?

A

Stain the CYTOPLASM of IMMATURE cells

285
Q

What are examples of immature cells?

A

intermediate cells and parabasal cells

286
Q

This is a polychrome mixture of Eosin Y, Light green SF and Bismarck brown.

A

EA 50

287
Q

Light green SF, yellowish 0.1 % solution in 95% alcohol

True or False

A

True

288
Q

Bismarck brown 0.5 in 93% alcohol

True or False

A

False

95% alcohol

289
Q

Bismarck brown 0.5 in 93% alcohol

True or False

A

False

95% alcohol

290
Q

Eosin Y 0.1% in 95% alcohol Phosphotungstic acid, lithium carbonate

True or False

A

False

Eosin Y 0.5%

291
Q

EA 50 is comparable to EA 36

True or False

A

True

292
Q

Procedure for PAP smear

10 steps

A
  1. Fixation with 95% ethanol
  2. Hematoxylin
  3. Differentiate with acid alcohol then wash with water
  4. Ammonia water then wash
  5. OG6
  6. 95% ethanol –washing , 2 changes
  7. EA 50 0r 36
  8. Dehydration
  9. Xylol
  10. Mount and label
293
Q

Upon receiving the smear, the first step is to …

A

Fix it with ethanol

294
Q

After fixing the smear with ethanol, what must be applied next?

A

apply hematoxylin

295
Q

After applying hematoxylin, decolorize the smear using what?

A

Acid alcohol

296
Q

After decolorizing the smear, place it in a bluing agent which is …

A

Ammonia water

297
Q

Fix with ethanol > hematoxylin > acid alcohol > ammonia water > OG 6> ETHANOL > EA 50

True or False

A

True

298
Q

In papanicolaou staining the nucleus will definitely appear as what color?

A

blue

299
Q

in papanicolaou staining, cytoplasm of superficial cells usually have a color with a hint of …

A

green

300
Q

In PAP staining, the cytoplasm of intermediate and parabasal will appear color what with a hint of color what and what

A

olive green ; hint of brown and red

301
Q

A smear is will now only be ready for microscopy after what?

A

Afte pap staining

302
Q

Normal Cells seen in PAP SMEARS

as to size, this is considered as the largest, but this is the smallest as for its nucleus

A

Superficial Cells

303
Q

This normal cell seen in pap smears is the most mature

A

Superficial cells

large 30-6 u

304
Q

These are cells with small dark pyknotic nuclei (less than 6u)

A

Polyhedral flat cells

305
Q

These are cells that show TRUE ACIDOPHILIA

A

Superficial cells

306
Q

For superficial cells, cytoplasm may be acidophilic or basophilic

True or False

A

True

307
Q

characteristic of the vaginal cells under the influence of estrogen.

A

True acidophilia

308
Q

This is the primary female hormone.

A

Estrogen

309
Q

These are medium sized; slightly small than superficial cells

A

Intermediate cells

310
Q

Intermediate cells have what characteristic in their cytoplasm?

A

basophilic with vacuoles, vesicular nuclei (6-9u)

311
Q

These are boat-Shaped cells with a tendency to fold or curl on edges

A

Navicular cells

312
Q

Navicular cells are found where?

A

Found in the latter half of menstrual cycle, menopause and during pregnancy

313
Q

The presence of these cells suggest Progesterone-Estrogen effect

A

Navicular cells

314
Q

These cells may also be found as a result of abnormal androgen stimulation, either endogenous or exogenous

A

Navicular cells

315
Q

These cells are round to oval shaped cells with translucent basophilic cytoplasm due to glycogen accumulation

A

Pregnancy cells

316
Q

These round to oval shaped cells with translucent basophilic cytoplasm due to what?

A

glycogen accumulation

317
Q

With pregnancy cells, the nucleus is pushed to the center with a single walled boundary appearance

True or False

A

False

nucleus is pushed at periphery with double walled boundary

318
Q

Cytoplasm of pregnancy cells stain with what color?

A

stains deep blue or blue green + cell membrane

319
Q

Cytoplasm of pregnancy cells stain with what color?

A

stains deep blue or blue green + cell membrane

320
Q

These are cells that are smaller than intermediate cells

A

parabasal cells

321
Q

These are those said to assume a fried egg appearance

A

Parabasal cells

322
Q

Usually parabasal cells may be found in increased number where?

