Intro to Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Cancer affects _____ of dogs and _____ of cats

A

1/3 of dogs and 1/4 of cats

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2
Q

Carcinomas generally spread via _______

A

lymphatics

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3
Q

Sarcomas generally spread via_____

A

hematogenous routes

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4
Q

6 Hallmarks of cancer

A
  1. resisting cell death
  2. sustaining proliferative signaling
  3. evading growth suppressors
  4. activating invasion and metastasis
  5. enabling replicative immortality
  6. inducing angiogenesis
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5
Q

What are the “emerging hallmarks” of cancer?

A
  1. deregulating cellular energetics

2. avoiding immune destruction

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6
Q

What are the “enabling characteristics” of cancer?

A
  1. genome instability and mutation

2. tumor-promoting inflammation

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7
Q

Drugs that interfere with sustaining proliferative signaling

A

Palladia, Masitinib

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8
Q

Therapies/drugs that interfere with tumors ability to avoid immune destruction

A

Metronomic Chemotherapy, Palladia, Masitinib

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9
Q

Therapies/drugs that interfere with induction of angiogenesis by tumors

A

Metronomic Chemotherapy, Palladia, Masitinib

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10
Q

Therapies/drugs that interfere with a tumors ability for replicative immortality

A

telomerase inhibitors

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11
Q

PAPR inhibitors interfere with what characteristic of cancer?

A

genome instability & mutation

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12
Q

Therapies/drugs that inhibit a tumors ability to deregulate cellular energetics

A

aerobic glycolysis inhibitors

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13
Q

Tumor cells often have mechanisms to resist cell death, but this class of drugs acts to interfere with this property.

A

BH3 mimetics

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14
Q

Carcinomas originate from __________

A

epithelial or glandular tissue

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15
Q

Sarcomas originate from ________

A

mesenchymal cells

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16
Q

Types of round cell tumors to be familiar with

A
  1. lymphoma
  2. MCT
  3. plasma cell tumor
  4. histiocytoma
  5. TVT
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17
Q

Name a breed predisposed to MCTs

A

Boxers

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18
Q

Name a breed predisposed to TCC

A

Scottish Terriers

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19
Q

Name a breed that often gets histiocytomas

A

Bernese Mtn Dogs

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20
Q

Name a tumor type that has a bimodal age distribution in animals

A

osteosarcoma

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21
Q

Why should you stain (diff-quik) one slide in-house?

A

to ensure you have a diagnostic sample to send off

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22
Q

What should you not package cytology samples with or get them near?

A

formalin! even the vapors can make them nondiagnostic

23
Q

What is one tumor type that seeding IS a high risk if FNA is done?

A

TCC of lower UT

24
Q

Histopathology characteristics

A
  • more invasive than cytology
  • larger sample size
  • tissue architecture maintained
  • can evaluate surrounding tissue reaction and invasion by the tumor
25
Q

______ is thought of as an indicator of how quickly the tumor is likely to grow and spread

A

grade

26
Q

Are all tumors graded the same?

A

no, and not all tumor types have a validated grading scheme

27
Q

Why should resected tissue be submitted even when you had a pre-op diagnosis?

A

the grade could increase when more tissue is evaluated, possibly changing course of treatment and/or prognosis

28
Q

“TNM” staging stands for _____?

A

Tumor, Node, Metastasis

29
Q

____% of dogs that have oral melanoma and normal sized lymph nodes have microscopic evidence of metastasis

A

40%

30
Q

When staging, what else besides palpate regional lymph nodes should you do?

A

FNA or biopsy

31
Q

What modalities are used for evaluating distant metastasis?

A

Rads, US, CT or MRI, nuclear scintigraphy, PET/CT

32
Q

You have a bladder tumor in a Scottish Terrier-what next tests do you suggest?

A

Abd US & Chest x-rays

33
Q

You have a MCT on the left tarsus of a Golden Retriever-what next tests do you suggest?

A

Abd US

34
Q

You have a soft tissue sarcoma on the maxilla of a Lab-what next tests do you suggest?

A

Chest x-rays

35
Q

What is a paraneoplastic syndrome?

A

a disease or symptom that is a consequence of cancer being in the body, but NOT due to local presence of cancer cells

36
Q

What are four reasons paraneoplastic syndromes are important

A
  1. diagnostic aid
  2. contributors to morbidity/mortality
  3. indicators of tumor biology
  4. marker for treatment response/recurrence
37
Q

A cat with alopecia and shiny skin is a classic presentation for ____________

A

pancreatic adenocarcinoma

38
Q

Two GI paraneoplastic syndromes

A
  1. cancer cachexia

2. GI ulceration

39
Q

GI ulceration is a paraneoplastic syndrome that is most common with what type of tumors?

A

MCT

40
Q

How do MCTs lead to GI ulceration?

A

degranulation of many mast cells at once->increased serum histamine->stimulation of gastric H2 receptors->increased gastric acid secretion->ulceration

41
Q

Three endocrine paraneoplastic syndromes

A
  1. hypercalcemia
  2. hypoglycemia
  3. ectopic ACTH
42
Q

Hypercalcemia DDX

A
D-vitamin D, dehydration
R-renal, raisins
A-Addison's, aluminum or vitamin A toxicity
G-granulomatous disease, grapes
O-osteolytic
N-neoplasia 
S-spurious
H-hyperparathyroidism, house plants, humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy
I-idiopathic
T-temperature (hypothermia)
43
Q

Five hematologic paraneoplastic syndromes

A
  1. hypergammaglobulinemia
  2. anemia
  3. erythrocytosis
  4. neutrophilic leukocytosis
  5. thrombocytopenia/coagulopathy/DIC
44
Q

Hypergammablobulinemia is associated with ________

A

multiple myeloma

45
Q

What are some possible causes of anemia?

A
  1. anemia of chronic dz
  2. IMHA
  3. blood loss
  4. microangiopathic hemolysis
  5. bone marrow hypoplasia-secondary to hyperestrogenemia
46
Q

What are six cutaneous paraneoplastic syndromes?

A
  1. alopecia
  2. flushing
  3. nodular dermatofibrosis
  4. necrolytic migratory erythema
  5. cutaneous necrosis of hind feet
  6. pemphigus vulgaris
47
Q

Renal paraneoplastic syndromes

A

glomerulonephritis/nephrotic syndrome

48
Q

Neurologic paraneoplastic syndromes

A
  1. myasthenia gravis

2. peripheral neuropathy

49
Q

Misc. paraneoplastic syndromes

A
  1. hypertrophic osteopathy

2. fever

50
Q

What is the main tumor type that myasthenia gravis is associated with?

A

thymoma

51
Q

Clinical signs of myasthenia gravis

A
  • exercise intolerance
  • dysphagia
  • megaesophagus
52
Q

Myasthenia gravis often responds well to what treatment?

A

treatment of primary tumor (e.g. often thymoma)

53
Q

Hypertrophic osteopathy is usually secondary to a tumor located where?

A

lungs

54
Q

Treatments for hypertrophic osteopathy

A
  • remove primary tumor

- supportive care