A

after childbirth/after abortion/after menopause/ and 2 weeks of age to puberty

323
Q

When does it happen that there are more parabasal cells compared to superficial?

A

Parabasal cells are more/after childbirth/after abortion/after menopause/ and 2 weeks of age to puberty

324
Q

These are thick round to oval cells (15-25 u), with strong basophilic cytoplasm and vesicular nuclei (6-9u)

A

Parabasal cells

325
Q

What cells are shed off from vaginal surfaces?

A

superficial, intermediate, and parabasal cells

326
Q

What are the first cells being shed off?

A

superficial cells

327
Q

These are the cells at the very bottom?

A

Parabasal cells

328
Q

These are the smallest, but it is the one with a very big nucleus

A

Basal cells

329
Q

basal cells are shed off naturally.

True or false

A

False

not shed off naturally, but are shed TRAUMATICALLY

330
Q

these are small (13-20u) round, slightly oval cells, with relatively large nucleus occupying half or more of the cell volume

A

Basal cells

331
Q

Cytoplasm of parabasal cells are strongly basophilic

True or false

A

True

332
Q

These are cells found only in vaginal smears only before pregnancy and after menopause

A

Basal cells

333
Q

How were pap smears previously recorded?

How are the results of Pap Smear recorded?

A

class system

334
Q

What system is currently adapted or used to report the results of Pap smear?

A

Bethesda system

335
Q

When was the class system last used?

A

December 1988

336
Q

This class is Negative for malignant cells

A

Class I

337
Q

These are atypical cells present, but negative for malignant cells

A

Class II

338
Q

Suspicious for Malignant cells

A

Class III

339
Q

strongly suggestive of malignant cells

A

Class IV

340
Q

conclusive for malignant cells

A

Class V

341
Q

The Bethesda System was developed where? when?

A

National Cancer Institute; December 1988

342
Q

What are the 3 ways to format reporting?

DGS

A
  1. Descriptive diagnosis
  2. General categorization
  3. Specimen adequacy
343
Q

it deals with the study of normal tissues and in the examination of tissues we use microscopes.

A

Histology

344
Q

What is the other term for histology?

A

microscopic anatomy

345
Q

Why is microscopic anatomy another term for histology?

A

because the study of tissues is carried out using a microscope.

346
Q

this is the study of diseases

A

Pathology

347
Q

What are the three specimens processed in histopath?

A
  1. Biopsy specimen
  2. Autopsy specimen
  3. Specimen for cytology
348
Q

What is the difference between biopsy and biopsy speimen?

A

Biopsy is the process while biopsy speimen is the specimen coming from a living thing

349
Q

lahat ba ng ipinapatanggal sa katawan will recquire mandatory submission to the lab?

A

No

350
Q

What is the purpose of doing a biopsy?

A

Biopsy is carried out primarily to detect malignancy/detect cancerous conditions.

351
Q

What are the exceptions of those specimens not submitted for biopsy?

Fat foreskin

A
  1. Foreskin removed during circumcision
  2. Fats removed from liposuction
352
Q

What are the types of biopsies?

IBA

A
  1. Incisional
  2. Excisional biopsy
  3. Aspiration biopsy
353
Q

Removal from the body is done by who?

A

surgeons

354
Q

Processing of the removed specimen is done by who?

A

medtechs

355
Q

Processing of the removed specimen done by who?

A

pathologists

356
Q

It is the type of biopsy where we remove only part of the mass or part of the organ.

A

Incisional

357
Q

It is the type of biopsy where we remove the entire mass or the entire organ.

A

Excisional Biopsy

358
Q

Aspiration Biopsy is now called …

A

FNAB

Fine Needle Aspiration Biopsy

359
Q

What are the disadvantages with FNAB?

A

problematic cells might be missed

360
Q

This is the procedure carried out for palpable masses

A

fnab

361
Q

Between incisional and excisional alin ang nakakapagbigay ng greater chances na ma-detect yung cancer?

A

Excisional, kasi mas malaki as it will provide a greater picture nung itsura.

362
Q

Bakit hindi masyadong uso yung incisional and excisional biopsy?

A

Kasi ito mas mahal and will entail surgery

363
Q

Purpose of doing biopsy:

A

to detect cancerous conditions

364
Q

What is another term for autopsy?

A

necropsy

365
Q

What is the most important requirement to do an autopsy?

A

The most important thing is to have consent from the nearest kin.

366
Q

Hindi lahat ng patay naga-undergo ng autopsy as it is not a mandatory procedure.

True or false

A

True

367
Q

What is the purpose of autopsies?

A

Purpose is to determine the cause of death

368
Q

as to completeness of the procedure, what are two types of autopsy?

A
  • Complete autopsy
  • Partial autopsy
369
Q

involves the examination of a dead body for the purpose of determining cause of death.

A

autopsy

370
Q

This is the type of autopsy as to completeness of the procedure wherein the cadaver is examined from head to foot

A

Complete autopsy

371
Q

This is the type of autopsy as to completeness of the procedure wherein the cadaver is only examined for specific parts

A

Partial autopsy

372
Q

Autopsy can also classified as to the type of incision. What are these types?

A
  • Straight cut incision
  • Y-shaped incision
  • T-shaped incision
373
Q

This is the type of autopsy incision that is the most common

A

Straight cut incision

374
Q

This type of autopsy incision is done for adult cadavers.

A

Y-shaped incision

375
Q

How is a Y-shaped incision done?

A

The cadaver will be opened from bone shoulders down to the xiphoid, then from the xiphoid, down to the pubis.

376
Q

What is the perfect example of Specimens for cytology?

A

pap smears

377
Q

In the collection of pap smears, the doctor will ask the Px to lie down in what position?

A

in a lithotomy position.

378
Q

What is the site of collection for pap smears?

A

T-zone / Transformation Zone

379
Q

This the junction between endo and ectocervix

A

T-zone / Transformation Zone

380
Q

Most of the time preserved specimen ang ating pinaprocess dahil pag dating satin nito ay nakababad na sa formalin. Pero we can also examine a fresh specimen.

True or False

A

True

381
Q

What is an advantage of examining fresh tissue specimen?

A

allow us to detect protoplasmic activities

382
Q

What do we mean by able to detect protoplasmic activities?

A

We can detect motility, mitosis, phagocytosis & pinocytosis.

383
Q

What is a disadvantage of examining fresh specimens?

A

we cannot keep the specimen for a long time and keep it for future references..

384
Q

What are advantages of examining preserved specimens?

A
  • We can keep it for future reference
  • We can do staining to provide better visualization.
385
Q

What are the methods of examination?

TCS

A
  1. Teasing/ dissociation
  2. Squash Preparation or Crushing Technique
  3. Smear preparation
386
Q

This is the method of examination where we get a watch glass, place small pieces of tissues then add NSS.

A

Teasing/dissociation

387
Q

This is a method of examination wherein we use a loop, needle or even applicator to dissociate tissues

A

Teasing/dissociation

388
Q

What type of microscope is used in dissociated tissues?

A

Brightfield or phase contrast microscope.

389
Q

on a slide, place the small pieces of tissues on the slide then get another slide to compress the tissue in between the 2 slides. What method of examination is this?

A

Squash Preparation or Crushing Technique

390
Q

The squash preparation or crushing technique is not suited for large tissues, only for small tissues with a size of 1 mm or more

True or false

A

false

1 mm or less

390
Q

The squash preparation or crushing technique is not suited for large tissues, only for small tissues with a size of 1 mm or more

True or false

A

false

1 mm or less

391
Q

vital dyes are used for what method of examination?

A

Squash Preparation or Crushing Technique

392
Q

This vital dye is the best vital dye

A

neutral red

393
Q

This is the most recommended method if you are dealing with cells (method for cytology)

A

Smear preparation

394
Q

What are 4 ways in preparing a smear:

A
  1. Streaking
  2. Spreading
  3. Pull apart
  4. Touch preparation
395
Q

This is a way to prepare a smear wherein you place the specimen on a slide w/ a loop needle or applicator stick, spread the specimen in a ZIGZAG manner.

A
396
Q

This is a way to prepare a smear wherein you place the specimen on a slide w/ a loop needle or applicator stick, spread the specimen in a ZIGZAG manner.

A

Streaking

397
Q

this way of preparing a smear is recommended for viscous specimens

A

Streaking

398
Q

it is preparing a smear for AFB staining and measuring it by 2 by 3

A

Spreading

399
Q

An advantage of streaking is that it preserves the intercellular relationship

True or False

A

FALSE

SPREADING

400
Q

THIS IS ALSO A WAY TO REPARE A SMEAR THAT IS also suited for viscous specimen

A

PULL APART

401
Q

It is done by spreading the specimen with the use of another slide and not with the loop or applicator stick, this is done by using 2 slides that overlap one another by pulling the slides towards opposite ends in order to spread the specimen

A

Pull apart

402
Q

Touch preparation is also called …

A

impression smear, and also called abraded cytology

403
Q

It is usually done with specimens for lymph nodes.

A

Touch preparation

404
Q

In this method it is allowed for the slide to come in contact with the cut surface of an organ/tissue. If it is allowed to come in contact it will leave its own mark, and that mark is called imprint.

A

Touch preparation

405
Q

This is a method of examination for rapid diagnosis

A

Frozen Section

406
Q

This method of examination is Done INTRAOPERATIVELY

A

Frozen section

407
Q

Fixation involves placing the specimen in formalin for how many hours?

A

22-48

408
Q

After dehydration, what do we use for clearing?

A

xylene or chloroform

409
Q

Within how many minutes, will it be determined whether it is benign or malignant?

A

within 15 mins

410
Q

Previously a freezing microtome, but now, what i used?

A

cryostat/cold microtome

411
Q

To prepare frozen, what is used?

A

CRYOSTAT

412
Q

To prepare paraffin, what is used?

A

ROTARY

413
Q

What is the purpose of frozen section?

A
  • rapid diagnosis when the tissue is in the operating room
  • if we process specimens with heat sensitive structures.
414
Q

Infiltration is also known as …

A

impregnation

415
Q

For specimens with heat sensitive structure, we prepare frozen sections.

True or False

A

tRUE

416
Q

Frozen section is the section recommended if you want to demonstrate nervous tissues like peripheral nerve, myelin fibers.

True or False

A

True

417
Q

For us to cut it faster, we need to have it frozen.

TRUE or False

A

True

418
Q

Examples of freezing agents?

A
  • Commonly used is carbon dioxide.
  • liquid nitrogen
  • isopentane.
419
Q

What is the average temperature of a cryostat or cold microtome?

A

The average temperature is -20 degrees celsius

420
Q

What do we do once we receive a specimen in histopath?

A
  1. Numbering
  2. Enter the details of the patient in the logbook.
421
Q

What is numbering called if it is computerized?

A

Accessing

422
Q

In histopath, we use a marker not only to take down the gross description but to also label the slide.

True or false

A

FALSE

PENCIL

423
Q

what is the size of the specimen?

A

3x2cm.

424
Q

what is the size of the specimen?

A

3x2cm.

425
Q

What must the thickness of the specimen be?

A

Thickness: 3-5

426
Q

What is the size for lung specimens?

A

1-2cm.

427
Q

What is the size of the tissue cassette?

A

2.5 x 4 cm

428
Q

What is the depth of a tissue cassette?

A

5 mm

429
Q

it is an automatic tissue processor that can do fixation, dehydration, clearing, and infiltration.

A

autotech

430
Q

It consists of 10 beakers. 1 L capacity beaker.

A

autotech

431
Q

It consists of 10 beakers. 1 L capacity beaker.

A

autotech

432
Q

Beaker arrangement:

first 2 beakers contain formalin for fixation

True or false

A

TRUE

433
Q

BEAKER ARRANGEMENT

beakers 3-6 are for for clearing (containing: saline or chloroform)

True or false

A

FALSE

Beakers 7-8

434
Q

beaker arrangement

beakers 3-6 contain ascending concentration of the alcohol (dehydration)

True or false

A

true

435
Q

beaker arrangement

the last 2 beakers contain what for what?

A

contains paraffin wax for infiltration

436
Q

What are the 4 autopsy techniques?

Autopsy techniques

A
  1. By Rudolf Virchow
  2. Carl Rokitansky
  3. Anton Ghon
  4. Maurice Letulle
437
Q

Who is the Father of Modern Pathology?

A

Rudolf Virchow

438
Q

Organs are removed one by one

A

R. Virchow

439
Q

involves “EN-BLOC” removal of organs

A

Anton Ghon

440
Q

involves in situ dissection (walang tatanggalin)

A

Carl Rokitansky

441
Q

What does EN BLOC mean?

A

organs na magkakasystem ay tatanggalin sabay-sabay

442
Q

involves removal of organs “EN MASSE”

A

M. Letulle

443
Q

what does EN MASSE mean?

A

all organs are removed at the same time

histopath lec (7 decks)

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